2017 Annual Report

 

 

 

1)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

1-7-1

220 and 320

 

 

1-7-1. Long-term air-quality-monitoring program.

     (a) The Rhode Island airport corporation (RIAC) shall design, acquire, install, operate

and maintain a long-term air-quality-monitoring program in the vicinity of T.F. Green airport.

The corporation may hire a consultant to perform these tasks.

     (b) The monitoring program shall provide for the monitoring of all of the following:

     (1) Particulate matter, including only PM 2.5, particles less than 0.1 microns, and black

carbon.; and

     (2) Volatile organic compounds (VOC's), including, but not limited to: benzene, 1, 3

butadiene, and naphthalene; and carbonyls including, but not limited to, formaldehyde and

acetaldehyde; and

     (3) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, including those that are particulate bound and

semivolatiles.

     (c) (1) The design of the monitoring program shall:

     (i) Include an implementation schedule for the components of the monitoring program set

forth in subsection (b); and

     (ii) Assure the quality and meaningfulness of the monitoring data; and

     (iii) Be set forth in a draft work plan developed, in consultation with the department of

environmental management and the department of health.

     (2) The consultation with the department of environmental management and the

department of health shall include, but not be limited to:

     (i) Ensuring that peer review is employed in the development of an air-quality-monitoring

strategy;

     (ii) Providing the corporation with unbiased reviews of current, validated scientific

knowledge relevant to air-quality monitoring and public health impacts;

     (iii) Assisting with the review of work plans and reports;

     (iv) Evaluating and comparing the corporation's proposed methodologies, quality-

assurance procedures and monitoring criteria, with other relevant monitoring efforts mandated by

either state or federal law in order to ensure consistency and comparability among the

methodologies and criteria.

     (d) The draft work plan and the final work plan shall describe and justify with reasonable

specificity all significant aspects of the monitoring program, including, but not limited to,: quality

assurance procedures and a description and justification of the number, type, and location of the

ambient air-quality monitors to be installed as part of the long-term monitoring program.,

provided that there shall be at a minimum, one monitor placed at each of the following locations:

North, South, East and West of the airport. The ambient air-quality monitors shall be set up in a

network that shall include at least four (4) monitoring sites and shall be designed to measure air-

quality impacts from airport operations, including those associated with planes operating on the

extended runway and on neighborhoods adjacent to the airport facility, as well as at the Winslow

Park playing fields.

     (e) Notwithstanding the consultation requirement, the draft work plan shall be submitted

to the department of environmental management and the department of health within the thirty

(30) days of the effective date of this section for review and comment, pursuant to chapter 35 of

title 42 of the general laws. The departments shall provide comments within thirty (30) days of

receipt of the draft work plan. Following the departments' review and comment period, the draft

work plan shall be made available for review and comment by members of the general public,

and the air-quality-monitoring public advisory committee, established by this chapter, pursuant to

chapter 35 of title 42 of the general laws. Adoption of the final work plan by the corporation shall

be in accordance with chapter 35 of title 42 of the general laws. The final work plan shall be

submitted to the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of the

senate by the corporation no later than October 30, 2007.

     (f) The final work plan and all revised final work plans shall include a reasonable

evaluation of funding sources, such as federal grants, that may be available to the corporation to

cover some or all of the costs of the air-quality monitoring.

     (g) Amendments to the final work plan may be proposed by the corporation in

consultation with the department of environmental management and the department of health on

or before March 30, 2009, and every March 30, thereafter. Amendments to the final work plan

may also be proposed by the department of environmental management, the department of health,

and/or the air-quality-monitoring public advisory committee on or before January 31, 2009, and

every January 31, thereafter. Any proposed amendments to the final work plan shall be available

for review and comment by members of the general public, and the air-quality-monitoring public

advisory committee established by this chapter, pursuant to chapter 35 of title 42 of the general

laws. The purposes of proposed amendments to the final work plan are: (1) tTo allow the

corporation, in consultation with the department of environmental management and the

department of health, to consider any adaptations that may be indicated by the data collected from

the pervious year, including whether new monitoring technologies, methodologies, or criteria are

necessary; and (2) tTo make necessary adjustments to the program based on changes to state

and/or federal regulations. Any proposed amendments to the final work plan shall be incorporated

into a "revised [as of this date] final work plan" document, upon approval of the corporation, and

shall be submitted to the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president

of the senate by the corporation no later than January 1 of each year.

     (h) Long-term air-quality monitors will be procured and in effect by December 30, 2007.

Interim monitoring shall be performed until such time as the long-term monitoring program is in

place, and the use of all data generated therefrom shall conform with the reporting requirements

set forth in § 1-7-6(b).


 

 

2)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

1-7-6

220 and 320

 

 

1-7-6. Reporting.

     (a) The corporation shall provide the department of environmental management with an

inventory of greenhouse gas pollutants, including, but not limited to, carbon dioxide and methane, an annual inventory of sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and carbon monoxide. The

Inventories of data generated in the prior calendar year shall be reported to the department of

Environmental management on or before March 30, 2009, and every March 30 thereafter.

     (b) Data generated from the permanent air-quality monitors shall be reported to the

department of environmental management and the department of health on at least a quarterly

basis and shall be used by the departments to continuously augment and update air-quality-

monitoring studies conducted by the departments.

     (c) The department of health shall prepare an annual report which that shall contain the

department's findings, analysis, conclusions, and recommendations resulting from the data

generated by and from the permanent air-quality monitors (the "monitors"), as well as a summary

of the data collected from the monitors. The first such report shall be due on or before July 31,

2017, and on or before July 31 in 2018, 2019, and for any further year thereafter during which

data is collected and reported pursuant to the provisions of subsection (b) of this section. Copies

of these reports shall be provided by the required dates to the speaker of the house, the president

of the senate, the office of the governor, the office of the attorney general, and the offices of the

mayor and the city council of the city of Warwick.


 

 

3)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

1-7-9

220 and 320

 

 

1-7-9. Sunset provisions.

On or before January 31, 2017, and on or before January 31, 2018, and January 31, 2019,

thereafter, the department of environmental management, the department of health, and the

attorney general shall submit to the governor, the speaker of the house, and the president of the

senate, recommendations as to the continuation of the air monitoring required in this act and,

unless extended by the general assembly, the corporation's obligation to operate and maintain the

air monitoring system will cease on July 31, 2017 2019.


 

 

4)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers

 

2-1-10

213 and 243

 

 

2-1-10. Inspection powers.

     (a) For the purpose of conducting inspections, the director of environmental management

and the director of health, or any of his or her agents or deputies, have authority to enter, at any

reasonable time, any building, storehouse, warehouse, cold-storage plant, packing house,

stockyard, railroad yard, railroad car, or any other building or place where farm products are

produced, kept, stored, or offered for sale, or to enter upon any farm land for the purpose of

inspecting farm products.

     (b) The director of the department of environmental management, through the division of

agriculture, shall continue to enforce the commercial growers of fruits and vegetables voluntary

food safety program developed by the Food and Drug Administration and the United States

Department of Agriculture known as Good Agricultural Practices (GAP), and shall enforce the

Food Safety Modernization Act as it pertains to commercial growers of fruits and vegetables.


 

 

5)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers

 

3-7-4.1

177 and 384

 

 

3-7-4.1. Holders of retail Class A licenses permitted to conduct wine, beer, and

distilled spirit samplings inside licensed premises.

Any holder of a Class A retail license shall be permitted to conduct at no charge to the

consumer, inside the premises of the licensee, sample tastings of wine (under 13% alcohol by

volume), beer (under 5.5% alcohol by volume), and distilled spirits available for purchase from

the licensee's outlet. These samples shall not exceed one-ounce servings of each wine, the number

of wines being limited to no more than four (4) products at any one tasting; and one-ounce

servings of each beer, with the number of beer samplings being limited to two (2) products at any

one tasting; and one-quarter-ounce servings (1/4 oz) of each distilled spirit, the number of

distilled spirits being limited to no more than two (2) products at any one tasting. Furthermore,

wine, beer, and distilled spirits samplings may not be conducted simultaneously on the same

Class A licensed premise. Each consumer shall be limited to no more than one sample tasting of

each product. The licensee may elect on one occasion annuallybetween May 1st through May

15th of each calendar year and once during the month of November only, to serve unlimited

samples of wine products available for purchase from the licensee's outlet.

     It shall be required that the licensee provide, at no charge to the consumer, food

samplings to be included with the tasting of all wine and beer. Those food samplings not

consumed during the tasting shall not thereafter be offered for sale.

     The licensee shall control, without wholesaler or supplier participation, the dispensing of

all samples to prospective customers. The licensee may not hold more than ten (10) tasting events

in any thirty-day (30) period. It shall be required that the licensee provide to the dispenser(s) of

said wine and beer samples, training in the service of alcoholic beverages by a recognized

training provider of alcoholic beverage service.

     Sampling events may not be promoted except on the licensed premises. It shall be

unlawful for any wholesaler, manufacturer, supplier, or any other person or entity to participate or

provide anything or any service of value on account of or in conjunction with any such sampling.

It shall be unlawful for any tasting, or combination of tastings, to exceed more than four (4) hours

from start to finish and must be conducted during the normal hours of business.


 

 

6)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-7-6.1

43 and 63

 

 

3-7-6.1. Renewal of Class B, Class C, Class D, Class J, Class N and Class P licenses.

     (a) The holder of a Class B, Class C, Class D, Class J, Class N or Class P license who

applies before October 1, in any licensing period, for a license of the same class for the next

succeeding licensing period shall, prior to filing said application, demonstrate that he or she has

complied with the alcohol server training regulations, as promulgated by the department of

business regulation, as set forth in subsection (b) of this section.

     (b) The department of business regulation shall promulgate rules and regulations

requiring that all licenses issued pursuant to this section meet the following minimum alcohol

server training regulations, requirements:

     (1) All persons who sell or serve alcoholic beverages; anyone serving in a supervisory

capacity over those who sell or serve alcoholic beverages; anyone whose job description entails

the checking of identification for the purchase of alcoholic beverages; and valet parking staff

shall receive alcohol server training regulations, as set forth herein.;

     (2) Any eligible employee of a licensee shall be required to complete certified training

within sixty (60) days of the commencement of his or her employment and must attain a

minimum score of seventy-five percent (75%). Provided, however, that the city of Pawtucket and

the town of Smithfield may require eligible employees to complete the certified training

program, prior to employment within the city or town. Individuals certified by an alcohol server

training program prior to December 31, 2005, are exempt from the certification requirements

herein, not to exceed three (3) years.;

     (3) Licensees shall require servers to be recertified every three (3) years.;

     (4) As a condition of license renewal, and as part of the license renewal application, each

licensee must submit to their municipality information verifying that all persons listed under

subsection (b)(1) of this section and employed by the licensee for more than sixty (60) days in the

past year have completed a certified program within the last three (3) years.;

     (5) All persons identified under subsection (b) of this section must have their valid server

permits on the premises when engaged in the sale or service of alcoholic beverages.; and

     (6) Individuals who have been issued a server permit in another jurisdiction by an

approved Rhode Island alcohol server training program shall be determined to be in compliance

with this section subject to the three-year (3) limitation contained herein.

     (c) Only alcohol server training programs that meet the following criteria as determined

by the behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and healthcare department of business

regulation may be eligible for certification:

     (1) Training is provided in all basic information relevant to servers, including, but not

limited to:

     (i) The physiological effects of alcohol;

     (ii) Alcohol's association with social problems;

     (iii) Coverage of legal requirements related to alcohol service;

     (iv) How to identify patrons who are impaired; and

     (v) Techniques in refusing service to intoxicated patrons.

     (2) Training is provided in more than one medium including, but not limited to, video,

training manual, and/or role playing related to refusal of service to intoxicated drinkers.;

     (3) Training in preventing sales to underage drinkers, including training in detection of

fraudulent identification; and

     (4) Training shall entail no less than two (2) hours, and no greater than four (4) hours in

duration, with no absentee certification.

     (d) Notwithstanding the criteria established under subsection (c) of this section, an

internet- or computer-based alcohol server training program shall be eligible for certification if

the following criteria are met:

     (1) Training in all basic information, as outlined in subsection (c)(1) of this section, is

included in the program;

     (2) Training in preventing sales to underage drinkers, including training in detection of

fraudulent identification, is included in the program; and

     (3) Training program is designed to periodically verify that a trainee has reviewed and

obtained a working knowledge of information presented through the internet or computer training

program.

     (e) (1) Testing procedures, test content, and grading procedures shall be approved by the

department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and healthcare business

regulation to ensure testing integrity and consistency with program requirements contained in

subsection (c) herein. The department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and

healthcare business regulation is authorized to audit, in a method it shall determine, any approved

server training program.;

     (2) Training programs, pursuant to rules and regulations promulgated by the department

of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and healthcare business regulation, shall be

recertified every three (3) years.; and

     (3) Server permits shall be issued by the server training programs in a form approved by

the behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and healthcare department of business

regulation. Said permits shall include, at a minimum, the name of the server, the date of issuance,

and the name of the server training program.

     (f) The department of business regulation shall promulgate and enforce rules and

regulations for noncompliance as follows:

     (1) Graduated penalties for licensees for violations within a three-year (3) period

beginning with an initial written warning for violations within a three-year (3) period for a first

violation; a written warning for a second violation; a fine not to exceed two hundred fifty dollars

($250) for a third violation or noncompliance; and a license suspension for subsequent

violations.;

     (2) For violations within a three-year (3) period, graduated penalties for training

programs beginning with an initial written warning, a written warning for a second (2nd)

violation, and a suspension and/or decertification for a third (3rd) violation or for repeated

noncompliance. The behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and healthcare may

forward complaints of violations to the department of business regulation.;

     (3) For violations within a three-year (3) period, graduated penalties for servers

beginning with an initial written warning; a written warning for a second violation, and a loss of

server training certification for a third violation or noncompliance.; and

     (4) Failure to have a valid server permit on their person shall not constitute a violation,

provided, proof of a valid permit is provided within ten (10) days thereof.

     (g) In order to provide for uniformity, any enactment by any government body relating to

alcohol server training programs pertaining to Class B, Class C, Class D, Class J, Class N, and

Class P licenses, as provided for herein shall be by statute as enacted by the general assembly.

     (h) The respective departments shall promulgate said regulations no later than October 1,

2005. The department of business regulation behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities

and healthcare shall review and certify eligible alcohol server training programs no later than

January 1, 2006. The department of business regulation behavioral healthcare, developmental

disabilities and healthcare shall notify applicants of any deficiencies not later than December 1,

2005. All licensees shall be in compliance with said regulations within ninety (90) days of

January 1, 2006, or be subject to the penalties set forth herein.


 

 

7)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-7-19

3,4,76,446, and 463

 

 

3-7-19. Objection by adjoining property owners -- Proximity to schools and

churches.

     (a) Retailers' Class B, C, N and I licenses, and any license provided for in § 3-7-16.8 of

this chapter, shall not be issued to authorize the sale of beverages in any building where the

owner of the greater part of the land within two hundred feet (200') of any point of the building

files with the body or official having jurisdiction to grant licenses his or her objection to the

granting of the license, nor in any building within two hundred feet (200') of the premises of any

public, private, or parochial school or a place of public worship. In the city of East Providence,

retailer's Class A licenses shall not be issued to authorize the sale of beverages in any building

within five hundred feet (500') of the premises of any public, private, or parochial school, or a

place of public worship.

     (b) As used in this section, "private school" means any nonpublic institution of

elementary or secondary (K-12th grade) education, accredited or recognized as a private school

by the department of elementary and secondary education or the school committee of the city or

town having jurisdiction over private schools.

     (c) This section shall not apply to any Class B or C license holder whose license was

issued prior to January 1, 1978, nor shall this section apply to, or constitute the basis of, an

objection to, or disapproval of, the transfer of a Class B or C license where the location of the

licensed establishment predates the location of the public, private, or parochial school, or place of

public worship.

     (d) (1) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer Class B, C, or I license intended to be located within the following

described area(s) in the city of Providence:

     (A) Beginning at a point, that point being the intersection of the southerly line of Smith

Street and the easterly taking line of Interstate Route 95;

     Thence running in a general southwesterly direction along the easterly taking line of

Interstate Route 95 to the center line of Kingsley Avenue;

     Thence turning and running northwesterly in part along the southerly line of Kingsley

Avenue to its intersection with the southerly line of Harris Avenue;

     Thence turning and running westerly along the southerly line of Harris Avenue to its

intersection with the southerly line of Atwells Avenue;

     Thence turning and running easterly along the southerly line of Atwells Avenue to the

easterly taking line of Interstate Route 95;

     Thence turning and running in a general southerly and southeasterly direction along the

easterly taking line of Interstate Route 95 to the center line of Pine Street;

     Thence turning and running northeasterly along the northerly taking line of I-195 to its

intersection with the northerly taking line of I-195;

     Thence turning and running northeasterly along the northerly taking line of I-195 to its

intersection with the westerly shore line of the Providence River;

     Thence turning and running northerly along the westerly shore line of the Providence

River to its intersection with the southerly line of Crawford Street;

     Thence running northwesterly across Dyer Street to the intersection of the westerly line

of Dyer Street to the southerly line of Custom House Street;

     Thence running northerly in part along the southerly line of Dyer Street and in part along

the westerly line of Market Square to its intersection with the westerly line of Canal Street;

     Thence turning and running northerly along the westerly line of Canal Street to its

intersection with the southerly line of Smith Street;

     Thence turning and running westerly along the southerly line of Smith Street to the point

and place of beginning.

     (B) Beginning at a point, that point being the intersection of the westerly line of Brook

Street and the northerly line of Wickenden Street;

     Thence running in a general westerly direction along the northerly line of Wickenden

Street to the intersection of Wickenden Street and Benefit Street;

     Thence running in a general northerly direction along the easterly line of Benefit Street to

the intersection of Benefit Street and Sheldon Street;

     Thence turning and running in an easterly direction along the southerly line of Sheldon

Street to the intersection of Sheldon Street and Brook Street;

     Thence turning and running in a general southerly line to the intersection of Brook Street

and Wickenden Street that being the point of beginning.

     (2) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Newport shall, after application, have authority to exempt from the provisions of this section any

proposed retailer Class B license intended to be located within the following described area in the

city of Newport:

     Beginning at a point, that point being the intersection of the southerly line of Broadway

and the easterly line of Courthouse Square;

     Thence running in a general northeasterly direction along the southerly line of Broadway

a distance of one hundred and two feet (102') to a point at the southeasterly corner of land now or

formerly owned by the Newport Historical Society;

     Thence turning and running in a southeasterly direction ninety-eight and nine-tenths feet

(98.9') along the southwesterly border of land now or formerly owned by the Newport Historical

Society;

     Thence turning and running in a southwesterly direction one hundred and twelve feet

(112') to Courthouse Street; and

     Thence turning and running in a generally northwesterly direction along Courthouse

Street for a distance of ninety feet (90') to the point and place of beginning.

     (3) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Warren shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailer Class B, C, or I license intended to be located within any zoning district in

the town of Warren which is designated as a limited business district or as a general business

district pursuant to the zoning ordinance of the town of Warren.

     (4) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Bristol shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailer Class B license intended to be located on lot 34 of tax assessors plat 10 of

the Bristol tax assessors map as of December 31, 1999, including that portion of the public

sidewalk contiguous to said lot.

     (5) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses for the city of

Newport shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

as to places of public worship any proposed sidewalk cafe as defined in the Codified Ordinance

of the city of Newport, provided that the applicant be an existing holder of a Retailers' Class B

license.

     (6) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer Class B license intended to be located on lot 131 of tax assessors

plat 68 of the Providence tax assessors map as of December 31, 1999 and any proposed retailer

Class B license intended to be located on lot 21 of the tax assessors map plat 49 and any proposed

retailer class BV license intended to be located on lots 3 and 5 of tax assessors map plat 35 of the

Providence tax assessors map as of December 31, 2003.

