2017 -- H 5469 | |
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LC001228 | |
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STATE OF RHODE ISLAND | |
IN GENERAL ASSEMBLY | |
JANUARY SESSION, A.D. 2017 | |
____________ | |
A N A C T | |
RELATING TO FOOD AND DRUGS - UNIFORM CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES ACT | |
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Introduced By: Representative Joseph M. McNamara | |
Date Introduced: February 15, 2017 | |
Referred To: House Health, Education & Welfare | |
(Attorney General) | |
It is enacted by the General Assembly as follows: | |
1 | SECTION 1. Sections 21-28-1.2 and 21-28-3.32 of the General Laws in Chapter 21-28 |
2 | entitled "Uniform Controlled Substances Act" are hereby amended to read as follows: |
3 | 21-28-1.02. Definitions. |
4 | Unless the context otherwise requires, the words and phrases as defined in this section are |
5 | used in this chapter in the sense given them in the following definitions: |
6 | (1) "Administer" refers to the direct application of controlled substances to the body of a |
7 | patient or research subject by: |
8 | (i) A practitioner, or, in his or her presence by his or her authorized agent; or |
9 | (ii) The patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner |
10 | whether the application is by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means. |
11 | (2) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a |
12 | manufacturer, wholesaler, distributor, or dispenser; except that these terms do not include a |
13 | common or contract carrier or warehouse operator, when acting in the usual and lawful course of |
14 | the carrier's or warehouse operator's business. |
15 | (3) "Apothecary" means a registered pharmacist as defined by the laws of this state and, |
16 | where the context requires, the owner of a licensed pharmacy or other place of business where |
17 | controlled substances are compounded or dispensed by a registered pharmacist; and includes |
18 | registered assistant pharmacists as defined by existing law, but nothing in this chapter shall be |
19 | construed as conferring on a person who is not registered as a pharmacist any authority, right, or |
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1 | privilege that is not granted to him or her by the pharmacy laws of the state. |
2 | (4) "Automated data processing system" means a system utilizing computer software and |
3 | hardware for the purposes of record keeping. |
4 | (5) "Certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigator" means a certified |
5 | law enforcement officer assigned by their qualified law enforcement agency to investigate |
6 | prescription drug diversion and who has completed a certification course in prescription drug |
7 | diversion approved by the director and certified by the police officers commission on standards |
8 | and training. |
9 | (5)(6) "Computer" means programmable electronic device capable of multi-functions, |
10 | including, but not limited to, storage, retrieval, and processing of information. |
11 | (6)(7) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance or immediate precursor to a |
12 | schedule under this chapter, whether by transfer from another schedule or otherwise. |
13 | (7)(8) "Controlled substance" means a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic |
14 | drug in schedules I -- V of this chapter. The term shall not include distilled spirits, wine, or malt |
15 | beverages, as those terms are defined or used in chapter 1 of title 3, nor tobacco. |
16 | (8)(9) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance which, or the container or |
17 | labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying |
18 | mark, imprint, number, or device, or any likeness of them, of a manufacturer, distributor, or |
19 | dispenser, other than the person or persons who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed |
20 | the substance and which thereby falsely purports or is represented to be the product of, or to have |
21 | been distributed by, the other manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser, or which substance is |
22 | falsely purported to be or represented to be one of the controlled substances by a manufacturer, |
23 | distributor, or dispenser. |
24 | (9)(10) "CRT" means cathode ray tube used to impose visual information on a screen. |
25 | (10)(11) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of a |
26 | controlled substance or imitation controlled substance, whether or not there exists an agency |
27 | relationship. |
28 | (11)(12) "Department" means the department of health of this state. |
29 | (12)(13) "Depressant or stimulant drug" means: |
30 | (i) A drug which contains any quantity of: |
31 | (A) Barbituric acid or derivatives, compounds, mixtures, or preparations of barbituric |
32 | acid; and |
33 | (B) "Barbiturate" or "barbiturates" includes all hypnotic and/or somnifacient drugs, |
34 | whether or not derivatives of barbituric acid, except that this definition shall not include bromides |
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1 | and narcotics. |
2 | (ii) A drug which contains any quantity of: |