     (7) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Cranston shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailer Class B license intended to be located on either lot 160 of tax assessor's plat

9, and/or on lot 152 of tax assessor's plat 9, of the Cranston tax assessor's map as of December 31,

2002; provided, however, as to the subsequent transfer of said Class B license issued by the city

of Cranston under this exemption, whether said transfer is attributable to the holder's death or

otherwise, any person desiring to become the potential transferee of said Class B license shall

comply with those restrictions as to its use (and shall refrain from those activities which result in

its reversion) set forth in the city of Cranston Memorandum of Understanding dated May 13,

2003 and, in addition, those requirements applicable to anyone who desires to become a

transferee of a validly issued and outstanding Class B license designated for use in any location in

the state of Rhode Island. Neither the exemption granted herein nor any future exemption granted

hereafter shall be effective until the proposed Class B license and the underlying property owner

is certified to be current in the payment of any and all local and state taxes.

     (8) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Pawtucket shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailer Class B, C, or I license intended to be located within the following

described area in the city of Pawtucket:

     Beginning at the point of intersection of Dexter Street and the Central Falls line, then east

along the Central Falls line to the Blackstone River, then north along the city boundary on the

Blackstone River to the Cumberland line, then west along the Pawtucket city boundary line to I-

95, then south along I-95 to Pine Street, then north on Pine Street to AMTRAK Right of Way,

then northwest along the AMTRAK Right of Way to Dexter Street, then north on Dexter Street to

the Central Falls line.

     (9) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section the town council of the town of Little

Compton, after application, is authorized to exempt from the provisions of this section relating to

places of worship any class B license limited to malt and vinous beverages intended to be located

on Plat 30, Lot 33 of the town of Little Compton tax assessment map existing as of December 31,

2004.

     (10) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Bristol shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailers' Class B license intended to be located on lots 3, 18, and 19 of tax

assessors plat 10 of the Bristol tax assessors map as of December 31, 2007.

     (11) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section the town council of the town of

Smithfield, after application, is authorized to exempt from the provisions of this section, any class

B, C, or I license intended to be located on Plat 45, Lot 042 of the town of Smithfield, tax

assessment map existing as of December 31, 2007; provided, however, said exemption shall

apply only to any renewal of any class B, C, or I license issued for use at the said premises

located on plat 45, lot 042 as of December 31, 2011. In the event said license is not renewed, then

this exemption is hereby repealed in its entirety.

     (12) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer Class B license intended to be located on plat 13, lots 31 and 32 of

the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (13) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Tiverton shall, after the application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section a proposed retailer's Class BV license for a restaurant located on tax assessor's plat 181,

lot 1A.

     (14) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on tax assessor's plat 68, lot

732.

     (15) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on plat 105, lot 489, plat

105, lot 12 and plat 32, lot 232 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (16) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section the city council of the city of Central

Falls, shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section any

proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on plat 5, lot 188 of the applicable city

of Central Falls tax assessment map.

     (17) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Portsmouth shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on plat 37, lot 69 of the

applicable town of Portsmouth tax assessment map.

     (18) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

North Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on plat 23A, lot 98 of the

applicable town of North Providence tax assessment map.

     (19) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Cranston shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on Plat 11, lot 3558 of the

applicable city of Cranston tax assessment map.

     (20) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the town council of the town of

Smithfield, after application, is authorized to exempt from the provisions of this section, any

Class B or C license intended to be located on Plat 6, Lot 54 of the town of Smithfield tax

assessors map as of December 31, 2012.

     (21) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Cranston shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailers class B license intended to be located on tax assessors plat 1, lot 2170 of

the applicable city of Cranston tax assessment map as of December 31, 2012.

     (22) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on tax assessor's plat 43, lot

211.

     (23) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

North Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on Plat 22A, Lot 336, of the

applicable town of North Providence tax assessment map.

     (24) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the city council of the city of Central

Falls shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section any

proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on plat 1, lot 164 of the applicable city

of Central Falls tax assessment map.

     (25) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located at 1948-1950 Westminster

Street on plat 35, lot 359 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (26) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the town council of the town of

Middletown, after application, is authorized to exempt from the provisions of this section, any

proposed retailer's Class BV license intended to be located on Plat 107 NW, Lot 55 of the town of

Middletown's tax assessor's maps as of December 31, 2014.

     (27) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any retailer Class B, C or I license intended to be located on Plat 109, Lot 289, of the

applicable city of Providence tax assessor's map.

     (28) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class BV license intended to be located at 226 and 230 Dean

Street on plat 25, lot 44 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (29) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

East Greenwich shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located at 219 Main Street on

map/lot 085 001 212 0000 of the applicable town of East Greenwich tax assessment map.

     (30) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

East Greenwich shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located at 137 Main Street on

map/lot 085-001-412; 59 Main Street on map/lot 085-001-236; 555 Main Street on map/lot 075-

003-084; 74 Cliff Street on map/lot 075-003-040; 609 Main Street on map/lot 075-003-080; 241

Main Street on map/lot 085-001-208; 155 Main Street on map/lot 085-001-222; 149 Main Street

on map/lot 085-001-223; and 2 Academy Court on map/lot 085-001-211 of the applicable Town

of East Greenwich tax assessment map.

     (31) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Lincoln shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailers' Class B license intended to be located on tax assessor's plat 10, lot 108, of

the Lincoln tax assessor's map as of December 31, 2015.

     (32) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class C license intended to be located at 215 Dean Street on plat

28, lot 961 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (32) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located at 100-102 Hope Street on

plat 16, lot 263 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (34) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the town of

Cumberland shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer’s Class B license intended to be located at 88 Broad Street on on plat 2

lot 32, plat 2 lot 51 and plat 2 lot 52, of the Lots 32, 51, and 52 of Plat 2 Cumberland tax

assessor’s map as of December 31, 2016 .


 

 

8)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-7-23

272 and 291

 

 

3-7-23. Closing hours for Class A licenses.

     The following closing hours shall be observed by all Class A license holders:

     (1) November 1 to May 31. No holder of a Class A license shall sell or deliver beverage

under that license between the hours of ten o'clock (10:00) p.m. and seven o'clock (7:00) a.m.

(local time), except on legal holiday eves at which time the closing hour shall be eleven o'clock

(11:00) p.m. In the city of Providence, no holder of a Class A license shall sell or deliver

beverages under that license between the hours of ten o'clock (10:00) p.m. and nine o'clock (9:00)

a.m. (local time), except on legal holiday eves at which time the closing hour shall be eleven

o'clock (11:00) p.m. When a legal holiday is celebrated on a Monday, the preceding Saturday

shall be considered the holiday eve.

     (2) June 1 to October 31. No holder of a class A license shall sell or deliver beverages

under this license between the hours of eleven o'clock (11:00) p.m. and seven o'clock (7:00) a.m.

(local time). In the city of Providence, no holder of a Class A license shall sell or deliver

beverages under that license between the hours of eleven o'clock (11:00) p.m. and nine o'clock

(9:00) a.m. (local time).


 

 

9)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-7-27

182 and 364

 

 

3-7-27. Insurance requirements.

     (a) In the town of Burrillville, an applicant for a license under this chapter shall file with

the application a certificate of insurance evidencing comprehensive commercial, general-liability

and property-damage coverage in the minimum amount of three hundred thousand dollars

($300,000) for bodily or personal injury and one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) for

property damage; or for a minimum amount to be set by ordinance. The certificate shall provide

that the insurance shall not be modified or cancelled unless thirty (30) days prior, advance notice

is given to the town of Burrillville and that the town of Burrillville is named as an additional

insured. A licensee must be insured by a carrier licensed in this state.

     (b) In the town of North Providence, an applicant for a license under this chapter shall

file with the application a certificate of insurance evidencing comprehensive commercial,

general-liability, and property-damage coverage in the minimum amount of three hundred

thousand dollars ($300,000) for bodily or personal injury and one hundred thousand dollars

($100,000) for property damage; or for a minimum amount to be set by ordinance. The certificate

shall provide that the insurance shall not be modified or cancelled unless prior, advance notice is

given to the town of North Providence, according to the terms of the insurance policy, and that

the town of North Providence is named as an additional insured. A licensee must be insured by a

carrier licensed in this state.


 

 

10)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

3-7-29

182 and 364

 

 

3-7-29. Liquor liability insurance.

Any applicant or holder of any retail license for the sale of alcoholic beverages issued

pursuant to this chapter, except those applicants for or holders of class F liquor licenses, and

except as provided in §3-7-27, shall file with the application a certificate of insurance evidencing

commercial, general-liability, and liquor-liability and property-damage coverage in the minimum

amount of three hundred thousand dollars ($300,000). Failure to maintain insurance as required

by this section, shall result in a revocation of the retail license unless the holder of the license

reinstates insurance coverage within forty-eight (48) hours of notice of revocation. The certificate

of insurance shall provide that the insurance shall not be modified or cancelled unless prior,

advance notice is given to the licensing authority.


 

 

 

11)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-1-1

439 and 444

 

 

4-1-1. Definitions -- Responsibility for agents and employees.

     (a) In this chapter and in §§ 4-4-9, 4-4-10, and 23-19-8:

     (1) "Animal" and "animals" means every living creature except a human being.

     (2) "Licensed graduate veterinarian" or "veterinarian" means a person licensed to engage

in the practice of veterinary medicine, surgery, and dentistry in this state who is a graduate of an

accredited veterinary medical, surgical, and dental school or college of a standard recognized by

the Rhode Island vVeterinary mMedical aAssociation; and.

     (3) "Owner", "person", and "whoever" means corporations as well as individuals.

     (4) "Guardian" shall mean a person(s) having the same rights and responsibilities of an

owner, and both terms shall be used interchangeably. A guardian shall also mean a person who

possesses, has title to or an interest in, harbors, or has control, custody, or possession of an animal

and who is responsible for an animal's safety and well-being.

     (5) Except for livestock as defined in subsection § 4-26-3(6), "adequate living conditions"

shall mean a sanitary environment which that is dry and free of accumulated feces and free of

debris and garbage that may clutter the environment, pose a danger, or entangle the animal. The

environment in which the animal is kept must be consistent with federal regulatory requirements,

where applicable, or generally recognized professional standards, where applicable, or otherwise

be of sufficient size so as not to inhibit comfortable rest, normal posture, or range of movement,

and suitable to maintain the animal in a good state of health. "Adequate living conditions" for

livestock as defined in subsection §4-26-3(6) shall mean best management practices established,

no later than July 1, 2014, by the Rhode Island livestock welfare and care standards advisory

council.

     (6) Except for livestock as defined in §4-26-3, "hazardous accumulation of animals"

means the accumulation of a large number of animals, to a point where the owner, possessor, or

person having the charge of custody of the aforementioned animals fails to or is unable to provide

"adequate living conditions" as defined herein, resulting in harm or danger to the health and

wellbeing of the animals.

     (b) The knowledge and acts of agents of and persons employed by corporations in regard

to animals transported, owned or employed by or in the custody of that corporation are held to be

the acts and knowledge of that corporation.


 

 

12)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-1-3

439 and 444

 

 

4-1-3. Unnecessary cruelty.

     (a) Every owner, possessor, or person having the charge or custody of any animal, who

cruelly drives or works that animal when unfit for labor; or cruelly abandons that animal; or who

carries that animal, or who fails to provide that animal with adequate living conditions as defined

in § 4-1-1; or who engages in the hazardous accumulation of animals as defined in §4-1-1, or

causes that animal, to be carried, in or upon any vehicle or otherwise, in a cruel or inhuman

manner; or willfully, intentionally, maliciously, recklessly, and/or knowingly authorizes or

permits that animal to be subjected to unnecessary torture, suffering, or cruelty of any kind; or

who places, or causes to have placed, on any animal any substance that may produce irritation or

pain or that is declared a hazardous substance by the U.S. fFood and dDrug aAdministration or by

the state department of health, shall be punished for each offense in the manner provided in § 4-1-

2. If the offense described in this section results in the death of the animal, the person shall be

punished in the manner provided in § 4-1-5. If any owner, possessor, or person having the charge

or custody of any animal who is found guilty of or pleads nolo contendere to a violation of this

section and said violation involves the hazardous accumulation of animals, the court shall, in

imposing a penalty under this section, take into account whether the defendant’s conduct could be

considered to be the result of a mental health disorder as defined in §27-38.2-2.

     (b) The substances proscribed by subsection (a) do not include any drug having curative

and therapeutic effect for disease in animals and that is prepared and intended for veterinary use.

     (c) University, college, or hospital research facilities licensed and/or inspected by the

U.S. Department of Agriculture or the U.S. Public Health Service of the Department of Health and

Human Services shall be exempt from the provisions of subsection (a) provided that they are in

good standing with the federal agency responsible for licensing or assurance of the facility.


 

 

13)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-1-22

439 and 444

 

 

4-1-22. Care of neglected animals by society -- Forfeiture of owner's rights – Expenses.

     (a) An officer or agent of the Rhode Island Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to

Animals may lawfully take charge of any animal found abandoned or neglected or hazardously

accumulated as defined in §4-1-1, or that in the opinion of that officer or agent, is aged, maimed,

disabled, lame, sick, diseased, injured, unfit for the labor it is performing, or cruelly treated, and

shall give notice to the owner, if known, or his or her agents, and may provide suitable care.

     (b) Every owner or agent, upon conviction, plea of guilty, or plea of nolo contendere, of

abandonment, neglect, hazardous accumulation as defined in §4-1-1, or otherwise cruel treatment

of any animal taken charge of by the Rhode Island Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to

Animals under this section, forfeits the rights to ownership or control of that animal to the Society

for disposition in any manner deemed suitable for that animal.

     (c) Whenever any officer or agent of the Rhode Island Society for the Prevention of

Cruelty to Animals lawfully takes charge of any animal under this section, all reasonable

expenses for the care and treatment of the animal(s), while in the custody of the Society during

this time, shall be paid for by the owner, guardian, or his or her agent upon conviction, plea of

guilty, or plea of nolo contendere. The Society has the authority to commence a civil action for

damages against the owner or his or her agent thirty (30) days after a written demand for payment

of the expense of the suitable care of that animal has been sent and no payment has been received.


\

 

14)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-1-26

337 and 358

 

 

4-1-26. Abandonment of animals.

     (a) If any person having possession and/or control of an animal abandons that animal on a

street, road, highway or in a public place or on private property or from a motor vehicle, or in a

dwelling or any other building or structure without providing for the care of that animal, he or she

shall be punished in the manner provided in § 4-1-2 for each such offense. If this abandonment

results in the death of the animal, the person shall be punished in the manner provided in § 4-1-5.

Abandonment means the relinquishment of all right, title, claim, or possession of the animal with

the intention of not reclaiming it or resuming its ownership or possession.

     (b) Any pound or animal shelter as defined under §4-19-2, shall deem abandoned any

animal impounded and not redeemed by its owner within ten (10) days of impoundment if such

animal is wearing identification. Any animal impounded and not wearing identification shall be

deemed abandoned if not redeemed by its owner within five (5) days of impoundment. Any

animal deemed abandoned shall become the property of the impounding agency and may be

adopted.

     (c) Any pound or animal shelter shall make a prompt and reasonable attempt to locate

and notify the owner of the impounded animal, including scanning the animal for a microchip.


 

 

15)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-1-42

439 and 444

 

 

4-1-42. Care of neglected animals by Department -- Forfeiture of owner's rights – Expenses.

     (a) The director of environmental management, or any veterinarian employed by the

department of environmental management ("department"), may lawfully take charge of any

animal found abandoned or neglected or hazardously accumulated as defined in §4-1-1, or that, in

the opinion of the department, is aged, maimed, disabled, lame, sick, diseased, injured, unfit for

the labor it is performing, or cruelly treated, and shall give notice to the owner, if known, or his or

her agents, and may provide suitable care.

     (b) Every owner, guardian, or agent, upon conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or plea of

nolo contendere, of abandonment, neglect, hazardous accumulation as defined in §4-1-1, or

otherwise cruel treatment of any animal taken charge of by the department under this section,

forfeits the right to ownership or control of that animal to the department for disposition in any

manner deemed suitable for that animal.

     (c) Whenever the department lawfully takes charge of any animal under this section, all

reasonable expenses for the care and treatment of the animal(s), while in the custody of the

department during this time, shall be paid for by the owner, guardian, or his or her agent, upon

conviction, a plea of guilty or plea of nolo contendere. The department has the authority to

commence a civil action for damages against the owner or his or her agent thirty (30) days after

written demand for payment of the expense of the suitable care of that animal has been sent and

no payment received.


 

 

16)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-13-1.3

11 and 28

 

 

4-13-1.3. Rabies control board.

     (a) There shall be a rabies control board consisting of seven (7) people as follows:

     (1) The director of the Rhode Island department of environmental management, or his or

her designee;

     (2) The director of the Rhode Island department of health, or his or her designee;

     (3) A Rhode Island licensed veterinarian, appointed by the governor, who is a member of

the Rhode Island Veterinary Medical Association;

     (4) A livestock farmer, appointed by the governor, who is a member of the Rhode Island

Farm Bureau;

     (5) A member of a recognized Rhode Island humane group (such as the Rhode Island

Society for Prevention of Cruelty to Animals), appointed by the governor;

     (6) The state veterinarian, who shall serve as chairperson;

     (7) A member of the Rhode Island Animal Control Association, person employed as an

animal control officer by a Rhode Island municipality, and who is recommended to serve on the

rabies control board by the league of cities and towns, and who is appointed by the governor.

     (b) All appointments made under this section after April 20, 2006, shall be subject to the

advice and consent of the senate. The members of the board shall serve without compensation.

The board members from the departments of health and environmental management shall serve at

the discretion of their directors. The state veterinarian shall serve without term. Nongovernmental

members shall serve for a period of three (3) years and reappointments shall be made by the

governor with the advice and consent of the senate.

     (c) Vacancies for citizen members shall be filled by appointment, in the same manner as

the original appointment, for the unexpired term only. Four (4) members of the board shall

constitute a quorum.

     (d) Members of the board shall be removable by the governor pursuant to § 36-1-7 of the

general laws and for cause only. Removal solely for partisan or personal reasons unrelated to

capacity or fitness for the office shall be unlawful.

     (e) The board may elect from among its members such other officers as they it deems

necessary.

     (f) The director of the department of environmental management shall direct staff to

support the board within the constraints of available resources.

     (g) Within ninety (90) days after the end of each fiscal year, the board shall approve and

submit an annual report to the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, the president

of the senate, and the secretary of state of its activities during that fiscal year. The report shall

provide: an operating statement summarizing meetings or hearings held, including meeting

minutes, subjects addressed, decisions rendered, rules or regulations promulgated, studies

conducted, policies and plans developed, approved or modified, and programs administered or

initiated; a consolidated financial statement of all funds received and expended, including the

source of the funds, a listing of any staff supported by these funds, a summary of any clerical,

administrative, or technical support received; a summary of performance during the previous

fiscal year including accomplishments, shortcomings, and remedies; a synopsis of any legal

matters related to the authority of the board; a summary of any training courses held pursuant to

subsection (h); a briefing on anticipated activities in the upcoming fiscal year; and findings and

recommendations for improvements. The report shall be posted electronically as prescribed in §

42-20-8.2. The director of the department of administration shall be responsible for the

enforcement of this provision.

     (h) Newly appointed and qualified members and new designees of ex officio members of

the board are required to complete a training course within six (6) months of their qualification or

designation. The course shall be developed by the chair of the board, approved by the board, and

conducted by the chair of the board. The board may approve the use of any board or staff

members or other individuals to assist with training. The course shall include instruction in the

following areas: chapters 13 of title 4, 46 of title 42, 14 of title 36 and 2 of title 38; and the

board's rules and regulations. The director of the department of administration shall, within ninety

(90) days of April 20, 2006, prepare and disseminate training materials relating to the provisions

of chapters 46 of title 42, 14 of title 36 and 2 of title 38.


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

17)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers

 

4-13-42

187 and 265

 

 

4-13-42. Care of dogs.

     (a) It shall be a violation of this section for an owner or keeper to:

     (1) Keep any dog on a permanent tether that restricts movement of the tethered dog to an

area less than one hundred thirteen square feet (113 sq. ft.), or less than a six foot (6') radius at

ground level.

     (2) Tether a dog with a choke-type collar or prong-type collar.

     (3) Keep any dog tethered for more than ten (10) hours during a twenty-four (24) hour

period or keep any dog confined in a pen, cage, or other shelter for more than fourteen (14) hours

during any twenty-four (24) hour period.

     (4) Keep any dog outside either tethered, penned, caged, fenced, or otherwise confined

without access to an outdoor housing facility when the ambient temperature is beyond the

industry standard for the weather safety scale as set forth in the most recent adopted version of

the Tufts Animal Care and Condition Weather Safety Scale (TACC) if the dog is showing signs

of poor health due to the weather conditions.

     (b) It shall be a violation of this section for an owner or keeper to fail to provide a dog

with adequate feed, adequate water, or adequate veterinary care as those terms are defined in § 4-

19-2; provided however, that adequate veterinary care may be provided by an owner using

acceptable animal husbandry practices.

      (c) Any person in violation of this section shall be given a warning for a first violation.

Second and subsequent violations of this subsection can be considered a violation of § 4-1-2.

Each day of violation shall constitute a separate offense.

     (d) The provisions of this section shall not apply:

     (1) If the tethering or confinement is authorized for medical reasons in writing by a

veterinarian licensed in Rhode Island, the authorization is renewed annually, and shelter is

provided;

     (2) If tethering or confinement is authorized in writing by an animal control officer;

     (3) To a training facility, grooming facility, commercial boarding kennel, pet shop

licensed in accordance with chapter 4-19 chapter 19 of this title, animal shelter, municipal pound, 

or veterinary facility;

     (4) To licensed hunters, field trial participants, or any person raising or training a gun dog

or hunting dog, provided that the licensed hunter or field trial hunt test participant is actively

engaged in hunting, training, or field trial hunt testing or is transporting the dog to or from an

event;

     (5) To livestock farmers who use their dogs to protect their livestock from predators;

     (6) To an exhibitor holding a class C license under the Animal Welfare Act-(7 U.S.C. §

2133) that are temporarily in the state; or

     (7) To sled dog owners who are actively training their dogs to pull sleds in winter

conditions.

     (e) Any person in violation of this section shall be imprisoned not exceeding eleven (11)

months, or fined not less than fifty dollars ($50.00) nor exceeding five hundred dollars ($500), or

both. Each day of violation shall constitute a separate offense.

     (f) General agents or special agents of the Rhode Island Society for the Prevention of

Cruelty to Animals (RISPCA) are hereby authorized to enforce the provisions of this chapter in

cooperation with animal control officers.


 

 

 

 

 

 

18)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-19-1

447 and 475

 

 

4-19-1. Purpose.

     The purpose of this chapter is:

     (1) To protect the owners of dogs and cats from the sale or use of stolen pets;

     (2) To ensure that all warm-blooded, vertebrate animals, in the care of facilities licensed

or registered under this chapter, are provided humane care and treatment by regulating the

transportation, sale, purchase, housing, care, handling, and treatment of these animals by persons

or organizations engaged in transporting, handling, housing, and care of these animals;

     (3) To ensure that animals confined in pet shops, kennels, animal shelters, auction

markets, breeding facilities, and pounds are provided humane care and treatment;

     (4) To release for sale, trade, or adoption only those animals that appear to be free of

infection, communicable disease, or abnormalities, unless veterinary care subsequent to release is

assured; and

     (5) To ensure the spaying and neutering of dogs and cats that are adopted from a

releasing agency.


 

 

19)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-19-2

447 and 475

 

 

4-19-2. Definitions.

As used in this chapter, chapter 13 of this title, and the regulations promulgated under this chapter:

     (1) "Adequate feed" means the provision at suitable intervals, not to exceed twenty-four

(24) hours, of a quantity of wholesome foodstuff suitable for the species and age, sufficient to

maintain a reasonable level of nutrition in each animal. The foodstuff shall be served in a

sanitized receptacle, dish, or container.

     (2) (3) "Adequate water" means a constant access to a sufficient supply of clean, fresh,

potable water provided in a sanitary manner and provided at suitable intervals for the species to

maintain the health of the animal(s) and not to exceed twenty-four (24) hours at any interval.

     (3) (2) "Adequate veterinary care" means care by a licensed veterinarian sufficient to prevent

the animal from experiencing unnecessary or unjustified physical pain or suffering.

     (4) "Adopt" means when an adopting party voluntarily acquires and assumes

responsibility for an animal from a releasing agency that is properly licensed or registered by the

department.

     (5) "Adopting party" means any person who enters into a contract acquiring an animal

from a releasing agency that is properly licensed or registered by the department.

     (6) "Ambient temperature" means the temperature surrounding the animal.

     (7) "Animal" means any dog or cat, rabbit, rodent, nonhuman primate, bird or other

warm-blooded vertebrate, amphibian, fish, or reptile but shall not include horses, cattle, sheep,

goats, swine, and domestic fowl.

     (8) "Animal rescue" or "rescue" means an entity, without a physical brick-and-mortar

facility, that is owned, operated, or maintained by a duly incorporated humane society, animal

welfare society, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, or other nonprofit organization

devoted to the welfare, protection, and humane treatment of animals intended for adoption.

     (9) "Animal shelter" means a brick-and-mortar facility that is used to house or contain

animals and that is owned, operated, or maintained by a duly incorporated humane society,

animal welfare society, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, or other nonprofit

organization devoted to the welfare, protection, and humane treatment of animals.

     (10) "Breeder" means a person engaged in the propagation of purebred or crossbred dogs

and/or cats for the purpose of improving and enhancing a breed recognized and registered by the

American Kennel Club, American Field Stud Book, a registered cat breed association, or for sale

at wholesale or retail, unless otherwise exempted as a hobby breeder as defined below.

     (11) "Broker" means any third party who arranges, delivers, or otherwise facilitates

transfer of ownership of animal(s), through adoption or fostering, from one party to another,

whether or not the party receives a fee for providing that service and whether or not the party

takes physical possession of the animal(s) at any point.

     (12) "Dealer" means any person who sells, exchanges, or donates, or offers to sell,

exchange, or donate, animals to another dealer, pet shop, or research facility, or who breeds

animals for the purpose of selling or donating to another dealer or pet shop or research facility.

     (13) "Director" means the director of environmental management of the state of Rhode

Island.

     (14) "Dog officer" or "animal-control officer" means any person employed, contracted, or

appointed by the state, or any political subdivision of the state, for the purpose of aiding in the

enforcement of this chapter or any other law or ordinance relating to the licensing of dogs, cats,

or other animals; the control of dogs, cats or other animals; or the seizure and impoundment of

dogs, cats, or other animals and includes any state or municipal peace officer, animal-control

officer, sheriff, constable, or other employee whose duties, in whole or in part, include

assignments that involve the seizure or taking into custody of any dog, cat, or other animal.

     (15) "Euthanasia" means the humane destruction of an animal accomplished by a method

that involves instantaneous unconsciousness and immediate death or by a method that involves

anesthesia, produced by an agent that causes painless loss of consciousness and death during that

loss of consciousness.

     (16) "Guardian" shall mean a person(s) having the same rights and responsibilities of an

owner, and both terms shall be used interchangeably. A guardian shall also mean a person who

possesses; has title to or an interest in; harbors or has control, custody, or possession of an animal

and who is responsible for an animal's safety and well-being.

     (17) "Hobby breeder" means those persons whose regular occupation is not the breeding

and raising of dogs and cats and whose method of sale is at retail only. A hobby breeder shall not

exceed the limits set forth in § 4-25-1(4). Any person who sells at retail a number in excess of the

limits in the aforementioned section shall be considered a pet shop breeder.

     (18) "Housing facility" means any room, building, or area used to contain a primary

enclosure or enclosures.

     (19) "Kennel" means a place or establishment, other than a pound or animal shelter,

where animals not owned by the proprietor are sheltered, fed, and watered in return for a fee.

     (20) "Licensed releasing agency" means any animal shelter, animal-rescue, pound,

animal-control officer, or broker that is required to be licensed or registered with the director

pursuant to the provisions of this chapter and is so licensed or registered.

     (21) "Neuter" means to surgically render a male dog or cat unable to reproduce.

     (22) "Person" means any individual, partnership, firm, joint stock company, corporation,

association, trust, estate, or other legal entity.

     (23) "Pet shop" means a temporary or permanent establishment where animals are

bought, sold, exchanged, or offered for sale or exchange to the general public at retail. This shall

not include an establishment or person whose total sales are the offspring of canine or feline

females maintained on their premises and sold from those premises and does not exceed the limits

set forth in § 4-25-1(4).

     (24) "Pound" or "dog pound" means a facility operated by a state, or any political

subdivision of a state, for the purpose of impounding or harboring seized, stray, homeless,

abandoned, or unwanted dogs, cats, and other animals or a facility operated for that purpose under

a contract with any municipal corporation or incorporated society for the prevention of cruelty to

animals.

     (25) "Primary enclosure" or "enclosure" means the most proximal barrier to an animal

that will have the intended purpose or effect of containment of that animal or that will effectively

restrict the liberty of the animal.

     (26) "Public auction" means any place or location where dogs or cats are sold at auction

to the highest bidder regardless of whether those dogs or cats are offered as individuals, as a

group, or by weight.

     (27) "Research facility" means any place, laboratory, or institution at which scientific

tests, investigations, or experiments, involving the use of living animals, are carried out,

conducted, or attempted.

     (28) "Sanitize" means to make physically clean and to remove and destroy, to a practical

minimum, agents injurious to health.

     (29) "Sexual maturity" means when a dog or cat reaches six (6) months. In all instances,

the licensed, releasing agency or a licensed veterinarian will determine the age of the dog or cat.

     (30) "Spay" means to surgically render a female dog or cat unable to reproduce.

     (31) "State veterinarian" means a licensed veterinarian from the department of

environmental management.


 

 

20)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

4-19-5.1

447and 475

 

 

4-19-5.1. Breeder licenses.

No person shall act as a breeder, as defined in §4-19-2, unless in possession of a valid

license to operate as a breeder granted by the director. Application for that license shall be made

in the manner provided by the director. The license period is the state's fiscal year and the license

fee is one hundred dollars ($100.00) for each license period or partial period beginning with the

first day of the fiscal year.


 

 

21)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-19-8

447 and 475

 

 

4-19-8. Denial of certificates of registration or licenses.

     (a) A certificate of registration may be denied to any pound or animal shelter, rescue,

broker, and a license may be denied to any public auction, kennel, breeder, pet shop, or dealer or,

if granted, the certificate or license may be revoked by the director if, after a hearing, it is

determined that the housing facilities and/or primary enclosures are inadequate for the purposes

of this chapter or if the feeding, watering, sanitizing, and housing practices at the pound, animal

shelter, public auction, pet shop, or kennel are not consistent with the intent of this chapter or

with the intent of the rules and regulations that may be promulgated pursuant to the authority of

this chapter.

     (b) Upon revocation of a certificate of registration, all animals in the possession of the

pound, rescue, broker, or animal shelter must be transferred to another licensed releasing agency

for disposition.

     (c) Upon the revocation of a license, all animals in the possession of the public auction,

kennel, pet shop, breeder, or dealer must be disposed of by the former licensee in a manner

approved by the department. Such disposition must not be for profit and must occur in a

timeframe that is determined by the department. Inspectors from the department or from the

Rhode Island Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals must have access to the facility

where the animals being housed by the former licensee are being held until disposition so that the

welfare of said animals can be assured.


 

 

22)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-19-9

447 and 475

 

 

4-19-9. Operation as a pet shop, kennel, breeder or public auction without a license.

Any person who operates as a pet shop, kennel, breeder, or public auction without a

currently valid license shall, upon conviction, plea of guilty, or plea of nolo contendere, be

punished pursuant to § 4-19-11.3. Each day of operation shall constitute a separate offense.

Advertisement of services consistent with the operation of a pet shop, kennel, or public auction

shall be sufficient evidence of operation of a pet shop, kennel, breeder, or public auction as

applicable.


 

 

23)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-19-12

447 and 475

 

 

4-19-12. Disposition of animals.

     (a) Notwithstanding any provision of the general or public laws to the contrary, it shall be

unlawful to dispose of any animal by using a carbon monoxide chamber or gas chamber. All

animals that must be disposed of by a municipal pound or shelter, the humane society, an animal

shelter, rescue, pet shop, breeder, kennel, or any other entity that is required to be licensed or

registered under this chapter must be disposed of by lethal injection. In the event of an

emergency, if a licensed veterinarian cannot be secured without undue delay and, in the opinion

of the animal-control officer, animal-control administrator, approved humane investigator, animal

shelter employee, or agent of any other entity so required to be licensed under the provisions of

this chapter, the animal is so severely injured, diseased, or suffering in such a manner the animal

cannot otherwise be humanely destroyed in an expeditious manner, the animal may be destroyed

by shooting; provided, that:

     (1) Maximum precaution is taken to minimize the animal's suffering and to protect other

persons and animals;

     (2) The animal is restrained in a humane manner;

     (3) Shooting is performed by highly skilled and trained personnel utilizing a weapon,

ammunition of suitable caliber, and other characteristics, and proper placement of the shot to

produce an instantaneous death by a single gunshot.

     If any type of restraint or confinement is deemed necessary for the safety of those

involved, or for efficiency in euthanizing the animal, it must be done in the most humane way

possible to cause the least amount of additional stress to that animal.

     (b) (1) No dog officer shall give or sell, or negotiate for the gift or sale, to a dealer or

research facility of any animal that may come into his or her custody in the course of carrying out

his or her official assignments.

     (2) No dog officer shall be granted a dealer's license. Each application for a dealer's

license shall include a statement made under oath, that neither the applicant, nor any member or

employee of the firm, partnership, or corporation making application, is a dog officer within the

meaning of this chapter.

     (3) A dog officer, or other licensed releasing agency, upon taking custody of any animal

in the course of his, her, or its official duties, shall immediately make a record of the matter in the

manner prescribed by the director and the record shall include a description of the animal,

including: color, breed, sex, reason for seizure, location of seizure, the owner's name and address

if known, and all license or other identification numbers if any. Complete information relating to

the disposition of the animal, including compliance with the provisions of §§ 4-19-16 and 4-19-

18 and any legal actions taken to uphold and enforce this law, shall be added in the manner

provided by the director immediately after disposition. The information shall be forwarded

monthly to the department of environmental management.

     (c) This section shall not apply to any research laboratories or facilities of any hospital,

college, or university within the state.


 

 

 

 

 

 

24)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

4-19-22

144 and 188

 

 

4-19-22. Animal control officers.

     (a) Effective January 1, 2019, no municipality shall employ any animal control officer

who has not received certification to be an animal control officer from the National Animal Care

& Control Association (NACA) or other equivalent organization as determined by the Rhode

Island sSociety for the pPrevention of cCruelty to aAnimals. All new hires will have a period of

twelve (12) months from date of hire to receive certification. All existing personnel employed as

animal control officers shall obtain their certification by January 1, 2019.

     (b) The training and certification program required by subsection (a) of this section shall

incorporate instruction that shall meet NACA guidelines for certification, including, but not

limited to, the following criteria:

     (1) Laws and regulations affecting animal control, animal welfare, and animal cruelty;

     (2) Domestic and wild animal behavior;

     (3) Handling and treatment of deceased or stray animals; and

     (4) Emergency procedures and conflict resolution skills.


 

 

25)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-6-10.1

122 and 137

 

 

5-6-10.1. Limited maintenance license.

A Certificate D shall be issued to municipalities, schools, hospitals, colleges, or other

non-manufacturing firms or establishments who that regularly employ one or more licensed

electricians (journeyperson/Class B or Class M) when the work performed by those individuals is

limited to the maintenance of electrical wiring, devices, appliances, and equipment on the

premises owned or occupied by the applicant. The applicant application must contain a

description of the premises within which work is to be done under the permit. All work must meet

electrical and municipal codes and must be permitted accordingly by the municipality.


 

 

26)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-6-11

122 and 137

 

 

5-6-11. Certificate/license of burnerperson, fire alarm installer, electrical sign installers,

lightning- protection installers and renewable energy professionals.

     (a) Oil burnerperson's Burnerperson's license. A Certificate F shall be granted to any

person who has passed an examination before the division of professional regulation. The

certificate shall specify the name of the person authorized to install, work on, and repair electric

wiring and equipment located in or on oil burners burning fuel oil no heavier than No. 2, and

other equipment serviced by oil burner contractors, to the extent only as is necessary to install,

service, maintain, and repair those oil burners and equipment. The license shall limit the holder of

a Certificate F to do work on electric wiring or equipment located between the meter and on those

oil burners and equipment and related components, but in no event to do any electrical work on

oil burners burning No. 3, 4, 5, or 6 fuel oil.

     (b) Fire alarm installer's license. A Certificate BF shall be granted to any person who has

passed an examination before the division of professional regulation. The certificate shall specify

the name of the person authorized to work on, install, maintain, and test fire alarm systems.

     (c) Electrical sign installer's license. A Certificate CF shall be granted to any person who

has passed an examination before the division of professional regulations. The certificate shall

specify the name of the person authorized to install, maintain, work on, and repair electrical signs.

     (d) Lightning-protection installer's license. A Certificate LPI shall be granted to any

person who has passed an examination before the division of professional regulations. The

certificate shall specify the name of the person authorized to install, maintain, work on, and repair

lightning-protection systems as defined in § 5-6-1.

     (e) Renewable energy professional's certificate. The Rhode Island department of labor

and training shall issue a certificate of competency in the design and installation of renewable

energy systems to any person, firm, or corporation who or that has received a certification from a

nationally recognized, or equivalent, renewable energy certification training program and has

demonstrated proof of such certification to the Rhode Island office of energy resources.


 

 

 

 

27)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-6-16

122 and 137

 

 

5-6-16. License fees.

     (a) All licenses issued by the division of professional regulation for master electricians,

all limited-license electricians, and all journeyperson electricians born in odd years shall expire

on the birthday of the individual qualifying for the license in odd years and all licenses of master

electricians, all limited-license electricians, and all journeyperson electricians born in even years

shall expire on the birthday of the individual qualifying for the license in even years and all

licenses may be renewed on or before their expiration date upon payment of the appropriate,

biennial renewal fee.

     (b) A fee of two hundred forty dollars ($240) shall be paid by each applicant for an

electrical contractor's license Class A; seventy-two dollars ($72.00) for a journeyperson

electrician's license Class B; two hundred forty dollars ($240) for a limited premises license Class

C; two hundred forty dollars ($240) for an oil a burner contractor's license Class E; seventy-two

dollars ($72.00) for an oil a burnerperson's license Class F; two hundred forty dollars ($240) for a

fire alarm contractor's license Class AF; seventy-two dollars ($72.00) for a fire alarm installer's

license Class BF; two hundred forty dollars ($240) for an electrical sign contractor's license SCF;

seventy-two dollars ($72.00) for a sign installer's license Class CF; and two hundred forty dollars

($240) for a limited maintenance license Class D.

     (c) A fee of two hundred forty dollars ($240) shall be paid by each applicant for a

lightning-protection contractor's license Class LPC.