3 | (A) Amphetamine or any of its optical isomers; |
4 | (B) Any salt of amphetamine and/or desoxyephedrine or any salt of an optical isomer of |
5 | amphetamine and/or desoxyephedrine, or any compound, mixture, or preparation of them. |
6 | (iii) A drug which contains any quantity of coca leaves. "Coca leaves" includes cocaine, |
7 | or any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of coca leaves, except |
8 | derivatives of coca leaves, which do not contain cocaine, ecgonine, or substance from which |
9 | cocaine or ecgonine may be synthesized or made. |
10 | (iv) Any other drug or substance which contains any quantity of a substance which the |
11 | attorney general of the United States, or the director of health, after investigation, has found to |
12 | have, or by regulation designates as having, a potential for abuse because of its depressant or |
13 | stimulant effect on the central nervous system. |
14 | (13)(14) "Director" means the director of health. |
15 | (14)(15) "Dispense" means to deliver, distribute, leave with, give away, or dispose of a |
16 | controlled substance to the ultimate user or human research subject by or pursuant to the lawful |
17 | order of a practitioner, including the packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare |
18 | the substance for that delivery. |
19 | (15)(16) "Dispenser" is a practitioner who delivers a controlled substance to the ultimate |
20 | user or human research subject. |
21 | (16)(17) "Distribute" means to deliver (other than by administering or dispensing) a |
22 | controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance and includes actual constructive, or |
23 | attempted transfer. "Distributor" means a person who so delivers a controlled substance or an |
24 | imitation controlled substance. |
25 | (17)(18) "Downtime" means that period of time when a computer is not operable. |
26 | (18)(19) "Drug addicted person" means a person who exhibits a maladaptive pattern of |
27 | behavior resulting from drug use, including one or more of the following: impaired control over |
28 | drug use; compulsive use; and/or continued use despite harm, and craving. |
29 | (19)(20) "Drug Enforcement Administration" means the Drug Enforcement |
30 | Administration United States Department of Justice or its successor. |
31 | (20)(21) "Federal law" means the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control |
32 | Act of 1970, (84 stat. 1236) (see generally 21 U.S.C. § 801 et seq.), and all regulations pertaining |
33 | to that federal act. |
34 | (21)(22) "Hardware" means the fixed component parts of a computer. |
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1 | (22)(23) "Hospital" means an institution as defined in chapter 17 of title 23. |
2 | (23)(24) "Imitation controlled substance" means a substance that is not a controlled |
3 | substance, which by dosage unit, appearance (including color, shape, size, and markings), or by |
4 | representations made, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled |
5 | substance and, which imitation controlled substances contain substances which if ingested, could |
6 | be injurious to the health of a person. In those cases when the appearance of the dosage unit is not |
7 | reasonably sufficient to establish that the substance is an "imitation controlled substance" (for |
8 | example in the case of powder or liquid), the court or authority concerned should consider, in |
9 | addition to all other logically relevant factors, the following factors as related to "representations |
10 | made" in determining whether the substance is an "imitation controlled substance": |
11 | (i) Statement made by an owner, possessor, transferor, recipient, or by anyone else in |
12 | control of the substance concerning the nature of the substance, or its use or effect. |
13 | (ii) Statements made by the owner, possessor, or transferor, to the recipient that the |
14 | substance may be resold for substantial profit. |
15 | (iii) Whether the substance is packaged in a manner reasonably similar to packaging of |
16 | illicit controlled substances. |
17 | (iv) Whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or |
18 | demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the |
19 | consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable value of the non-controlled substance. |
20 | (24)(25) "Immediate precursor" means a substance: |
21 | (i) Which the director of health has found to be and by regulation designated as being the |
22 | principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled |
23 | substance; |
24 | (ii) Which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the |
25 | manufacture of those controlled substances; and |
26 | (iii) The control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail, or limit the manufacture of that |
27 | controlled substance. |
28 | (25)(26) "Laboratory" means a laboratory approved by the department of health as proper |
29 | to be entrusted with controlled substances and the use of controlled substances for scientific and |
30 | medical purposes and for the purposes of instruction. |
31 | (26)(27) "Marijuana" means all parts of the plant cannabis sativa L., whether growing or |
32 | not; the seeds of the plant; the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and every compound, |
33 | manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds or resin, but shall not |
34 | include the mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the |
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1 | seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of |
2 | mature stalks, (except the resin extracted from it), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seed from the |
3 | plant which is incapable of germination. |
4 | (27)(28) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, cultivation, |
5 | compounding, or processing of a drug or other substance, including an imitation controlled |
6 | substance, either directly or indirectly or by extraction from substances of natural origin, or |
7 | independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical |
8 | synthesis and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling or relabeling of |
9 | its container in conformity with the general laws of this state except by a practitioner as an |
10 | incident to his or her administration or dispensing of the drug or substance in the course of his or |
11 | her professional practice. |
12 | (28)(29) "Manufacturer" means a person who manufactures but does not include an |
13 | apothecary who compounds controlled substances to be sold or dispensed on prescriptions. |
14 | (29)(30) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or |
15 | indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of |
16 | chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis: |
17 | (i) Opium and opiates. |
18 | (ii) A compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiates. |
19 | (iii) A substance (and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, or preparation of it) |
20 | which is chemically identical with any of the substances referred to in paragraphs (i) and (ii) of |
21 | this subdivision. |
22 | (iv) Any other substance which the attorney general of the United States, or his or her |
23 | successor, or the director of health, after investigation, has found to have, and by regulation |
24 | designates as having, a potential for abuse similar to opium and opiates. |
25 | (30)(31) "Official written order" means an order written on a form provided for that |
26 | purpose by the Drug Enforcement Administration under any laws of the United States making |
27 | provision for an official form, if order forms are authorized and required by federal law, and if no |
28 | order form is provided then on an official form provided for that purpose by the director of health. |
29 | (31)(32) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction-forming or addiction- |
30 | sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having |
31 | addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability. |
32 | (32)(33) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species papaver somniferum L., except |
33 | the seeds of the plant. |
34 | (33)(34) "Ounce" means an avoirdupois ounce as applied to solids and semi-solids, and a |
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1 | fluid ounce as applied to liquids. |
2 | (34)(35) "Person" means any corporation, association, partnership, or one or more |
3 | individuals. |
4 | (35)(36) "Physical dependence" means a state of adaptation that is manifested by a drug |
5 | class specific withdrawal syndrome that can be produced by abrupt cessation, rapid dose |
6 | reduction, decreasing blood level of the drug, and/or administration of an antagonist. |
7 | (36)(37) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after |
8 | mowing. |
9 | (37)(38) "Practitioner" means: |
10 | (i) A physician, osteopath, dentist, chiropodist, veterinarian, scientific investigator, or |
11 | other person licensed, registered or permitted to distribute, dispense, conduct research with |
12 | respect to or to administer a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research |
13 | in this state. |
14 | (ii) A pharmacy, hospital, or other institution licensed, registered or permitted to |
15 | distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, or to administer a controlled substance in |
16 | the course of professional practice or research in this state. |
17 | (38)(39) "Printout" means a hard copy produced by computer that is readable without the |
18 | aid of any special device. |
19 | (39)(40) "Production" includes the manufacture, planting, cultivation, growing, or |
20 | harvesting of a controlled substance. |
21 | (41) "Qualified law enforcement agency" means a local, state, and federal law |
22 | enforcement agency or the medical fraud unit in the office of the attorney general that has a |
23 | certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigator and a chief or law enforcement |
24 | chief executive officer who has successfully completed a certification course in prescription drug |
25 | diversion approved by the director and certified by the police officers commission on standards |
26 | and training. |
27 | (40)(42) "Researcher" means a person authorized by the director of health to conduct a |
28 | laboratory as defined in this chapter. |