     (d) A fee of seventy-two dollars ($72.00) shall be paid by each applicant for a lightning

protection installer's license LPI.

     (e) A fee of seventy-two dollars ($72.00) shall be paid by each applicant for a sign

renovation electrical license.


 

 

 

 

 

28)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-6-20.1

122 and 137

 

 

5-6-20.1. Mandatory continuing education.

     (a) On or before January 1, 1996, the board of examiners of electricians shall, by

regulation, establish a mandatory continuing education program for all persons licensed under

this chapter. The program is designed to ensure current competency in each licensee's area of

certification and/or licensing.

     (b) On and after January 1, 1997, no license under this chapter shall be renewed unless

the licensee demonstrates, in a manner prescribed by the board of examiners of electricians, that

he or she has successfully completed at least (15) fifteen (15) clock hours of continuing education

pursuant to and in compliance with the mandatory continuing education program established

under this section.

     (c) The course of study to be conducted over the fifteen-(15) hour-clock clock-hour (15)

period shall be approved by the Rhode Island building commissioner's office board of examiners

of electricians. Course providers may include, but not be limited to, vocational schools,

association seminars, labor training programs, employee training programs and private instructors

or inspectors and must also be approved by the building commissioner's office. Instructors or

inspectors shall be Rhode Island licensed electrical contractors employed by or about to be

employed by the providers and be board approved. Instructors or inspectors must attend a

preparation seminar held by the Rhode Island building commissioner's office to be approved.

That course shall be paid for by individuals attending the course.

     (d) The mandatory continuing education requirement is limited to class A and class B

electricians.

     (e) Out-of-state residents that who hold a Rhode Island electrical license are allowed to

submit a fifteen-(15) hour (15) continuing education credit from their state if it meets the Rhode

Island requirements and their state recognizes the Rhode Island continuing education certificates;.

     (f) Upon completion of the fifteen-(15) clock-hour (15) course, an approved uniform

certificate of completion shall be issued. Licensees are required to submit this verification of

completion for license renewal. The continuing education credits shall be included in the

currently adopted edition of the National Electrical Code and the Building Officials and Code

Administrators International, Inc. (BOCA) International Code Council (ICC) national codes;.

     (g) Only those approved instructors actually teaching a fifteen-clock-hour (15) course

shall be exempt from attending the fifteen-(15) hour (15) course.


 

 

 

29)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-6-24

122 and 137

 

 

5-6-24. Apprentices -- Registration fee.

     (a) This chapter does not forbid the employment of one properly limited-registered

apprentice electrician working with and under the direct personal supervision of a licensed

journeyperson electrician. Additionally, this chapter does not forbid the employment of: (1) oOne

properly registered apprentice oil burnerperson working with and under the direct personal

supervision of a licensed oil burnerperson; (2) oOne properly registered apprentice fire alarm

installer working with and under the direct personal supervision of a licensed fire alarm installer;

or (3) tTwo (2) properly registered apprentice electrical sign installer installers working with and

under the direct personal supervision of a licensed electrical sign installer; (4) oOne properly

registered apprentice maintenance electrician working with and under the direct personal

supervision of a valid Class C or Class D license holder; or (5) one properly registered apprentice

lightning-protection installer working with and under the direct personal supervision of a licensed

lightning-protection installer (LPI). Apprentices are required to register with the division of

professional regulation initially upon payment of a fee of twenty dollars ($20.00) per year.

Apprentices are required to register with the division of professional regulation immediately upon

employment with a properly licensed electrical contractor or lightning-protection contractor.

     (b) Indentured apprentice electricians are required to work a minimum of eight thousand

(8,000) hours over a period of time of not less than four (4) years and successfully complete one

hundred forty-four (144) hours of related instruction per year in an indentured apprenticeship

program approved by the Rhode Island department of labor and training, to qualify for the

journeyperson "B" electrician examination; provided, however, apprentices may receive credit for

one hundred forty-four (144) hours of classroom training gained in a vocational school authorized

by the board of regents for elementary and secondary board of education and approved by the

Rhode Island department of labor and training apprenticeship council. Provided, that the test

applicant has possessed, for at least four (4) years prior to the filing of the application, a

certificate of registration in full force and effect from the department of labor and training of

Rhode Island specifying the person as an indentured apprentice, and the application of an

applicant is accompanied by an affidavit or affidavits of his or her employer or former employers

or other reasonably satisfactory evidence showing that the applicant has been actually engaged in

electrical work as an apprentice in Rhode Island during those four (4) years,; or the application is

accompanied by an affidavit or other reasonably satisfactory evidence showing that the applicant

has successfully completed a course of study in a recognized college or university and has

pursued a course of electrical technology for at least two (2) academic years or is the recipient of

an associate degree in electrical technology, and has thereafter been indentured by the department

of labor and training as an apprentice for at least two (2) years and employed as an indentured

apprentice by a duly licensed electrician master in this state for a period of two (2) years,; or a

showing that the applicant possesses a certificate of license issued under the laws of another state,

based on training equal to that required by the state of Rhode Island. Limited registered

apprentice electricians shall be required to work a minimum of four thousand (4,000) hours over a

period of time of not less than two (2) years.

     (c) Indentured apprentice maintenance electricians are required to work a minimum of six

thousand (6,000) hours over a period of time of not less than three (3) years and successfully

complete a one hundred forty-four (144) hours of related instruction per year in an indentured

apprenticeship program approved by the Rhode Island department of labor and training, to qualify

for the journeyperson "M" electrician examination. Provided, however, that the test applicant has

possessed for at least three (3) years prior to the filing of the application a certificate of

registration in full force and effect from the department of labor and training of Rhode Island

specifying the person as an indentured apprentice, and the application of an applicant is

accompanied by an affidavit or affidavits of his or her employer or former employers or other

reasonably satisfactory evidence showing that the applicant has been actually engaged in

electrical work as an apprentice in Rhode Island during those three (3) years. Class M

journeyperson electricians may qualify to take the journeyperson "B" electrician examination

upon registering as a fourth year apprentice and becoming employed by a properly licensed Class

A electrical contractor for that period of time.

     (d) Apprentice lightning-protection installers are required to work a minimum of four

thousand (4,000) hours over a period of time of not less than two (2) years to qualify for the

lightning-protection installer (LPI) examination. Provided, that the test applicant has possessed

for at least two (2) years prior to the filing of the application a certificate of registration in full

force and effect from the department of labor and training of Rhode Island specifying the person

as an apprentice lightning-protection installer, and the application of an applicant is accompanied

by an affidavit or affidavits of his or her employer or former employers or other reasonably

satisfactory evidence showing that the applicant has been actually engaged in lightning-protection

work as an apprentice during those two (2) years.


 

 

 

30)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-6-32

302 (art. 13), 137, and 122;  432 and 407

 

 

5-6-32. Authority of director to assess penalty.

     (a) The director may assess an administrative penalty on any person, firm, or corporation

for any violation of the provisions of this chapter, after notice and a hearing, before and upon the

recommendation of the board of examiners of electricians in the amount of five hundred dollars

($500) one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500) for the first violation and nine hundred fifty

dollars ($950) two thousand dollars ($2,000) for a subsequent violation. All funds collected by

the labor and training department under this section shall be placed in the restricted receipts

account created pursuant to § 28-22-1.1. This section is in addition to any other action provided

by law for violations of this chapter.

     (b) The chief of the section shall act as an investigator with respect to the enforcement of

all the provisions of law relative to the licensing of electricians and, to this effect, whenever a

complaint is made by the chief of the section to the director of the department of labor and

training or his or her designee that the provisions of this chapter are being violated, the director of

the department of labor and training or his or her designee may issue an order to cease and desist

from that violation and may impose the above penalties against the violator and against the

contractor.

5-6-32. Authority of director to assess penalty.

 

 

    (a) The director may assess an administrative penalty on any person, firm, or corporation

for any violation of the provisions of this chapter, after notice and a hearing, before and upon the

recommendation of the board of examiners of electricians in the amount of five hundred dollars

($500) for the first violation and nine hundred fifty dollars ($950) for a subsequent violation.

Each individual person acting in violation of the provisions of this chapter shall constitute a

separate offense to any person, firm, or corporation assessed a penalty under this section. All

funds collected by the labor and training department under this section shall be placed in the

restricted receipts account created pursuant to § 28-22-1.1. This section is in addition to any other

action provided by law for violations of this chapter.

     (b) The chief of the section shall act as an investigator with respect to the enforcement of

all the provisions of law relative to the licensing of electricians and, to this effect, whenever a

complaint is made by the chief of the section to the director of the department of labor and

training, or his or her designee, that the provisions of this chapter are being violated, the director

of the department of labor and training, or his or her designee, may issue an order to cease and

desist from that violation and may impose the above penalties against the violator and against the

contractor.


 

 

31)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-10-8

38 and 62

 

 

5-10-8. Issuance of licenses -- Qualifications of applicants.

     (a) The division shall issue licenses to persons engaged in, or desiring to engage in, the

practice of barbering, hairdressing and cosmetic therapy and/or manicuring or esthetics and for

instructing in any approved school of barbering or hairdressing and cosmetic therapy and

manicuring or esthetics; provided, that no license shall be issued to any person under this chapter

unless the applicant for the license:

     (1) Is at least eighteen (18) years of age;

     (2) Is a citizen of the United States of America or has legal entry into the country;

     (3) Is of good moral character;

     (4) Is a high school graduate or holds the equivalent or has twenty-five (25) or more years

of prior experience in the practice for which the license is sought;

     (5) Has satisfactorily completed the course of instruction in an approved school of

barbering, hairdressing and cosmetic therapy and/or manicuring or esthetics;

     (6) Has satisfactorily passed a written and a practical examination approved by the

division to determine the fitness of the applicant to receive a license; and

     (7) Has complied with § 5-10-10 and any other qualifications that the division prescribes

by regulation.

     (b) Notwithstanding the provision of subdivision (a)(4), on and after July 1, 1997, an

applicant seeking licensure as a barber must be a high school graduate or hold the equivalent

combination of education and experience.

     (c) The division may license, on a case-by-case basis, with or without examination, any

individual who has been licensed as an esthetician, barber, cosmetologist, electrologist or

manicurist under the laws of another state, which, in the opinion of the division, maintains a

standard substantially equivalent to that of the state of Rhode Island.


 

 

32)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-10-9

117 and 142

 

 

5-10-9. Classes of licenses.

     Licenses shall be divided into the following classes and shall be issued by the division to

applicants for the licenses who have qualified for each class of license:

     (1) A "hairdresser's and cosmetician's license" shall be issued by the division to every

applicant for the license who meets the requirements of § 5-10-8 and has completed a course of

instruction in hairdressing and cosmetology consisting of not less than fifteen hundred (1,500)

twelve hundred (1,200) hours of continuous study and practice.

     (2) An "instructor's license" shall be granted by the division to any applicant for the

license who has held a licensed hairdresser's and cosmetician's license, a barber's license, a

manicurist's license, or an esthetician's license, issued under the laws of this state or another state,

for at least the three (3) years preceding the date of application for an instructor's license and:

     (i) Meets the requirements of § 5-10-8;

     (ii) Has satisfactorily completed three hundred (300) hours of instruction in hairdressing

and cosmetology, barber, manicurist, or esthetician teacher training approved by the division as

prescribed by regulation;

     (iii) Has satisfactorily passed a written and a practical examination approved by the

division to determine the fitness of the applicant to receive an instructor's license;

     (iv) Has complied with § 5-10-10; and

     (v) Has complied with any other qualifications that the division prescribes by regulation.

     (3) A "manicurist license" shall be granted to any applicant for the license who meets the

following qualifications:

     (i) Meets the requirements of § 5-10-8; and

     (ii) Has completed a course of instruction, consisting of not less than three hundred (300)

hours of professional training in manicuring, in an approved school.

     (4) An "esthetician license" shall be granted to any applicant for the license who meets

the following qualifications:

     (i) Meets the requirements of § 5-10-8;

     (ii) Has completed a course of instruction in esthetics, consisting of not less than six

hundred (600) hours of continuous study and practice over a period of not less than four (4)

months, in an approved school of hairdressing and cosmetology; and

     (iii) Any applicant who holds a diploma or certificate from a skin-care school, that is

recognized as a skin-care school by the state or nation in which it is located, and meets the

requirements of paragraph subdivision (i) of this subdivision subsection, shall be granted a

license to practice esthetics; provided, that the skin-care school has a requirement that, in order to

graduate from the school, a student must have completed a number of hours of instruction in the

practice of skin care, which number is at least equal to the number of hours of instruction required

by the division.

     (5) A "barber" license shall be issued by the division to every applicant for the license

who meets the requirements of § 5-10-8 and:

     (i) Has completed a course of instruction in barbering consisting of not less than one

thousand five hundred (1,500) hours of continuous study and practice in an approved school;

     (ii) Has possessed, for at least two (2) years prior to the filing of the application, a

certificate of registration in full force and effect from the department of health of the state

specifying that person as a registered, apprentice barber, and the application of that applicant is

accompanied by an affidavit, or affidavits, from his or her employer, or former employers, or

other reasonably satisfactory evidence showing that the applicant has been actually engaged in

barbering as an apprentice barber in the state during those two (2) years; or

     (iii) A combination of barber school training and apprenticeship training as determined

by the rules and regulations prescribed by the division.


 

 

33)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11-1.1

442 and 445

 

 

5-11-1.1. "Hawkers", "peddlers", and "door-to-door salespersons" defined --

Authority to issue rules and regulations.

     (a) For purposes of this chapter:

     (1) "Door-to-door salespersons" means persons who deliver goods, wares, or

merchandise to customers for which payment has already been made or is to be made at the time

of delivery;

     (2) "Hawker" means any person selling or offering for sale any goods, wares, or

merchandise, including any food or beverage, on any public street, highway, or public right of

way in the state from a stationary location;

     (3) "Peddler" means any person selling or offering for sale any goods, wares, or

merchandise, including any food or beverage, from a vehicle, cart, or any other conveyance

which that is not stationary; and

     (4) No "hawker" or "peddler" shall sell or offer for sale any single good, ware, or item

having a retail value of more than three hundred dollars ($300). However, this dollar limitation

shall not apply to any non-profit corporation duly authorized to do business in Rhode Island. A

non-profit corporation means a non-profit corporation which that has applied under 42 26 U.S.C. §

501(c)(3) for approval as a § 501(c)(3) corporation with the Internal Revenue Service, or has been

so approved.

     (b) Persons selling farm or garden produce, including flowers, and persons selling works

of art or crafts of their own making at an art or crafts show or exhibition are not hawkers or

peddlers;, provided, that:

     (1) Cumberland. The town of Cumberland has the power to license and regulate persons

selling farm or garden produce, including flowers, and persons selling works of art or crafts of

their own making at an art or crafts show or exhibition;

     (2) West Warwick. The town of West Warwick has the power to license and regulate

persons selling farm or garden produce, including flowers, and persons selling works of art or

crafts of their own making at an art or crafts show or exhibition;

     (3) Bristol. The town of Bristol has the power to license and regulate persons selling farm

or garden produce, including flowers, and persons selling works of art or crafts of their own

making at an art or crafts show or exhibition;

     (4) Warwick. The city of Warwick has the power to license and regulate persons selling

farm or garden produce, including flowers, and persons selling works of art or crafts of their own

making at an art or crafts show or exhibition; and

     (5) East Providence. The city of East Providence has the power to license and regulate

persons selling farm or garden produce, including flowers. ; and

     (6) Woonsocket. The city of Woonsocket has the power to license and regulate peddlers selling

or offering flowers.


 

 

34)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-20.5-1

68 and 158

 

 

5-20.5-1. Definitions.

When used in this chapter, unless the context indicates otherwise:

     (1) "Associate broker" means any licensed real estate broker who is employed or engaged

as an independent contractor by or in behalf of a licensed real estate broker to do or deal in any

activity as included or comprehended by the definitions of a real estate broker in subdivision (4)

subsection (5) of this section, for compensation or otherwise;

     (2) "Director" means the director of business regulation for the state;

     (3) "Opinion of value" means an analysis, opinion, or conclusion prepared by a person

licensed under chapter 20.5 of title 5, in the ordinary course of their his or her business relating

to the price of specified interests in or aspects of identified real estate or identified real property

or by comparison to other real property currently or recently sold in the marketplace for the

purpose of listing, purchase, or sale, excluding an appraisal prepared by a person licensed under

the provisions of chapter 20.7 of title 5, that conforms to the standards adopted by the Uniform

Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice ("USPAP").;

     (3)(4) "Real estate", as used in this chapter, includes leaseholds as well as any and every

interest or estate in land, whether corporeal or incorporeal, freehold or non-freehold, and whether

the property is situated in this state or elsewhere;

     (4)(5) "Real estate broker":

     (i) Within the meaning of this chapter, includes all persons, partnerships, associations,

and corporations, foreign and domestic, who or that:

     (A) For a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, or who with the intention or

expectation of receiving or collecting a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, lists,

sells, purchases, exchanges, rents, leases, appraises residential property containing four (4) or

fewer units prepares an opinion of value, or auctions any real estate, or the improvements on real

estate including options or who negotiates or attempts to negotiate any such activity;

     (B) Advertises or holds himself or herself, itself, or themselves out as engaged in those

activities;

     (C) Directs or assists in the procuring of a purchaser or prospect calculated or intended to

result in a real estate transaction.

     (ii) Also includes any person, partnership, association, or corporation employed by or on

behalf of the owner or owners of lots, or other parcels of real estate, at a stated salary, or upon a

fee, commission or otherwise, to sell that real estate, or any parts, in lots or other parcels, and

who or that sells, exchanges or leases, or offers or attempts or agrees to negotiate the sale,

exchange or lease of any such lot or parcel of real estate;

     (5)(6) "Real estate salesperson" means and includes any person employed or engaged as

an independent contractor by or on behalf of a licensed real estate broker to do or deal in any

activity as included or comprehended by the definitions of a real estate broker in subdivision (4)

subsection (5) of this section, for compensation or otherwise.


 

 

35)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-20.5-4

459 and 476

 

 

5-20.5-4. Examination of applicants -- Examination fee -- Licensing without examination.

     (a) The director shall require any applicant for a real estate broker's or salesperson's

license to submit to and pass a written examination to show the applicant's knowledge of the state

statutes and the rules and regulations relating to real property, deeds, mortgages, leases, contracts,

and agency. An applicant shall not be required to take the uniform portion of the Rhode Island

real estate licensing examination if the applicant provides sufficient evidence that the applicant

possesses an existing valid real estate license from a state that has similar statutes or regulations

in effect which provide for reciprocal waiver of the uniform portion of the real estate licensing

examination for persons holding an existing valid Rhode Island real estate broker's or

salesperson's license. An applicant for a real estate broker's or salesperson's license, prior to the

taking of the examination, must pay an examination fee, the cost of which is limited to the charge

as designated by the appropriate testing service's contract with the department of business

regulation.

     (b) An applicant for a real estate salesperson's license must submit satisfactory evidence

of completion of a minimum of forty-five (45) classroom hours in a real estate course given by a

school as defined in § 5-20.5-19. The applicant for a broker's license must also submit

satisfactory proof that he or she;: (i) has Has been engaged full time as a real estate salesperson

for at least two (2) years immediately prior to the date of application, except that the period is

waived if the applicant has received a baccalaureate degree with a major in real estate, from an

accredited college or universityor and (ii) has Has successfully completed at least ninety (90)

hours of approved classroom study in a school as defined in § 5-20.5-19, or equivalent in a

correspondence course offered by an extension department of an accredited college or university.

The director, in his or her sole discretion, may require any additional evidence or proof, as to the

honesty, trustworthiness, integrity, good reputation, and competency of any applicant.