29 | (41)(43) "Sell" includes sale, barter, gift, transfer, or delivery in any manner to another, |
30 | or to offer or agree to do the same. |
31 | (42)(44) "Software" means programs, procedures and storage of required information |
32 | data. |
33 | (43)(45) "Synthetic drugs" means any synthetic cannabinoids or piperazines or any |
34 | synthetic cathinones as provided for in schedule I. |
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1 | (44)(46) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance |
2 | for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household, or for administering to |
3 | an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household. |
4 | (45)(47) "Wholesaler" means a person who sells, vends, or distributes at wholesale, or as |
5 | a jobber, broker agent, or distributor, or for resale in any manner in this state any controlled |
6 | substance. |
7 | 21-28-3.32. Electronic prescription database. |
8 | (a) The information contained in any prescription-drug-monitoring database maintained |
9 | by the department of health pursuant to § 21-28-3.18 of this chapter shall be disclosed only: |
10 | (1) To a practitioner who certifies that the requested information is for the purpose of |
11 | evaluating the need for, or providing medical treatment to, a current patient to whom the |
12 | practitioner is prescribing or considering prescribing a controlled substance; |
13 | (2) To a pharmacist who certifies that the requested information is for a current client to |
14 | whom the pharmacist is dispensing, or considering dispensing, a controlled substance; |
15 | (3) To an authorized designee of the practitioner and/or pharmacist to consult the |
16 | prescription-drug-monitoring database on the practitioner's and/or pharmacist's behalf, provided |
17 | that: |
18 | (i) The designee so authorized is employed by the same professional practice or |
19 | pharmacy; |
20 | (ii) The practitioner or pharmacist takes reasonable steps to ensure that such designee is |
21 | sufficiently competent in the use of the database; |
22 | (iii) The practitioner or pharmacist remains responsible for ensuring that access to the |
23 | database by the designee is limited to authorized purposes as provided for in subsections (a)(1) |
24 | and (a)(2); |
25 | (iv) The practitioner or pharmacist remains responsible for ensuring access to the |
26 | database by the designee occurs in a manner that protects the confidentiality of information |
27 | obtained from the database and remains responsible for any breach of confidentiality; |
28 | (v) The practitioner or pharmacist terminates the designee's access to the database at the |
29 | termination of the designee's employment; and |
30 | (vi) The ultimate decision as to whether or not to prescribe or dispense a controlled |
31 | substance remains with the practitioner or pharmacist and is reasonably informed by the relevant, |
32 | controlled-substance-history information obtained from the database. |
33 | (4) Pursuant to a valid search warrant based on probable cause to believe a violation of |
34 | federal or state criminal law has occurred and that specified information contained in the database |
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1 | would assist in the investigation of the crime; |
2 | (5) To a certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigator of a qualified |
3 | law enforcement agency. |
4 | (i) A certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigator shall provide to |
5 | the department the following information in order to be granted access: |
6 | (A) The identification credentials assigned by the department; and |
7 | (B) The case number of the investigation. |
8 | (ii) A qualified law enforcement agency shall submit to the department an annual report |
9 | of the data accessed by all certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigators in |
10 | the qualified law enforcement agency, including, without limitation: |
11 | (A) Written verification that the inquiries were part of a lawful prescription drug |
12 | diversion investigation as provided to the department through the case number of the |
13 | investigation; and |
14 | (B) The disposition of the investigation. |
15 | (iii) The department shall: |
16 | (A) Create a verification form for use under subsection (5)(ii)(A) of this section; and |
17 | (B) Make the verification form available annually to the qualified law enforcement |
18 | agency. |
19 | (iv) The verification form under subsection (5)(ii)(A) of this section shall be submitted to |
20 | the department within thirty (30) days of receipt of the form by the qualified law enforcement |
21 | agency. |
22 | (v) Failure to submit a verification form under subsection (5)(iv) of this section shall |
23 | result in the immediate suspension of the access to the database by the qualified law enforcement |
24 | agency and its certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigators until a |
25 | determination is made by the department to allow continued access. |
26 | (5)(6) To a patient who requests his or her own prescription information, or the parent or |
27 | legal guardian of a minor child who requests the minor child's prescription information; |
28 | (6)(7) To a health professional regulatory board that documents, in writing, that the |
29 | requested information is necessary for an investigation related to licensure, renewal, or |
30 | disciplinary action involving the applicant, licensee, or registrant to whom the requested |
31 | information pertains; |
32 | (7)(8) To any vendor or contractor with whom the department has contracted, pursuant to |
33 | state purchasing law and regulations in the contracting of vendors, to establish or maintain the |
34 | electronic system of the prescription-drug-monitoring database; |
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1 | (8)(9) To public or private entities for statistical, research, or educational purposes, after |
2 | removing the patient and prescriber information that could be used to identify individual patients. |
3 | This shall not include entities receiving a waiver from the institutional review board; or |
4 | (9)(10) To any vendor, agent, contractor, or designee who operates an electronic health |
5 | record or clinical-management system for the purpose of sharing data with practitioners, |
6 | pharmacists, or licensed health care facilities or designees. |
7 | (b) Information stored in the prescription-drug-monitoring database shall include only the |
8 | following: |
9 | (1) Patient's first and last name and/or patient identification number; provided, however, |
10 | the patient's social security number shall not be recorded in whole or in part, patient sex, patient |
11 | date of birth, and patient address; |
12 | (2) Prescribing practitioner's name and Drug Enforcement Administration prescriber- |
13 | information number; |
14 | (3) Prescribing practitioner's office or hospital contact information; |
15 | (4) Prescription name, prescription number, prescription species code, national drug code |
16 | number, prescription dosage, prescription quantity, days' supply, new-refill code, number of |
17 | refills authorized, date the prescription was written, date the prescription was filled, payment |
18 | type; provided, however, no credit card number shall be recorded in whole or in part; and |
19 | (5) The Drug Enforcement Administration pharmacy number of the pharmacy filling the |
20 | prescription. |
21 | (c) The department shall disclose any information relating to a patient maintained in the |
22 | prescription-drug-monitoring database to that patient, at no cost to the patient, within thirty (30) |
23 | business days after the department receives a written request from the patient for the information. |
24 | This information shall include the records maintained by the department pursuant to subsection |
25 | (e). Notwithstanding the above, the department may, at the request of the law-enforcement |
26 | agency, withhold, for up to sixty (60) days following the conclusion of a law-enforcement |
27 | investigation that has been confirmed by the department, the disclosure to the patient that |
28 | information has been obtained pursuant to subdivision subsections (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this |
29 | section. |
30 | (d) A patient may request, from the dispensing pharmacy, correction of any inaccurate |
31 | information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database in accordance with the |
32 | procedure specified by § 5-37.3-5(c). |
33 | (e) The department shall, for the period of time that prescription information is |
34 | maintained, maintain records of the information disclosed through the prescription-drug- |
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1 | monitoring database, including, but not limited to: |
2 | (1) The identity of each person who requests or receives information from the |
3 | prescription-drug-monitoring database and the organization, if any, the person represents; |
4 | (2) The information released to each person or organization and the basis for its release |
5 | under subsection (a); and |
6 | (3) The dates the information was requested and provided. |
7 | (f) Prescription information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database |
8 | shall be removed no later than five (5) years from the date the information is entered into the |
9 | database. Records in existence prior to the enactment of this section shall be removed no later |
10 | than ten (10) years from the date the information is entered into the database. |
11 | (g) The department shall promptly notify any affected individual of an improper |
12 | disclosure of information from the prescription-drug-monitoring database or a breach in the |
13 | security of the prescription-drug-monitoring database that poses a significant risk of disclosure of |
14 | patient information to an unauthorized individual. |
15 | (h) At the time of signing a prescription that is required by the department to be entered |
16 | into the prescription-drug-monitoring database, the prescribing practitioner shall inform the |
17 | patient in writing of the existence of the prescription-drug-monitoring database; the patient's right |
18 | to access his or her own prescription information; and the name and contact information of the |
19 | agency operating the program. |