     (c) Any successful applicant who fails to remit the original license fee as provided in § 5-

20.5-11 within one year of the date of that examination may be required by the director to re-

submit to and pass a written examination as provided in subsection (a) of this section.

     (d) When an attorney-at-law licensed by the supreme court of the state desires to have a

real estate broker's license or a real estate salesperson's license, the attorney, by application, and

upon payment of the applicable fee as provided in § 5-20.5-11, shall be granted a license without

examination.

     (e) A certificate of licensure shall be issued by the real estate division of the department

of business regulation within thirty (30) days after it is requested at a cost of not more than

twenty-five dollars ($25.00) for each certificate issued.


 

 

36)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-20.5-14

47 and 55

 

 

5-20.5-14. Revocation, suspension of license -- Probationary period – Penalties.

     (a) The director may, upon his or her own motion, and shall, upon the receipt of the

written verified complaint of any person initiating a cause under this section, ascertain the facts

and, if warranted, hold a hearing for the suspension or revocation of a license. The director has

power to refuse a license for cause or to suspend or revoke a license or place a licensee on

probation for a period not to exceed one year where it has been obtained by false representation,

or by fraudulent act or conduct, or where a licensee, in performing or attempting to perform any

of the acts mentioned in this chapter, is found to have committed any of the following acts or

practices:

     (1) Making any substantial misrepresentation;

     (2) Making any false promise of a character likely to influence, persuade, or induce any

person to enter into any contract or agreement when he or she could not or did not intend to keep

that promise;

     (3) Pursuing a continued and flagrant course of misrepresentation or making of false

promises through salespersons, other persons, or any medium of advertising, or otherwise;

     (4) Any misleading or untruthful advertising;

     (5) Failing to deposit money or other customers' funds received by a broker or

salesperson into an escrow account maintained by the broker which that complies with the

requirements set forth in § 5-20.5-6, upon execution of a purchase and sales agreement;

     (6) Failing to preserve for three (3) years following its consummation records relating to

any real estate transaction as described in the regulations issued by the department;

     (7) Acting for more than one party in a transaction without the knowledge and consent, in

writing, of all parties for whom he or she acts;

     (8) Placing a "for sale" or "for rent" sign on any property without the written consent of

the owner, or his or her authorized agent;

     (9) Failing to furnish a copy of any listing, sale, lease or other contract relevant to a real

estate transaction to all signatories of the contract at the time of execution;

     (10) Failing to specify a definite termination date that is not subject to prior notice, in any

listing contract;

     (11) Inducing any party to a contract, sale, or lease to break that contract for the purpose

of substitution in lieu of that contract a new contract, where that substitution is motivated by the

personal gain of the licensee;

     (12) Accepting a commission or any valuable consideration by a salesperson for the

performance of any acts specified in this chapter, from any person, except the licensed real estate

broker with whom he or she is affiliated;

     (13) Failing to disclose to an owner his or her intention or true position if he or she,

directly or indirectly through a third party, purchases for him or herself or acquires or intends to

acquire any interest in or any option to purchase property which that has been listed with his or

her office to sell or lease;

     (14) Being convicted of any criminal felony in a court of competent jurisdiction of this or

any other state or federal court, involving dishonesty, breach of trust, forgery, embezzlement,

obtaining money under false pretenses, bribery, larceny, extortion, conspiracy to defraud, fraud,

false dealing or any similar offense(s) or by pleading guilty or nolo contendere to any such

criminal offense or offenses;

     (15) Violating any rule or regulation promulgated by the department in the interest of the

public and consistent with the provisions of this chapter;

     (16) In the case of a broker licensee, failing to exercise adequate supervision over the

activities of his or her licensed salesperson within the scope of this chapter;

     (17) Failing or refusing to provide information requested by the commission or director

as the result of a formal or informal complaint to the director which that would indicate a

violation of this chapter;

     (18) Soliciting, selling, or offering for sale real property by offering free lots, or

conducting lotteries or contests or offering prizes for the purpose of influencing a purchaser or

prospective purchaser of real property;

     (19) Paying or accepting, giving or charging any undisclosed commission, rebate,

compensation, or profit or expenditures for a principal, or in violation of this chapter;

     (20) Any conduct in a real estate transaction, which that demonstrates bad faith,

dishonesty, untrustworthiness, or incompetence;

     (21) Failing to have all listing agreements in writing, properly identifying the property

and containing all of the terms and conditions of the sale, including the commission to be paid,

the signatures of all parties concerned, and a definite expiration date in that contract, which shall

not require an owner to notify a broker of his or her intention to terminate. An exclusive agency

listing or exclusive right to sell listing shall be clearly indicated in the listing agreement;

     (22) Accepting a listing based on "net price". In cases where the owner wishes to list in

this manner, the agreed-upon commission is added and listings made in the usual manner;

     (23) Negotiating, or attempting to negotiate, the sale, exchange, or lease of any real

property directly with an owner or lessor knowing that the owner or lessor has an outstanding

exclusive listing contract with another licensee covering the same property, except when the real

estate broker or salesperson is contacted by the client of another broker regarding a real estate

service, and the broker or salesperson has not directly or indirectly initiated those discussions,

they may discuss the terms which they might enter into future agency agreement or they may

enter into an agency agreement which that becomes effective upon termination of any existing

exclusive agreement; or they may enter into an agreement for other real estate service not covered

by an existing agency relationship;

     (24) Accepting an exclusive right to sell or lease or an exclusive agency and subsequently

failing to make a diligent effort to sell or lease the listed property;

     (25) Advising against the use of the services of an attorney in any real estate transaction;

     (26) Representing to any lender or any other party in interest, either verbally or through

the preparation of a false sales contract, an amount other than the true and actual sales price;

     (27) Submitting to an owner a written offer to purchase or lease unless that offer contains

the essential terms and conditions of the offer including the manner in which the purchase price is

to be paid, and if that offer is contingent upon certain conditions, those conditions shall be clearly

stated in the offer, or unless the offer is conditioned upon the later execution of a complete

agreement for sale;

     (28) Paying any sums of money being held in an escrow account to any person, or

converting such sums of money for his or her own use, in the event of a failed real estate

transaction, without having complied with the department's rules and regulations relative to the

transfer of disputed deposit funds to the office of the general treasurer;

     (29) Advertising to sell, buy, exchange, rent, or lease the property of another in a manner

indicating that the offer to sell, buy, exchange, rent, or lease that property is being made by a

private party not engaged in the real estate business, nor insert inserting advertisements in any

publication containing only a post office or other box number, telephone number, or street

address. No salesperson shall advertise the property of another under his or her own name;

     (30) As a licensed salesperson, failing upon termination of his or her employment or

affiliation with a real estate broker and upon demand by the broker to immediately turn over to

the broker any and all information, records, or other materials obtained during his or her

employment whether the information or records were originally given to him or her by the broker

or copied from the records of that broker or affiliation or acquired by the salesperson during his

or her employment;

     (31) Offering, promising, giving, or paying, directly or indirectly, any part or share of his

or her commission or compensation arising or accruing from any real estate transaction to any

person who is not licensed as a real estate broker, but who by law should be licensed, or who is

not a real estate salesperson employed by that licensee;

     (32) Soliciting the sale, lease, or the listing for sale or lease, of residential property on the

ground of loss of value due to the present or prospective entry in the neighborhood of a person or

persons of another race, religion, or ethnic origin, nor shall he or she distribute, or cause to be

distributed, material or make statements designed to induce a residential property owner to sell or

lease his or her property due to such factors;

     (33) Failure of the employing broker to notify the director, in writing, within ten (10)

days of the termination of a salesperson's employment of contractual relationship, or failure of a

salesperson to notify the director, in writing, within ten (10) days of any change in his/her broker

affiliation;

     (34) Failure to report all written offers to the owner prior to the signing of a purchase and

sale agreement by the owner; or

     (35) Failure of agents to provide buyers and sellers of real property with disclosure

regarding real estate agency relationships as specified in chapter 20.6 of this title; or

     (36) Failure of an associate broker to inform the public of associate broker status by not

listing associate broker on business cards and correspondence or by informing the public that his

or her status in the real estate firm is that of broker.; or

     (37) Failure to pay sums of money being held in an escrow account, pursuant to §5-20.5-

26, within ten (10) days of receipt of a written release that has been signed by all parties to a

failed real estate transaction.

     (b) The director is authorized to levy an administrative penalty not exceeding one

thousand dollars ($1,000) for any violation under this section or the rules and regulations of the

department of business regulation.


 

 

37)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-20.5-26

47 and 55

 

 

5-20.5-26. Escrows.

     (a) Escrow.

     (1) Escrow accounts.

     (i) Each real estate firm shall maintain an escrow account under the supervision of the

broker qualified to do business in the name and on behalf of the corporate, partnership or

association licensee. All those funds paid to a salesperson or paid directly to a broker shall be

segregated on the broker's books and deposited in an account in a recognized federally insured

financial institution in Rhode Island separate from any account containing funds owned by the

broker. A broker or salesperson shall not commingle deposit money or other customers' funds and

his or her own funds,; use a customer's funds as his or her own,; or fail to keep an escrow or

trustee account of funds deposited with him or her relating to a real estate transaction, for a period

of three (3) years, showing to whom the money belongs, date deposited, date of withdrawal, to

whom paid, and any other pertinent information that the commission requires. Those records are

to be available to the commission and the department or their representatives, on demand, or upon

written notice given to the depository. Each broker/office supervisor shall maintain a monthly

report as to the status of that office's escrow account, and is responsible for its accuracy.

     (ii) A multi-office firm may either have an escrow account for each office or one central

escrow account for the firm.

     (iii) Funds held in escrow may be applied to the commission when earned by the listing

company.

     (iv) Whenever the ownership of any deposit monies received by a broker or salesperson

pursuant to this section is in dispute by the parties to a real estate transaction, the broker or

salesperson shall deposit the monies with the general treasurer within one hundred eighty (180)

days of the date of the original deposit, those monies to be held in trust by the general treasurer

until the dispute is mediated, arbitrated, litigated, or otherwise resolved by the parties. The parties

to a real estate transaction may agree in writing to extend the time period by which the monies

must be deposited with the general treasurer in accordance with regulations promulgated by the

department of business regulation.

     (v) The department of business regulation shall have the authority to promulgate rules

and regulations with respect to such escrow accounts and the deposit of monies with the general

treasurer.

     (2) Escrow agents. Funds or deposits placed in escrow may be held by any person or

entity legally authorized to hold funds in that capacity, e.g., the real estate broker or attorney.

     (b) Dual activities. In all real estate transactions in which a broker holds more than one

title, e.g., builder, contractor, or insurance agent, all deposit monies received must be placed in

the brokers real estate escrow account, unless there is a contractual agreement between the

principals to the contrary.

     (c) Unlawful appropriation. Pursuant to § 11-41-11.1, any licensee to whom any money

or other property is entrusted as escrow funds, who intentionally appropriates to the licensee's

own use that money or property, or transfers the funds from an escrow account to a company or

personal account prior to a closing, is guilty of unlawful appropriation.

     (d) Release of funds. An escrow agent shall pay sums of money being held in an escrow

account as instructed by the parties to a failed real estate transaction, within ten (10) days of

receipt of a written release that has been signed by all the parties to the failed real estate

transaction.


 

 

38)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-20.9

14 and 26

 

 

CHAPTER 20.9

REAL ESTATE APPRAISAL MANAGEMENT COMPANY REGISTRATION ACT


 

 

39)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-25-7

125 and 141

 

 

5-25-7. Practice of veterinary medicine defined.

     (a) Any person shall be regarded as practicing veterinary medicine, surgery, and dentistry

within the meaning of this chapter who, either directly or indirectly, when he or she does any of

the following:

     (1) Represents himself or herself as engaged in the practice of veterinary medicine,

veterinary surgery, or veterinary dentistry in any of its branches.

     (2) Diagnoses, prognoses, treats, administers, prescribes, operates on, manipulates or

applies any drug, biologic, or chemical or any apparatus or appliance for any disease, pain,

deformity, defect, injury, wound, or physical condition of any animal for the prevention of or to

test the presence of any disease.

     (3) Cuts any tissue, muscle, organ, or structure of any animal for the purposes described

in subdivision (2) of this subsection or purpose or for the purpose of altering the natural condition

of any animal or for any other purpose, cause, or reason.

     (b) The term "practicing veterinary medicine" does not include:

     (1) The calling into the state for consultation of duly licensed or registered veterinarians

of any other state as to any case under treatment by a veterinarian registered under the provisions

of this chapter.

     (2) The experimentation or research of a registered physician, dentist, or osteopath.

     (3) The experimentation and research activities conducted at any hospital, laboratory, or

educational institution provided the activities have been approved and authorized by the division

within the period of one year prior to the commencement of each separate project or activity or

are conducted under the general supervision and control of a registered veterinarian, physician,

dentist, or osteopath.

     (4) The gratuitous giving of aid or relief to an animal in any accident or emergency;

provided, the person giving the aid or relief does not represent himself or herself as a registered

veterinarian.

     (5) The nursing care to animals in the establishment or facilities of a registered

veterinarian under his or her general supervision, direction, and control by the employees of the

veterinarian or the activities of a person assisting a veterinarian during the course of any

procedure or treatment.

     (6) A person who is a regular student in a legally chartered college or school of veterinary

medicine while in the performance of the duties and activities assigned by his or her instructors

and provided there is a licensed veterinarian to supervise those acts.

     (7) A person who is a member of the armed forces of the United States or who is an

employee or official of the United States dDepartment of aAgriculture, pPublic hHealth sService,

or other federal agency or of the state, who, while so commissioned or employed, performs

official duties.

     (8) A person who conducts routine authorized by the Rhode Island state or federal animal

health official to conduct vaccinations, pullorum or testing and typhoid testing of poultry and

other poultry of animals for the purpose of disease control activity under the supervision of an

official state or federal agency or department of agriculture that authorizing official.

     (9) A person who advises with respect to or performs acts which that are livestock

management and animal husbandry practices that have been accepted and performed as defined in

the duly promulgated rules and regulations governing livestock welfare. Prescription drugs shall

not be used except by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian, as provided by state and federal

law.

     (c) Upon the determination by the attending zoo veterinarian that there is no available

licensed Rhode Island veterinarian with specialized skills to provide the necessary treatment,

assistance can be sought from a licensed human medical practitioner to provide treatment to an

animal that is part of the zoological collection. The licensed veterinarian shall maintain

responsibility for the veterinarian-client-patient relationship.


 

 

40)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-36.1

230 and 329

 

 

CHAPTER 36.1

LICENSURE OF NATUROPATHY ACT OF 2017


 

 

41)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-37.3-3

120 and 140

 

 

5-37.3-3. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Authorized representative" means:

     (i) A person empowered by the patient/client to assert or to waive the confidentiality, or

to disclose or consent to the disclosure of confidential information, as established by this chapter.

That person is not, except by explicit authorization, empowered to waive confidentiality or to

disclose or consent to the disclosure of confidential information;

     (ii) A guardian or conservator, if the person whose right to confidentiality is protected

under this chapter is incompetent to assert or waive that right; or

     (iii) If the patient/client is deceased, his or her personal representative or, in the absence

of that representative, his or her heirs-at-law. ; or

     (iv) A patient's attorney.

     (2) "Board of medical licensure and discipline" means the board created under chapter 37

of this title.

     (3) (i) "Confidential health care communication" means a communication of health care

information by an individual to a health care provider, including a transcription of any

information, not intended to be disclosed to third persons except if those persons are:

     (A) Present to further the interest of the patient in the consultation, examination or

interview;

     (B) Reasonably necessary for the transmission of the communication; or

     (C) Participating in the diagnosis and treatment under the direction of the health care

provider, including members of the patient's family.

     (ii) "Confidential health care information" means all information relating to a patient's

health care history, diagnosis, condition, treatment, or evaluation obtained from a health care

provider who has treated the patient.

     (4) "Health care provider" means any person licensed by this state to provide or lawfully

providing health care services, including, but not limited to, a physician, hospital, intermediate

care facility or other health care facility, dentist, nurse, optometrist, podiatrist, physical therapist,

psychiatric social worker, pharmacist or psychologist, and any officer, employee, or agent of that

provider acting in the course and scope of his or her employment or agency related to or

supportive of health services.

     (5) "Health care services" means acts of diagnosis, treatment, medical evaluation, or

counseling or any other acts that may be permissible under the health care licensing statutes of

this state.

     (6) "Managed care contractor" means a person that:

     (i) Establishes, operates, or maintains a network of participating providers;

     (ii) Conducts or arranges for utilization review activities; and

     (iii) Contracts with an insurance company, a hospital or medical service plan, an

employer, an employee organization, or any other entity providing coverage for health care

services to operate a managed care plan.

     (7) "Managed care entity" includes a licensed insurance company, hospital or medical

service plan, health maintenance organization, an employer or employee organization, or a

managed care contractor as described in subdivision (6) of this section, that operates a managed

care plan.

     (8) "Managed care plan" means a plan operated by a managed care entity as described in

subdivision (7) of this section, that provides for the financing and delivery of health care services

to persons enrolled in the plan through:

     (i) Arrangements with selected providers to furnish health care services;

     (ii) Explicit standards for the selection of participating providers;

     (iii) Organizational arrangements for ongoing quality assurance, utilization review

programs, and dispute resolution; and

     (iv) Financial incentives for persons enrolled in the plan to use the participating providers

and procedures provided for by the plan.

     (9) "Medical peer review board" means a peer review board under chapter 37 of this title.

     (10) "Nurse" means a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse licensed to practice

nursing in the state.

     (11) "Participating provider" means a physician, hospital, pharmacy, laboratory, dentist,

or other state licensed or other state recognized provider of health care services or supplies, that

has entered into an agreement with a managed care entity to provide any services or supplies to a

patient enrolled in a managed care plan.

     (12) "Patient" means a person who receives health care services from a health care

provider.

     (13) "Personally identifiable confidential health care information" means confidential

health care information, which explicitly or by implication identifies a particular patient.

     (14) "Physician" means a person registered or licensed to practice allopathic or

osteopathic medicine in this state under Rhode Island general laws.

     (15) "Psychiatric social worker" means a person holding a Master's or further advanced

degree from a school of social work accredited by the council of social work education.

     (16) "Psychologist" means a certified psychologist under chapter 44 of this title.

     (17) "Qualified personnel" means persons whose training and experience are appropriate

to the nature and level of the work in which they are engaged and who, when working as part of

an organization, are performing that work with published and adequate administrative safeguards

against disclosure unauthorized under this chapter.

     (18) "Third party" means a person other than the patient to whom the confidential health

care information relates and other than a health care provider.

     (19) "Third-party requestor" means any person or entity presenting a patient signed

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)-compliant authorization allowing

them to obtain a copy of the patient's medical records or reports.


 

 

42)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-40-1

130 and 312

 

 

5-40-1. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Board" means the board of physical therapy established by § 5-40-2.

     (2) "Department" means the department of health.

     (3) "Examination" means an examination approved by the department in consultation

with the board.

     (4) "License" means a license issued by the department to practice physical therapy.

     (5) "Physical therapist" means an individual who is licensed by the department to practice

physical therapy.

     (6) "Physical therapist assistant" means an individual who is licensed by the department

to assist in the practice of physical therapy under the supervision of a physical therapist.

     (7) (i) "Practice physical therapy" means the examination, treatment, and instruction of

human beings to detect, assess, prevent, correct, alleviate and limit physical disability, physical

dysfunction, and pain from injury, disease and any other bodily conditions, and includes the

administration, interpretation, and evaluation of tests and measurements of bodily functions and

structures; the planning, administration, evaluation, and modification of treatment and instruction,

including the use of physical measures, activities, and devices, for preventive and therapeutic

purposes; and the provision of consultative, educational, and other advisory services for the

purpose of reducing the incidence and severity of physical disability, physical dysfunction and

pain.

     (ii) The practice of physical therapy does not include the practice of medicine as defined

in chapter 37 of this title.

     "Physical therapy" means the care and services provided by or under the direction and

supervision of a physical therapist who is licensed pursuant to this chapter.

     (8) (9) "Supervision" means that a licensed physical therapist is at all times responsible for

supportive personnel and students.

     (9)(8)"Practice of physical therapy" means:

     (i)(A) Examination, evaluation, treatment, and instruction of patients/clients to detect,

assess, prevent, correct, alleviate, and limit physical disability, physical dysfunction, and pain

from injury, disease, and any other bodily conditions;

     (B) Administration, interpretation, and evaluation of tests and measurements of bodily

functions and structures;

     (C) The planning, administration, evaluation, and modification of treatment and

instruction, including the use of physical measures, activities, and devices, for preventive and

therapeutic purposes; and

     (D) The provision of consultative, educational, and other advisory services for the

purpose of reducing the incidence and severity of physical disability, physical dysfunction, and

pain;

     (ii) The practice of physical therapy does not include the practice of medicine as defined

in chapter 37 of this title.


 

 

43)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-40-9

130 and 312

 

 

5-40-9. Right of use of the title of physical therapist.

     (a) To safeguard the welfare and health of the people of the state, it is unlawful for any

person to represent himself or herself as a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant in this

state or to use any title, abbreviation, sign, or device to indicate that the person is a physical

therapist or physical therapist assistant unless this person has been licensed pursuant to the

provisions of this chapter §5-40-7.

     (b) Any person who holds a license to practice physical therapy in this state has the right

to use the title "physical therapist" and abbreviation "P.T." No other person may assume the title

or use the abbreviation P.T. or other words, or letters, signs, figures, or devices to indicate that the

person using the title is a physical therapist. A physical therapist shall use the letters "PT" or the

term "physical therapist" immediately following their his or her name to designate licensure

under this chapter. A person or business entity, its employees, agents, or representatives shall not

use in connection with that person's name or the name or activity of the business, the words

"physical therapy,", "physical therapist,", "registered physical therapist,", the letters "PT,", DPT,",

"LPT,", "RPT,", "SPT", or any other words, abbreviations, or insignia, indicating or implying

directly or indirectly, that physical therapy is provided or supplied, unless such services are

provided by or under the direction of a physical therapist licensed pursuant to this chapter. A

person or business entity shall not advertise or otherwise promote another person as being a

"physical therapist" unless the individual so advertised or promoted is licensed as a physical

therapist pursuant to this chapter. A person or business entity that offers, provides, or bills any

other person for services shall not characterize those services as "physical therapy" unless the

individual performing those services is a person under the direction or supervision of a physical

therapist pursuant to this chapter.

     (c) The abbreviation "G.P.T." shall be used to identify a "graduate physical therapist"

authorized to perform as a graduate physical therapist pursuant to this chapter.

     (d) Any person who holds a license as a physical therapist assistant in this state has the

right to use the title "physical therapist assistant". No other person may assume the title or other

words, or letters, signs, figures, or devices to indicate that the person using the title is a physical

therapist assistant. A physical therapist assistant shall use the letters "PTA" immediately

following their his or her name to designate licensure under this chapter.

     (e) A person shall not use the title "physical therapist assistant" or "graduate physical

therapist assistant" and the letters "PTA" or "GPTA,", or any other words, abbreviations, or

insignia in connection with that person's name, to indicate or imply, directly or indirectly, that the

person is a physical therapist assistant unless that person is licensed as a physical therapist

assistant pursuant to this chapter.


 

 

44)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-40-13

130 and 312

 

 

5-40-13. Grounds for discipline of licensees.

     (a) The board has power to deny, revoke, or suspend any license issued by the department

or applied for in accordance with this chapter, or to discipline a person licensed under this

chapter, upon proof that said person has engaged in unprofessional conduct including, but not

limited to:

     (1) Fraud or deceit in procuring, or attempting to procure, a license or in the practice of

physical therapy;

     (2) Is habitually intemperate or is addicted to the use of habit forming drugs;

     (3) Is mentally and/or professionally incompetent;

     (4) Has repeatedly violated any of the provisions of this chapter;

     (5) Providing services to a person who is making a claim as a result of a personal injury,

who charges or collects from the person any amount in excess of the reimbursement to the

physical therapist by the insurer as a condition of providing or continuing to provide services or

treatment;

     (6) Conviction, including a plea of nolo contendere, of one or more of the offenses listed

in § 23-17-37;

     (7) Abandonment of a patient;

     (8) Promotion by a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant of the sale of drugs,

devices, appliances, or goods or services provided for a patient in a manner as to exploit the

patient for the financial gain of the physical therapist or physical therapist assistant;

     (9) Making or filing false reports or records in the practice of physical therapy;

     (10) Repeated failure to file or record, or impede or obstruct a filing or recording, or

inducing another person to fail to file or record physical therapy reports;

     (11) Failure to furnish patient records upon proper request;

     (12) Practice as a physical therapist assistant without supervision by a physical therapist

licensed in the state of Rhode Island;

     (13) Incompetent or negligent misconduct in the practice of physical therapy;

     (14) Revocation, suspension, surrender, or limitation of privilege based on quality of care

provided or disciplinary action against a license to practice as a physical therapist or physical

therapist assistant in another state, jurisdiction, or country;

     (15) Failure to furnish the board, administrator, investigator, or representatives

information legally requested by the board;

     (16) Violation of this chapter or any of the rules and regulations or departure from or

failure to conform to the current standards of acceptable and prevailing practice and code of

ethics of physical therapy. ;

     (17) Practicing, or offering to practice, beyond the scope of the practice of physical

therapy.

     (b) Whenever a patient seeks or receives treatment from a physical therapist without

referral from a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, dentistry, podiatry, chiropractic, physician

assistant, or certified registered nurse practitioner, the physical therapist shall:

     (1) Disclose to the patient, in writing, the scope and limitations of the practice of physical

therapy and obtain their his or her consent in writing; and

     (2) Refer the patient to a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, dentistry, podiatry, or

chiropractic within ninety (90) days after the date treatment commenced; provided, that a physical

therapist is not required to make this a referral after treatment is concluded;

     (3) No physical therapist who has less than one year clinical experience as a physical

therapist shall commence treatment on a patient without a referral from a doctor of medicine,

osteopathy, dentistry, podiatry, chiropractic, physician assistant, or certified registered nurse

practitioner.

     (c) For purposes of this chapter and notwithstanding any other provisions of this chapter

or any rules or regulations adopted by the board, any person licensed or registered under this

chapter who is a bona fide employee or independent contractor of a physician or a physician

group entitled to wages and compensation pursuant to such employment or contract, or is a co-

owner of a physical therapy practice with a physician group, shall not be deemed to be engaged in

conduct unbecoming a person licensed or registered under this chapter, or to be engaged in

conduct detrimental to the best interest of the public, or to be in violation of any other provision

of this chapter by virtue of any of the above relationships, and shall not be subject to licensure

denial, suspension, revocation, or any other disciplinary action or penalty under this chapter:

     (1) Solely by virtue of such employment or contract; or

     (2) Solely by virtue of the provision of physical therapy services pursuant to a referral

from the employing or contracting physician or physician group.

     Any such interest referenced in this paragraph shall be in accordance with federal and

state law, specifically, including, but not limited to, chapter 5-48.1 48.1 of this title.


 

 

45)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-44-3

36 and 42

 

 

5-44-3. Board of psychology -- Creation – Composition.

Within the department of professional regulation in the department of health, there shall

be a board of psychology consisting of five (5) seven (7) members as provided by § 5-44-4.


 

 

46)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-44-4

36 and 42

 

 

5-44-4. Board of psychology -- Appointment, terms, oath, and removal of members.

     (a) The director of the department of health shall, with the approval of the governor,

appoint five (5) seven (7) electors as members of the board. One member of the board shall be

representative of the public, and four (4) six (6) shall be psychologists pursuant to this chapter

and each of them shall have been engaged in their profession for at least five (5) years. At least

one member of the board shall be an academic psychologist.

     (b) The director shall, with the approval of the governor, appoint persons to serve on the

board for a term of three (3) years and each member shall serve until his or her successor has

been appointed and qualified.

     (c) The director may remove any member from the board for neglect of any duty required

by law, or for incompetence, or unprofessional or dishonorable conduct. Vacancies shall be filled

in the same manner as the original appointment was made, for the remainder of the term.


 

 

47)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-44-5

36 and 42

 

 

5-44-5. Board of psychology -- Organization and meetings.

     (a) The board shall organize immediately after the appointment and qualification of its

members.

     (b) The board shall annually elect a chairperson and secretary. Meetings may be called by

the chairperson or the director of the department of health or by written request of three (3) four

(4) members of the board. A majority of seats filled shall constitute a quorum. The board shall

meet as often as necessary.


 

 

 

 

48)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-44-19

36 and 42

 

 

5-44-19. Procedure for discipline.

     (a) When a sworn complaint is filed with the board charging a person with being guilty of

any of the actions specified in § 5-44-18, the department shall immediately investigates those

charges, or, the board, after investigation, may institute charges.

     (b) (1) If the investigation reveals reasonable grounds for believing that the applicant or

psychologist is guilty of the charges, the board shall fix a time and place for a hearing, and shall

serve a copy of the charges, together with a notice of the time and the place fixed for the hearing,

personally upon the accused at least twenty (20) days prior to the time fixed for the hearing.

     (2) The board may investigate and render a decision on any disciplinary complaint

against anyone practicing psychology (regardless of whether he or she was licensed at the time of

the alleged complaint) or that their license has subsequently been surrendered, revoked, or not

renewed.

     (3) The board, at its discretion, may dismiss or suspend a complaint without a finding as

delineated in the rules and regulations so that a person who is the subject of the complaint may

participate in a colleague assistance program acceptable to the board. The board may suspend a

complaint contingent upon the person complying with directions issued by the board. The board

may reinstate any suspended complaint at anytime any time it deems that the person is not in

compliance with the directions of the board.

     (4) When personal service cannot be effected and that fact is certified by oath by any

person authorized to make service, the board shall publish once, in each of two (2) successive

weeks, a notice of the hearing in a newspaper published in the county where the accused last

resided according to the records of the board and shall mail a copy of the charges and of the

notice to the accused at his or her last known address.

     (5) When publication of notice is necessary, the date of the hearing shall not be less than

twenty (20) days after the last date of publication of the notice.

     (c) (1) At the hearing, the accused has the right to appear personally or by counsel, or

both, to produce witnesses and evidence on his or her behalf, to cross-examine witnesses, and to

have subpoenas issued by the administrator of professional regulation.

     (2) The attendance of witnesses and the production of books, documents, and papers at

the hearing may be compelled by subpoenas issued by the department, which shall be served in

accordance with law.

     (3) The department shall administer oaths as necessary for the proper conduct of the

hearing.

     (4) The board is not bound by the strict rules of procedure or by the laws of evidence in

the conduct of its proceedings, but the determination shall be based upon sufficient legal evidence

to sustain it.

     (5) The board has the authority to delegate a hearing to a hearing officer.

     (d) If the accused is found guilty of the charges, the board may refuse to issue a

registration to the applicant, or may revoke or suspend his or her license, or discipline that person.

     (e) Upon the revocation or suspension of any license, the license holder shall surrender

the license to the department who which shall indicate same in the licensure verification

database.

     (f) A revocation or suspension of license may be reviewed at the discretion of the board,

or at the initiative of the department who which may order a rehearing of the issue if he or she it

finds cause.


 

 

49)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-65-3

390 and 425

 

 

5-65-3. Registration for work on a structure required of contractor -- Issuance of building permits

 to unregistered or unlicensed contractors prohibited -- Evidence of activity as a contractor --

Duties of contractors.

     (a) A person shall not undertake, offer to undertake, or submit a bid to do work as a contractor

on a structure or arrange to have work done unless that person has a current, valid certificate of

registration for all construction work issued by the board. A partnership, corporation, or joint

venture may do the work,; offer to undertake the work,; or submit a bid to do the work only if

that partnership, corporation, or joint venture is registered for the work. In the case of registration by

a corporation or partnership, an individual shall be designated to be responsible for the corporation's

or partnership's work. The corporation or partnership and its designee shall be jointly and severally

liable for the payment of the registration fee, as requested in this chapter, and for violations

of any provisions of this chapter. Disciplinary action taken on a registration held by a corporation,

partnership, or sole proprietor may affect other registrations held by the same corporation, partnership,

or sole proprietorship, and may preclude future registration by the principal of that business entity.

     (b) A registered partnership or corporation shall notify the board in writing immediately

upon any change in partners or corporate officers.

     (c) A city, town, or the state shall not issue a building permit to anyone required to be

registered under this chapter who does not have a current, valid certificate of registration

identification card or valid license which that shall be presented at the time of issuance of a

permit and shall become a condition of a valid permit. Each city, town, or the state which that

requires the issuance of a permit as a condition precedent to construction, alteration,

improvement, demolition, movement, or repair of any building or structure or the appurtenance to

the structure shall also require that each applicant for the permit file, as a condition to issuing the

permit, a written affidavit subject to the penalties of perjury, subscribed by the applicant, that the

applicant is registered under the provisions of this chapter, giving the number of the registration

and stating that the registration is in full force and effect, or, if the applicant is exempt from the

provisions of this chapter, listing the basis for the exemption. The city, town, or the state shall list

the contractor's registration number on the permit obtained by that contractor, and if a homeowner

is issued a permit, the building inspector or official must ascertain registration

numbers of each contractor on the premises and shall inform the registration board of any

non-registered contractors performing work at the site.

     (d) Every city and town which that requires the issuance of a business license as a condition precedent

to engaging, within the city or town, in a business which that is subject to regulation under this chapter,

shall require that each licensee and each applicant for issuance or renewal of the license file, or has on file,

with the city or town a signed statement that the licensee or applicant is registered under the provisions of

this chapter and stating that the registration is in full force and effect.

     (e) It shall be prima facie evidence of doing business as a contractor when a person for

that person's own use performs, employs others to perform, or for compensation and with the

intent to sell the structure, arranges to have performed any work described in § 5-65-1(3) if within

any one twelve-(12) month (12) period that person offers for sale one or more structures on which

that work was performed.

     (f) Registration under this chapter shall be prima facie evidence that the registrant

conducts a separate, independent business.

     (g) The provisions of this chapter shall be exclusive and no city or town shall require or

shall issue any registrations or licenses nor charges any fee for the regulatory registration of any

contractor registered with the board. Nothing in this subsection shall limit or abridge the authority

of any city or town to license and levy and collect a general and nondiscriminatory license fee

levied upon all businesses, or to levy a tax based upon business conducted by any firm within the

city or town's jurisdiction, if permitted under the laws of the state.

     (h) (1) Every contractor shall maintain a list which that shall include the following information

about all subcontractors or other contractors performing work on a structure for that contractor:

     (i) Names and addresses.; and

     (ii) Registration numbers or other license numbers.

     (2) The list referred to in subdivision subsection (h)(1) of this subsection section shall be

delivered to the board within twenty-four (24) hours after a request is made during reasonable

working hours, or a fine of twenty-five dollars ($25.00) may be imposed for each offense.

     (i) The following subcontractors who are not employees of a registered contractor must

obtain a registration certificate prior to conducting any work: (1) cCarpenters, including finish

carpenters and framers; (2) sSiding installers; (3) rRoofers; (4) fFoundation installers, including

concrete installers and form installers; (5) dDrywall installers; (6) pPlasterers; (7) iInsulation

installers; (8) cCeramic tile installers; (9) fFloor covering installers; (10) sSwimming pool

installers, both above ground and in ground; (11) mMasons, including chimney installers,

fireplace installers, and general masonry erectors. This list is not all inclusive and shall not be

limited to the above-referenced contractors. No subcontractor licensed by another in-state agency

pursuant to § 5-65-2 shall be required to register, provided that said work is performed under the

purview of that license.

     (j) A contractor including, but not limited to, a general contractor, shall not hire any

subcontractor or other contractor to work on a structure unless the contractor is registered under

this chapter or exempt from registration under the provisions of § 5-65-2.

     (k) A summary of this chapter, prepared by the board and provided at cost to all

registered contractors, shall be delivered by the contractor to the owner when the contractor

begins work on a structure; failure to comply may result in a fine.

     (l) The registration number of each contractor shall appear in any advertising by that

contractor. Advertising in any form by an unregistered contractor shall be prohibited, including

alphabetical or classified directory listings, vehicles, business cards, and all other forms of

advertisements. The violations could result in a penalty being assessed by the board per

administrative procedures established.

     (i) The board may publish, revoke, or suspend registrations and the date the registration

was suspended or revoked on a quarterly basis.

     (ii) Use of the word "license" in any form of advertising when only registered may

subject the registrant or those required to be registered to a fine of one hundred dollars ($100) for

each offense at the discretion of the board.

     (m) The contractor must see that permits required by the state building code are secured

on behalf of the owner prior to commencing the work involved. The contractor's registration

number must be affixed to the permit as required by the state building code.

     (n) The board may assess an interest penalty of twelve percent (12%) annually when a

monetary award is ordered by the board.

(o) All work performed, including labor and materials, in excess of one thousand dollars

($1,000) shall be accompanied by a contract in writing. Contracts required pursuant to this

subsection shall include a location on or near the signature line location on or in which the parties

to the contract shall initial to evidence the receipt of certain consumer education materials or

information approved and provided by the board to the contractor. Said educational materials

and/or information shall include, but not be limited to, the following notice and shall be provided

by the contractor to the homeowner: NOTICE OF POSSIBLE MECHANIC'S LIEN

     To: Insert name of owner, lessee or tenant, or owner of less than the simple fee.

     The undersigned is about to perform work and/or furnish materials for the construction,

erection, alterations or repair upon the land at (INSERT ADDRESS) under contract with you.

This is a notice that the undersigned and any other persons who provide labor and materials for

the improvement under contract with the undersigned may file a mechanic's lien upon the land in

the event of nonpayment to them. It is your responsibility to assure yourself that those other

persons under contract with the undersigned receive payment for their work performed and

materials furnished for the construction, erection, alteration or repair upon the land. Failure to

adhere to the provisions of this subsection may result in a one thousand dollar ($1,000) fine

against the contractor and shall not affect the right of any other person performing work or

furnishing materials of claiming a lien pursuant to Chapter 34-28 28 of title 34. However, such person failing

to provide such notice shall indemnify and hold harmless any owner, lessee or tenant, or owner of

less than the fee simple from any payment or costs incurred on account of any liens claims by

those not in privity with them, unless such owner, lessee or tenant, or owner of less than the fee

simple shall not have paid such person.

     (p) Contracts entered into must contain notice of right of rescission as stipulated in all

pertinent Rhode Island consumer protection laws and/or §5-65-27 if applicable.

     (q) The contractor must stipulate whether or not all the proper insurances are in effect for

each job contracted.

     (r) Contractors who are in compliance with the provisions of this subsection shall be

exempt from the requirements of § 34-28-4.1.

     (s) In addition to the requirements of this chapter, contractors engaged in well drilling

activities shall also be subject to regulations pertaining to licensing and registration promulgated

by the contractors' registration and licensing board pursuant to chapter 5-65.2  65.2 of this title and § 46-13.2-4.


 

 

50)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-65-27

398 and 425

 

 

5-65-27. Elderly person in-home solicitation - Right to cancel.

     (a) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

     (1) "Consumer" means an individual who contracts with a person offering to undertake or

submit a bid to do work as a contractor.

     (2) "Elderly person" is defined in §42-66-4.1.

     (3) "Emergency" means an urgent and immediate need for services, assistance, or repairs,

which that must be addressed without delay to avoid substantial harm to persons or property.