20 | (i) No person shall access information in the prescription-monitoring-database except to |
21 | the extent and for the purposes authorized by subsection (a). |
22 | (j) In any civil action allowing a violation of this chapter, the court may award damages, |
23 | including punitive damages, and reasonable attorneys' fees and costs to a prevailing plaintiff, and |
24 | injunctive and any other appropriate relief. |
25 | (k) Any pharmacist who, in his or her professional judgment, refuses to fill a prescription |
26 | based on information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database shall inform the |
27 | prescribing physician within twenty-four (24) hours. |
28 | (l) All practitioners shall, as a condition of the initial registration or renewal of the |
29 | practitioner's authority to prescribe controlled substances, register with the prescription-drug- |
30 | monitoring database maintained by the department of health. |
31 | (m) The prescription-monitoring program shall be reviewed prior to starting any opioid. |
32 | A prescribing practitioner, or designee as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of this section, shall |
33 | review the prescription-monitoring program prior to refilling or initiating opioid therapy with an |
34 | intrathecal pump. For patients the prescribing practitioner is maintaining on continuous opioid |
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1 | therapy for pain for three (3) months or longer, the prescribing practitioner shall review |
2 | information from the prescription-monitoring program at least every three (3) months. |
3 | Documentation of that review shall be noted in the patient's medical record. |
4 | (n) The department shall improve the usefulness and value of the prescription-drug- |
5 | monitoring database program by increasing its analytical functionality, timeliness, and scope, |
6 | such as by: |
7 | (1) Utilizing data from additional data sources as permissible under state and federal |
8 | statutes; |
9 | (2) Analyzing information submitted to the prescription-drug-monitoring database to |
10 | ensure that prescription data collected from dispensing pharmacists is readily accessible for a |
11 | given patient; to identify unusual or aberrant patterns of prescribing, dispensing, or receiving |
12 | controlled substances; and to generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise to automate |
13 | standard reports and to provide ad hoc reports on a real-time basis on this data as well as other |
14 | data feeds. These reports shall comply with the patient confidentiality requirements of federal and |
15 | state law; |
16 | (3) Developing regulations to ensure that prescription-drug-monitoring analyses are |
17 | updated and disseminated regularly to appropriate officials and that summary reports are provided |
18 | to the general assembly on or before February 1st of each year. Given the intent to decrease the |
19 | number of Rhode Island citizens affected by opioid use, the department shall provide an interim |
20 | report on the status of the directives included herein and any progress made as of October 1, |
21 | 2016. In the development of said regulations, the department may include any of the following |
22 | analytical functions, within the boundaries of patient confidentiality rights under state and federal |
23 | law: |
24 | (i) Consolidate raw prescription data collected from dispensing pharmacists into a single |
25 | view of all prescriptions filled for a given patient; |
26 | (ii) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of prescribing controlled substances, by relevant |
27 | prescriber attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise; |
28 | (iii) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of receiving prescriptions for controlled |
29 | substances, by relevant patient attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns |
30 | arise; |
31 | (iv) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of dispensing controlled substances, by relevant |
32 | dispenser attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise; |
33 | (v) Identify and visually display linkages among prescribers, patients, and dispensers that |
34 | can be used to detect any collusive behaviors; and |
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1 | (vi) The department shall apply for federal funding in support of the goals and objectives |
2 | contained in this subsection. |
3 | SECTION 2. This act shall take effect on January 1, 2018. |
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EXPLANATION | |
BY THE LEGISLATIVE COUNCIL | |
OF | |
A N A C T | |
RELATING TO FOOD AND DRUGS - UNIFORM CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES ACT | |
*** | |
1 | This act would allow information contained in the prescription drug monitoring database |
2 | to be disclosed to a certified law enforcement drug diversion investigator of a qualified law |
3 | enforcement agency who has completed a certification course approved by director of the |
4 | department of health and certified by the police officers commission on standards and training. |
5 | This act would take effect on January 1, 2018. |
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