     (4) "In-home solicitation" means any transaction made at the consumer's primary

residence, including telephonic or online, except those transactions initiated by the consumer. A

consumer response to an advertisement is not an in-home solicitation.

     (5) "Person" means an individual, partnerships, corporation, limited-liability company,

association, or other group, however organized.

     (6) "Services" means work, labor, and services as a contractor pursuant to chapter 65 of

title 5, as well as other disciplines governed by the board pursuant to statutory law.

     (b) In addition to all other methods of consumer protection provided by federal or state

law, any contract which that originates from an in-home solicitation of an elderly person for the

purposes of performing work as a contractor pursuant to chapter 65 of title 5, as well as other

disciplines governed by the board pursuant to statutory law, shall provide that any consumer who

is an elderly person shall, in the absence of an emergency as defined herein, have three (3) days

within which to cancel the in-home solicitation contract for contractor services.

     (c) The contractor shall, at the time of the agreement in accordance with §5-65-3, give

notice to the elderly person of all the rights that substantially comply with this section. The notice

must:

     (1) Appear in the agreement under the conspicuous caption: "Notice of Cancellation";

and

     (2) Read as follows:

     ... (date of transaction) "You may cancel this agreement, without any penalty or

obligation, within three (3) business days from the above date. If you cancel, your cancellation

notice must state that you do not wish to be bound by the agreement and mailed by registered or

certified mail not later than midnight three (3) days following the consumer's signing the

agreement, excluding Sunday and any holiday on which regular mail deliveries are not made. All

cancellations must be mailed to:

     (insert name and address of the seller)."

     (d) Whenever the agreement fails to conform to the provisions of this section and the

consumer or their his or her agent has notified the seller of their the consumer’s intent to cancel

the agreement by registered mail, return receipt requested, the contractor shall, within twenty (20)

days, return any deposit made by the consumer. Failure to return any deposit shall enable the

consumer to recover from the contractor double damages in any subsequent legal proceeding.


 

 

 

51)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-70-22

407 and 432

 

 

5-70-22. Authority of director to assess penalty.

     (a) The director may assess an administrative penalty on any person, firm, or corporation

for any violation of the provisions of this chapter, after notice and hearing, before and upon the

recommendation of the board of examination and licensing of telecommunications system

contractors, technicians and installers in the amount of not more than five hundred dollars ($500)

for the first offense and not less than five hundred dollars ($500) nor more than one thousand

dollars ($1000) for each subsequent offense; provided, that the director of labor and training may

revoke any telecommunication license for a failure to pay any fine recommended by the board

and approved by the director of labor and training within thirty (30) days. Each individual person

acting in violation of the provisions of this chapter shall constitute a separate offense to any

person, firm, or corporation assessed a penalty under this section.

     (b) A copy of the order shall be immediately served upon the licensee personally or by

registered or certified mail. The order of the board shall be final unless the licensee so charged or

complainant shall within twenty (20) days after receipt of the order file with the director of labor

and training an appeal. The appeal will be determined by the director or his or her designee. The

director may accept or reject, in whole or in part, the recommended order of the board. The order

of the director shall be final, subject to review by the courts under the Aadministrative

Pprocedures Aact, chapter 35 of title 42, and a copy of the order shall be immediately served

upon the person, firm, or corporation assessed.


 

 

 

53)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-1.2-1003

371 and 376

 

 

7-1.2-1003. Articles of merger.

     (a) Upon approval, articles of merger must be executed by each corporation by its

authorized representative and must state:

     (1) The plan of merger. ; and

     (2) If, pursuant to § 7-1.2-1005, the merger is to become effective at a time subsequent to

the issuance of the certificate of merger by the secretary of state, the date when the merger is to

become effective.

     (b) The original articles of merger must be delivered to the secretary of state. If the

secretary of state finds that the articles conform to law, and, unless the surviving corporation is a

Rhode Island corporation, that all fees and taxes have been paid, as evidenced by an appropriate

certificate of good standing issued by the Rhode Island division of taxation, the secretary of state

shall:

     (1) Endorse on the original the word "Ffiled," and the month, day, and year of the filing;

     (2) File the original in his or her office; and

     (3) Issue a certificate of merger.

     (c) The secretary of state shall deliver the certificate of merger to the surviving or new

corporation, as the case may be, or its representative.


 

 

 

 

 

 

54)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-1.2-1008

371 and 376

 

 

7-1.2-1008. Conversion of a domestic corporation to other entities.

     (a) A corporation of this state may, upon the authorization of such conversion in

accordance with this section, convert to a limited-liability company, business trust or association,

real estate investment trust, common-law trust, or any other unincorporated business or entity,

including a partnership (whether general or limited, including a registered limited-liability

partnership), or a foreign corporation.

     (b) The board of directors of the corporation that desires to convert under this section

shall adopt a resolution approving such conversion, specifying the type of entity into which the

corporation shall be converted and recommending the approval of such conversion by the

stockholders of the corporation. Such resolution shall be submitted to the stockholders of the

corporation at an annual or special meeting. Due notice of the time and purpose of the meeting

shall be mailed to each holder of stock, whether voting or nonvoting, of the corporation at the

address of the stockholder, as it appears on the records of the corporation, at least twenty (20)

days prior to the date of the meeting. At the meeting, the resolution shall be considered and a vote

taken for its adoption or rejection. If all outstanding shares of stock of the corporation, whether

voting or nonvoting, shall be voted for the adoption of the resolution, the conversion shall be

authorized.

     (c) If a corporation shall convert in accordance with this section to another entity

organized, formed, or created under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the state of Rhode Island

or to a Rhode Island unincorporated "other entity", upon payment of all fees and taxes by the

corporation, as evidenced by an appropriate certificate of good standing issued by the Rhode

Island division of taxation, the corporation shall file with the secretary of state a certificate of

conversion to non-Rhode Island entity, executed in accordance with § 7-1.2-105, that certifies:

     (1) The name of the corporation, and if it has been changed, the name under which it was

originally incorporated;

     (2) The date of filing of its original articles of incorporation with the secretary of state;

     (3) The name and jurisdiction of the entity and type of entity to which the corporation

shall be converted;

     (4) That the conversion has been approved in accordance with the provisions of this

section;

     (5) The agreement of the corporation that it may be served with process in the state of

Rhode Island in any action, suit, or proceeding for enforcement of any obligation of the

corporation arising while it was a corporation of this state, and that it irrevocably appoints the

secretary of state as its agent to accept service of process in any such action, suit, or proceeding;

and

     (6) The address to which a copy of the process referred to in subsection (c)(5) of this

section shall be mailed to it by the secretary of state. In the event of such service upon the

secretary of state in accordance with subsection (c)(5) of this section, the secretary of state shall

forthwith notify such corporation that has converted out of the state of Rhode Island by letter,

certified mail, return receipt requested, directed to such corporation that has converted out of the

state of Rhode Island at the address so specified, unless such corporation shall have designated in

writing to the secretary of state a different address for such purpose, in which case it shall be

mailed to the last address designated. Such letter shall enclose a copy of the process and any other

papers served on the secretary of state pursuant to this subsection. It shall be the duty of the

plaintiff in the event of such service to serve process and any other papers in duplicate; to notify

the secretary of state that service is being affected pursuant to this subsection; and to pay the

secretary of state the sum of fifteen dollars ($15.00) for the use of the state, which sum shall be

taxed as part of the costs in the proceeding, if the plaintiff shall prevail therein. The secretary of

state shall maintain an alphabetical record of any such service setting forth the name of the

plaintiff and the defendant; the title, docket number and nature of the proceeding in which process

 has been served; the fact that service has been effected pursuant to this subsection; the

return date thereof; and the day and hour service was made.  The secretary of state shall not be

required to retain such information longer than five (5) years from receipt of the service of

process.

     (d) Upon the filing in the office of the secretary of state of a certificate of conversion to

non-Rhode Island entity in accordance with subsection (c) of this section, or upon the future

effective date or time of the certificate of conversion to non-Rhode Island entity and payment to

the secretary of state of all fees prescribed under this title, the secretary of state shall certify that

the corporation has filed all documents and paid all fees required by this title, and thereupon the

corporation shall cease to exist as a corporation of this state at the time the certificate of

conversion becomes effective in accordance with § 7-1.2-105. Such certificate of the secretary of

state shall be prima facie evidence of the conversion by such corporation out of the state of Rhode

Island.

     (e) The conversion of a corporation out of the state of Rhode Island in accordance with

this section and the resulting cessation of its existence as a corporation of this state pursuant to a

certificate of conversion to non-Rhode Island entity shall not be deemed to affect any obligations

or liabilities of the corporation incurred prior to such conversion or the personal liability of any

person incurred prior to such conversion, nor shall it be deemed to affect the choice of law

applicable to the corporation with respect to matters arising prior to such conversion.

     (f) Unless otherwise provided in a resolution of conversion adopted in accordance with

this section, the converting corporation shall not be required to wind up its affairs or pay its

liabilities and distribute its assets, and the conversion shall not constitute a dissolution of such

corporation.

     (g) In connection with a conversion of a domestic corporation to another entity pursuant

to this section, shares of stock of the corporation of this state that is to be converted may be

exchanged for or converted into cash, property, rights or securities of, or interests in, the entity to

which the corporation of this state is being converted or, in addition to or in lieu thereof, may be

exchanged for or converted into cash, property, shares of stock, rights or securities of, or interests

in, another domestic corporation or other entity or may be cancelled.

     (h) When a corporation has been converted to another entity or business form pursuant to

this section, the other entity or business form shall, for all purposes of the laws of the state of

Rhode Island, be deemed to be the same entity as the corporation. When any conversion shall

have become effective under this section, for all purposes of the laws of the state of Rhode Island,

all of the rights, privileges, and powers of the corporation that has converted, and all property,

real, personal, and mixed, and all debts due to such corporation, as well as all other things and

causes of action belonging to such corporation, shall remain vested in the other entity or business

form to which such corporation has converted and shall be the property of such other entity or

business form, and the title to any real property vested by deed or otherwise in such corporation

shall not revert to such corporation or be in any way impaired by reason of this chapter; but all

rights of creditors and all liens upon any property of such corporation shall be preserved

unimpaired, and all debts, liabilities, and duties of the corporation that has converted shall remain

attached to the other entity or business form to which such corporation has converted, and may be

enforced against it to the same extent as if said debts, liabilities, and duties had originally been

incurred or contracted by it in its capacity as such other entity or business form. The rights,

privileges, powers, and interest in property of the corporation that has converted, as well as the

debts, liabilities, and duties of such corporation, shall not be deemed, as a consequence of the

conversion, to have been transferred to the other entity or business form to which such

corporation has converted for any purposes of the laws of the state of Rhode Island.

     (i) No vote of stockholders of a corporation shall be necessary to authorize a conversion

if no shares of the stock of such corporation shall have been issued prior to the adopting by the

board of directors of the resolution approving the conversion.


 

 

 

 

 

55)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-1.2-1301

371 and 376

 

 

7-1.2-1301. Voluntary dissolution by incorporators.

     (a) A corporation which that has not commenced business and which that has not issued

any shares, may be voluntarily dissolved by its incorporators at any time in the following manner:

     (1) Articles of dissolution are executed by a majority of the incorporators, and verified by

them, and state:

     (i) The name of the corporation.;

     (ii) The date of issuance of its certificate of incorporation.;

     (iii) That none of its shares have been issued.;

     (iv) That the corporation has not commenced business.;

     (v) That the amount, if any, actually paid in on subscriptions for its shares, less any part

of the amount disbursed for necessary expenses, has been returned to those entitled to it.;

     (vi) That no debts of the corporation remain unpaid.; and

     (vii) That a majority of the incorporators elect that the corporation be dissolved.

     (2) The original articles of dissolution are delivered to the secretary of state. If the

secretary of state finds that the articles of dissolution conform to law, the secretary of state shall,

when all fees and taxes have been paid, as evidenced by an appropriate certificate of good

standing issued by the Rhode Island division of taxation:

     (i) Endorse on the original the word "Ffiled," and the month, day, and year of the filing.;

     (ii) File the original in his or her office.; and

     (iii) Issue a certificate of dissolution.

     (3) If the corporation is dissolved prior to the effective date stated on the articles of

incorporation, no taxes shall be due.

     (b) The certificate of dissolution is delivered to the incorporators or their representative.

Upon the issuance of the certificate of dissolution by the secretary of state, the existence of the

corporation ceases.


 

 

56)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-1.2-1309

371 and 376

 

 

7-1.2-1309. Filing of articles of dissolution.

     (a) The articles of dissolution are delivered to the secretary of state. If the secretary of

state finds that the articles of dissolution conform to law, the secretary of state shall, when all fees

and taxes have been paid, as evidenced by an appropriate certificate of good standing issued by

the Rhode Island division of taxation:

     (1) Endorse on the original the word "Ffiled," and the month, day, and year of the filing.;

     (2) File the original in his or her office.; and

     (3) Issue a certificate of dissolution.

     (b) The certificate of dissolution is delivered to the representative of the dissolved

corporation. Upon the issuance of the certificate of dissolution the existence of the corporation

ceases, except for the purpose of suits, other proceedings, and appropriate corporate action by

shareholders, directors, and officers as provided in this chapter.


 

 

57)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-1.2-1310

371 and 376

 

 

7-1.2-1310. Revocation of articles of incorporation.

     (a) The articles of incorporation of a corporation may be revoked by the secretary of state

upon the conditions prescribed in this section when it is established that:

     (1) The corporation procured its articles of incorporation through fraud; or

     (2) The corporation has continued to exceed or abuse the authority conferred upon it by

law; or

     (3) The corporation has failed to file its annual report within the time required by this

chapter, or with respect to any corporation in good corporate standing on the records of the

secretary of state on or after July 1, 2019, has failed to pay any required fees to the secretary of

state when they have become due and payable, or the secretary of state has received notice from

the division of taxation, in accordance with §44-11-26.1, that the corporation has failed to pay

any corporate taxes fees, when they have become due and payable; or

     (4) The corporation has failed for thirty (30) days to appoint and maintain a registered

agent in this state as required by this chapter; or

     (5) The corporation has failed, after change of its registered office or registered agent, to

file in the office of the secretary of state a statement of the change as required by this chapter; or

     (6) The corporation has failed to file in the office of the secretary of state any amendment

to its articles of incorporation or any articles of merger within the time prescribed by this chapter;

or

     (7) A misrepresentation has been made of any material matter in any application, report,

affidavit, or other document submitted by the corporation pursuant to this chapter.

     (b) No articles of incorporation of a corporation may be revoked by the secretary of state

unless:

     (1) The secretary of state gives the corporation notice thereof not less than sixty (60) days

notice thereof prior to such revocation by regular mail addressed to the registered office of the

corporation in this state on file with the secretary of state's office, which notice shall specify the

basis for the revocation; provided, however, that if a prior mailing addressed to the registered

office of the corporation in this state currently on file with the secretary of state's office has been

returned to the secretary of state as undeliverable by the United States Postal Service for any

reason, or if the revocation notice is returned as undeliverable to the secretary of state's office by

the United States Postal Service for any reason, the secretary of state gives notice as follows:

     (i) To the corporation at its principal office of record as shown in its most recent annual

report, and no further notice is required; or

     (ii) In the case of a domestic corporation which that has not yet filed an annual report,

then to any one of the incorporators listed on the articles of incorporation, and no further notice is

required; and

     (2) The corporation fails prior to revocation to file the annual report or pay the fees, or

file the required statement of change of registered agent or registered office, or file the articles of

amendment or articles of merger, or correct the misrepresentation.


   

 

 

 

58)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-1.2-1413

371 and 376

 

 

7-1.2-1413. Filing of application for withdrawal.

     (a) An original application for withdrawal must be delivered to the secretary of state. If

the secretary of state finds that the application conforms to the provisions of this chapter, the

secretary of state shall, when all fees and taxes have been paid, as evidenced by an appropriate

certificate of good standing issued by the Rhode Island division of taxation:

     (1) Endorse on the original the word "Ffiled," and the month, day, and year of the filing.;

     (2) File the original in his or her office.; and

     (3) Issue a certificate of withdrawal.

     (b) The secretary of state shall deliver the certificate of withdrawal to the corporation or

its representative. Upon the issuance of the certificate of withdrawal, the authority of the

corporation to transact business in this state ceases.


 

 

59)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-1.2-1414

371 and 376

 

 

7-1.2-1414. Revocation of certificate of authority.

     (a) The certificate of authority of a foreign corporation to transact business in this state

may be revoked by the secretary of state under the conditions prescribed in this section when:

     (1) The corporation fails to file its annual report within the time required by this chapter,

or fails with respect to any corporation in good corporate standing on the records of the secretary

of state on or after July 1, 2019, has failed to pay any required fees to the secretary of state when

they have become due and payable, or the secretary of state has received notice from the division

of taxation, in accordance with §44-11-26.1, that the corporation has failed to pay any corporate

taxes fees, when they become due and payable; or

     (2) The corporation fails to appoint and maintain a registered agent in this state as

required by this chapter; or

     (3) The corporation fails, after changing its registered office or registered agent, to file in

the office of the secretary of state a statement of the change as required by this chapter; or

     (4) The corporation fails to file in the office of the secretary of state any amendment to its

articles of incorporation or any articles of merger within the time prescribed by this chapter; or

     (5) A misrepresentation has been made of any material matter in any application, report,

affidavit, or other document submitted by the corporation pursuant to this chapter.

     (b) No certificate of authority of a foreign corporation may be revoked by the secretary of

state unless the secretary of state has given the corporation notice thereof not less than sixty (60)

days notice thereof prior to such revocation, by regular mail addressed to the registered agent of

the corporation in this state on file with the secretary of state's office, which notice shall specify

the basis for the revocation; provided, however, that if a prior mailing addressed to the registered

office of the corporation in this state currently on file with the secretary of state's office has been

returned to the secretary of state as undeliverable by the United States Postal Service for any

reason, or if the revocation notice is returned as undeliverable to the secretary of state's office by

the United States Postal Service for any reason, the secretary of state shall give notice as follows:

     (1) To the corporation at its principal office of record as shown in its most recent annual

report, and no further notice is required; or

     (2) In the case of a foreign corporation which that has not yet filed an annual report, then

to the corporation at its principal office shown in its application for certificate of authority, and no

further notice is required.


 

 

60)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-6-74

9 and 20

 

 

7-6-74. Application by foreign corporation for certificate of authority.

     (a) A foreign corporation, in order to procure a certificate of authority to conduct affairs

in this state, shall apply for it with the secretary of state. The application shall set forth:

     (1) The name of the corporation and the state or country under the laws of which it is

incorporated.

     (2) The date of incorporation and the period of duration of the corporation.

     (3) The street address of the principal office of the corporation.

     (4) The address of the proposed registered office of the corporation in this state, and the

name of its proposed registered agent in this state at the address.

     (5) The purpose or purposes of the corporation which that it proposes to pursue in

conducting its affairs in this state.

     (6) The names and respective addresses of the directors and officers of the corporation.

     (7) The additional information as is necessary or appropriate to enable the secretary of

state to determine whether the corporation is entitled to a certificate of authority to conduct affairs in this state.

     (b) The application shall be made on forms prescribed and furnished by the secretary of

state and shall be executed in duplicate by the corporation by its president or a vice president and

by its secretary or an assistant secretary.


 

 

61)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-6-75

9 and 20

 

 

7-6-75. Filing of application by foreign corporation for certificate of authority.

     (a) The application of the corporation for a certificate of authority shall be delivered to

the secretary of state, together with a copy of its articles of incorporation and all amendments to

it, duly certified by the proper officer of the state or country under the laws of which it is

incorporated together with a certificate of good standing or legal existence issued by the proper

officer of the state or country under the laws of which it is incorporated.

     (b) If the secretary of state finds that the application conforms to law, the secretary of

state shall, when all fees have been paid as prescribed in this chapter:

     (1) Endorse on the documents the word "Filed,", and the month, day, and year of the

filing.

     (2) File in the secretary of state's office the original of the application and the copy of the

articles of incorporation and amendments to it certificate of good standing or legal existence

issued by the proper officer of the state or country under the laws of which it is incorporated.

     (3) Issue a certificate of authority to conduct affairs in this state.

     (c) The certificate of authority shall be delivered to the corporation or its representative.


 

 

62)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-6-76

9 and 20

 

 

7-6-76. Effect of certificate of authority by foreign corporation.

Upon the issuance of a certificate of authority by the secretary of state, the corporation is

authorized to conduct affairs in this state for those purposes set forth in its application, subject,

however, to the right of the state to suspend or to revoke the authority as provided in this chapter.

and would also clarify the tables of §§7-6-74, 7-6-75, and 7-6-76 to include a reference to foreign

corporations.


 

 

63)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

7-6.2

370 and 378

 

 

CHAPTER 6.2

WORKERS' COOPERATIVES


 

 

64)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-16-5.2

371 and 376

 

 

7-16-5.2. Approval of conversion of a limited-liability company.

     (a) A domestic limited-liability company may convert to a corporation, a business trust,

or association, a real estate investment trust, a common law trust, a sole proprietorship, or any

other unincorporated business or entity including a partnership, (whether general or limited,

including a registered limited-liability partnership), or a foreign limited-liability company upon

the authorization of the conversion in accordance with this section.

     (b) If the limited-liability company agreement specified the manner of authorizing a

conversion of the limited-liability company, the conversion shall be authorized as specified in the

limited-liability company agreement. If the limited-liability company agreement does not specify

the manner of authorizing a conversion of the limited-liability company and does not prohibit a

conversion of the limited-liability company, the conversion shall be authorized in the same

manner as is specified in the limited-liability company agreement for authorizing a merger or

consolidation that involves the limited-liability company as a constituent party to the merger or

consolidation. If the limited-liability company agreement does not specify the manner of

authorizing a conversion of the limited-liability company or a merger or consolidation that involves

the limited-liability company as a constituent party and does not prohibit a conversion of the

limited-liability company, the conversion shall be authorized by the approval by the members or,

if there is more than one class or group of members, then by each class or group of members, in

either case, by members who own more than fifty percent (50%) of the then-current percentage or

other interest in the profits of the domestic limited-liability company owned by all of the

members or by the members in each class or group, as appropriate.

     (c) Unless otherwise agreed, the conversion of a domestic limited-liability company to

another entity or business form pursuant to this section shall not require such limited-liability

company to wind up its affairs under § 7-16-45 or pay its liabilities and distribute its assets under

§ 7-16-46, and the conversion shall not constitute a dissolution of such limited-liability company.

When a limited-liability company has converted to another entity or business form pursuant to

this section, for all purposes of the laws of the state of Rhode Island, the other entity or business

form shall be deemed to be the same entity as the converting limited-liability company and

conversion shall constitute a continuation of the existence of the limited-liability company in the

form of such other entity or business form.

     (d) In connection with a conversion of a domestic limited-liability company to another

entity or business form pursuant to this section, rights or securities of or interests in the domestic

limited-liability company that is to be converted may be exchanged for or converted into cash,

property, rights, or securities of or interests in the entity or business form into which the domestic

limited-liability company is being converted or, in addition to or in lieu thereof, may be

exchanged for or converted into cash, property, rights, or securities of or interests in another

entity or business form or may be cancelled.

     (e) If a limited-liability company shall convert in accordance with this section to another

entity or business form organized, formed, or created under the laws of a jurisdiction other than

the state of Rhode Island or to a Rhode Island unincorporated "other entity", a certificate of

conversion to non-Rhode Island entity shall be filed in the office of the secretary of state. The

certificate of conversion to non-Rhode Island entity shall state:

     (1) The name of the limited-liability company and, if it has been changed, the name under

which its certificate of formation was originally filed;

     (2) The date of filing of its original certificate of formation with the secretary of state;

     (3) The jurisdiction in which the entity or business form, to which the limited-liability

company shall be converted, is organized, formed, or created, and the name and type of such

entity or business form;

     (4) The future effective date or time (which shall be a date or time certain) of the

conversion if it is not to be effective upon the filing of the certificate of conversion to non-Rhode

Island entity;

     (5) That the conversion has been approved in accordance with this section;

     (6) The agreement of the limited-liability company that it may be served with process in

the state of Rhode Island in any action, suit, or proceeding for enforcement of any obligation to

the limited-liability company arising while it was a limited liability company of the state of

Rhode Island, and that it irrevocably appoints the secretary of state as its agent to accept service

of process in any such action, suit, or proceeding;.

     (f) Upon the filing in the office of the secretary of state of the certificate of conversion to

non-Rhode Island entity or upon the future effective date or time of the certificate of conversion

to non-Rhode Island entity and upon payment of all fees due by the limited-liability company, as

evidenced by an appropriate certificate of good standing issued by the Rhode Island division of

taxation, the secretary of state shall certify that the limited-liability company has filed all

documents and paid all fees required by this chapter, and thereupon the limited-liability company

shall cease to exist as a limited-liability company of the state of Rhode Island. Such certificate of

the secretary of state shall be prima facie evidence of the conversion by such limited-liability

company out of the state of Rhode Island.

     (g) The conversion of a limited-liability company out of the state of Rhode Island in

accordance with this section and the resulting cessation of its existence as a limited-liability

company of the state of Rhode Island pursuant to a certificate of conversion to non-Rhode Island

entity shall not be deemed to affect any obligations or liabilities of the limited-liability company

incurred prior to such conversion or the personal liability of any person incurred prior to such

conversion, nor shall it be deemed to affect the choice of laws applicable to the limited-liability

company with respect to matters arising prior to such conversion.

     (h) When a limited-liability company has been converted to another entity or business

form pursuant to this section, the other entity or business form shall, for all purposes of the laws

of the state of Rhode Island, be deemed to be the same entity as the limited-liability company.

When any conversion shall have become effective under this section, for all purposes of the laws

of the state of Rhode Island, all of the rights, privileges, and powers of the limited-liability

company that has converted, and all property, real, personal, and mixed, and all such debts due to

such limited-liability company, as well as all other things and causes of action belonging to such

limited-liability company, shall remain vested in the other entity or business form to which such

limited-liability company has converted and shall be the property of such other entity or business

form, and the title to any real property vested by deed or otherwise in such limited-liability

company shall not revert to such limited-liability company or be in any way impaired by reason

of this chapter; but all rights of creditors and all liens upon any property of such limited-liability

company shall be preserved unimpaired, and all debts, liabilities, and duties of the limited-

liability company that has converted shall remain attached to the other entity or business form to

which such limited-liability company has converted, and may be enforced against it to the same

extent as if said debts, liabilities, and duties had originally been incurred or contracted by it in its

capacity as such other entity or business form. The rights, privileges, powers, and interests in

property of the limited-liability company that has converted, as well as the debts, liabilities, and

duties of such limited-liability company, shall not be deemed, as a consequence of the

conversion, to have been transferred to the other entity or business form to which such limited-

liability company has converted for any purpose of the laws of the state of Rhode Island.


 

 

65)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-16-8

371 and 376

 

 

7-16-8. Filing.

     (a) The secretary of state may not accept for filing any document under this chapter that

does not conform with law.

     (b) The secretary of state may not accept for filing any organizational document,

qualification, registration, change of resident agent report, service of process, notice, or other

document until all required filing and other fees have been paid to the secretary of state.

     (c) The secretary of state may not accept for filing any article of dissolution, cancellation

of registration, or article of merger, unless the surviving entity is a domestic entity of record with

the office of the secretary of state, or the reinstatement of a limited liability company's certificate

of organization or registration until all required filing and other fees have been paid to the

secretary of state and all fees and taxes have been paid, as evidenced by an appropriate certificate

of good standing issued by the Rhode Island division of taxation.

     (d) The secretary of state may not accept for filing the reinstatement of a limited-liability

company's certificate of organization or registration until all required filing and other fees have

been paid to the secretary of state and all fees and taxes have been paid, as evidenced by an

appropriate certificate of good standing issued by the division of taxation.

     (d)(e) The secretary of state may not accept for filing a certificate of conversion to a non-

Rhode Island entity until all required filing and other fees have been paid to the secretary of state

and all fees and taxes have been paid, as evidenced by an appropriate certificate of good standing

issued by the Rhode Island division of taxation.

     (e)(f) When the secretary of state accepts the articles of organization or a certificate of

registration or any other document filed under this chapter, the secretary of state shall:

     (1) Endorse on the document the date and time of its acceptance for filing;

     (2) Promptly file the document; and

     (3) Issue a certificate or other evidence that establishes:

     (i) That the document was accepted for filing by the secretary of state; and

     (ii) The date and time of the acceptance for filing.

     (f)(g) The document becomes effective upon the issuance of the certificate or other

evidence or at any later date that is set forth within the document, not more than thirty (30) days

after the filing of such document.


 

 

66)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-16-41

371 and 376

 

 

7-16-41. Revocation of certificate of organization or certificate of registration.

     (a) The certificate of organization or certificate of registration of a limited-liability

company may be revoked by the secretary of state on under the conditions prescribed in this section

when it is established that:

     (1) The limited-liability company procured its articles of organization through fraud;

     (2) The limited-liability company has continued to exceed or abuse the authority

conferred upon it by law;

     (3) The limited liability company has failed to file its annual report within the time

required by this chapter, or with respect to any limited-liability company in good company

standing on the records of the secretary of state on or after July 1, 2019, has failed to pay any

required fees to the secretary of state when they have become due and payable, or the secretary of

state has received notice from the division of taxation, in accordance with §7-16-67.1, that the

limited-liability company has failed to pay any fees or taxes due this state, when they have

become due and payable;

     (4) The limited-liability company has failed for thirty (30) days to appoint and maintain a

resident agent in this state as required by this chapter;

     (5) The limited-liability company has failed, after change of its resident agent, to file in

the office of the secretary of state a statement of the change as required by this chapter;

     (6) The limited-liability company has failed to file in the office of the secretary of state

any amendment to its articles of organization or certificate of registration or any articles of

dissolution, cancellation of registration, merger, or consolidation as prescribed by this chapter; or

     (7) A misrepresentation has been made of any material matter in any application, report,

affidavit, or other document submitted by the limited-liability company pursuant to this chapter.

     (b) No certificate of organization or certificate of registration of a limited-liability

company shall be revoked by the secretary of state unless:

     (1) The secretary of state shall have given the limited-liability company notice thereof not

less than sixty (60) days prior to such revocation notice thereof by regular mail addressed to the

resident agent in this state on file with the secretary of state's office, which notice shall specify

the basis for the revocation; provided, however, that if a prior mailing addressed to the address of

the resident agent of the limited-liability company in this state currently on file with the secretary

of state's office has been returned to the secretary of state as undeliverable by the United States

Postal Service for any reason, or if the revocation notice is returned as undeliverable to the

secretary of state's office by the United States Postal Service for any reason, the secretary of state

shall give notice as follows:

     (i) To the limited-liability company, domestic or foreign, at its principal office of record

as shown in its most recent annual report, and no further notice shall be required; or

     (ii) In the case of a limited-liability company which that has not yet filed an annual

report, then to the domestic limited-liability company at the principal office in the articles of

organization or to the authorized person listed on the articles of organization, or to the foreign

limited-liability company at the office required to be maintained by the limited-liability company

in its state of organization, and no further notice shall be required; and

     (2) The limited-liability company fails prior to revocation to file the annual report, pay

the fees or taxes, file the required statement of change of resident agent, file the articles of

amendment or amendment to its registration or articles of dissolution, cancellation of registration,

merger, or consolidation, or correct the misrepresentation.

     SECTION 3. Chapter 7-16 of the General Laws entitled "The Rhode Island Limited-

Liability Company Act" is hereby amended by adding thereto the following section:


 

 

67)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

7-16-67.1

371 and 376

 

 

7-16-67.1. Revocation of articles or authority to transact business for nonpayment of fee.

     (a) The tax administrator may, after July 15 of each year, make up a list of all limited-

liability companies which that have failed to pay the fee defined in §7-16-67 for one year after

the fee became due and payable, and the failure is not the subject of a pending appeal. The tax

administrator shall certify to the correctness of the list. Upon receipt of the certified list, the

secretary of state may initiate revocation proceedings as defined in §7-16-41.

     (b) With respect to any information provided by the division of taxation to the secretary

of state pursuant to this chapter, the secretary of state, together with the employees or agents

thereof, shall be subject to all state and federal tax confidentiality laws applying to the division of

taxation and the officers, agents, and employees thereof, and which restrict the acquisition, use,

storage, dissemination, or publication of confidential taxpayer data.


 

 

68)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

8-2-39.2

369 and 377

 

 

8-2-39.2. Drug court magistrate -- Appointment, duties and powers.

     (a) For the purposes of this chapter:

     (1) "Non-violent" means and includes all charges that are not crimes of violence, the

following being a list of all charges considered to be crimes of violence for the purposes of this

section: murder, manslaughter, first-degree arson, kidnapping with intent to extort, robbery, first-

degree sexual assault, second-degree sexual assault, first-and second-degree child molestation,

assault, assault with intent to murder, assault with intent to rob, assault with intent to commit

first-degree sexual assault, entering a dwelling house with intent to commit murder, robbery, or

sexual assault.

     (2) "Drug-addicted person" means a person who exhibits a maladaptive pattern of

behavior resulting from drug use, including one or more of the following: impaired control over

drug use; compulsive use; and/or continued use despite harm, and craving.

     (b) There is hereby created within the superior court the position of Ddrug Ccourt

Mmagistrate who shall be appointed by the presiding justice of the superior court with the advice

and consent of the senate. The persons appointed to serve as Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrates shall be

members of the bar of Rhode Island. The powers and duties of the Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate

shall be prescribed in the order appointing him or her in addition to those described herein.

     The Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate's term shall be ten (10) years and until a successor is

appointed and qualified. Nothing in this article section shall prohibit a Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate from

being reappointed for additional ten-(10) year (10) terms by the presiding justice of the superior

court with the advice and consent of the senate. He or she shall receive a salary equivalent to that

received by the special magistrate assigned to the superior court. The Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate

shall preside over the Aadult Ddrug Ccourt. The Aadult Ddrug Ccourt Pprogram shall combine

the coercive powers of the court with a therapeutic regimen in order to rehabilitate drug addicted

defendants.

     (c) The Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate shall be empowered to hear and decide as a superior

court justice all matters relating to those adult offenders who come before the jurisdiction of the

superior court on any offense relating to the offender's participation in the Aadult Ddrug Ccourt.

In addition, the Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate shall have the power to impose a period of

incarceration upon a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, and also have the power to confine any

person who has been found to be in violation of any conditions previously imposed by the

superior court.

     (d) The Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate shall make the final determination as to whether a

defendant is admitted into the program. Individuals meeting the following criteria, shall be

screened by staff working at the office of the attorney general upon the department's own

referral,; upon a request by counsel entered on behalf of a defendant; upon request by a judge of

the superior or district court, or, in the case of a person waivable by the family court, by a judge

of that court,; or the department of corrections for admittance into the Aadult Ddrug Ccourt:

     (1) The individual is charged with or convicted of an alcohol-or drug-related offense or

with an appropriate non-violent offense.

     (2) The individual has no pending charges or prior convictions for felony crimes of

violence.

     (3) The individual has no pending charges or prior convictions for delivery of a

controlled substance.

     (4) The defendant is a drug-addicted person.

     (e) All individuals accepted into Ddrug Ccourt will be bound by a Ddrug Ccourt contract,

as defined by the Aadult Ddrug Ccourt, which that sets forth the court's expectations,; the role

and responsibilities of the Ddrug Ccourt,; the conditions imposed upon and the responsibilities of

the defendant,; and the treatment plan goals and strategies. If a defendant fails to abide by the

Ddrug Ccourt conditions and orders, he or she may be terminated from the program by the Ddrug

Ccourt judge and sentenced as he or she deems appropriate.

     (f) The Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate shall be empowered to hear and decide as a superior

court justice all matters that may come before the superior court pursuant to chapter 37.1 of title

11 "Ssexual Ooffender Rregistration and Ccommunity Nnotification."

     (g) The Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate and/or the presiding justice of the superior court may

fix the venue of any person who is before the superior court as a participant in the Adult Drug

Court or who is alleged to be a sexual predator, and who has filed an objection to community

notification.

     (h) In addition, at the discretion of the presiding justice of the superior court, the drug

court magistrate shall have the duties, responsibilities, and powers authorized in subsections 8-2-

39(b), (c) and (d).

     (i) The Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate shall be governed by the commission on judicial

tenure and discipline, chapter 16 of title 8, in the same manner as justices and judges; shall be

subject to all provisions of the canons of judicial ethics or code of judicial conduct; and shall be

subject to all criminal laws relative to judges by virtue of §§ 11-7-1 and 11-7-2.

     (j) A party aggrieved by an order entered by the Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate shall be

entitled to a review of the order by a justice of the superior court. Unless otherwise provided in

the rules of procedure of the court, such review shall be on the record and appellate in nature. The

superior court shall, by rules of procedure, establish procedures for reviews of orders entered by a

Ddrug Ccourt Mmagistrate, and for enforcement of contempt adjudications of a Ddrug Ccourt

Mmagistrate.


 

 

69)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-2-39.3

342 and 353

 

 

8-2-39.3. Superior court diversion.

In accordance with §8-6-2, the superior court may create, with the approval of the

supreme court, rules for a superior court diversion program. The presiding justice may assign a

justice or magistrate to administer the diversion program, in which the defendant enters a plea to

the pending matter and agrees to written contractual conditions of diversion with the justice or

magistrate, including reporting to the court as instructed for reviews, until such time as the

defendant has completed the diversion program to the court's satisfaction and all reviews are

completed. Contractual conditions may include, but are not limited to, compliance with

counseling, community service, and restitution obligations.


 

 

70)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8-3.1

461 and 474

 

 

8-8-3.1. Equitable powers as to housing matters.

     (a) In addition to the powers heretofore exercised, the district court and any court created

by municipal ordinance pursuant to §8-8-3(a)(4) is hereby empowered, in furtherance of its

jurisdiction under § 8-8-3(a)(4), to grant such orders, including temporary restraining orders, and

preliminary and permanent injunctions as justice and equity may require.

     (b) Any court created by municipal ordinance pursuant to §8-8-3(a)(4) is hereby

empowered in furtherance of its jurisdiction to order a building into receivership pursuant to the

provisions of chapter 44 of title 34 ("abandoned property").


 

 

71)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.1-3

374 and 385

 

 

8-8.1-3. Protective orders -- Penalty – Jurisdiction.

     (a) A person suffering from domestic abuse may file a complaint in the district court

requesting any order which will protect her or him from the abuse, including but not limited to the following:

     (1) Ordering that the defendant be restrained and enjoined from contacting, assaulting,

molesting, or otherwise interfering with the plaintiff at home, on the street, or elsewhere, whether

the defendant is an adult or minor;

     (2) Ordering the defendant to vacate the household forthwith, unless the defendant holds

sole legal interest in the household;

     (3) Upon motion by the plaintiff, his or her address shall be released only at the discretion

of the district court judge;

     (4) Ordering the defendant to surrender physical possession of all firearms in their his or her

possession, care, custody, or control and shall further order a person restrained not to purchase or

receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, any firearms while the protective order is in effect. The

defendant shall surrender said firearms within twenty-four (24) hours of notice of the protective

order to the Rhode Island state police or local police department or to a federally licensed

firearms dealer.

     (i) A person ordered to surrender possession of any firearm(s) pursuant to this section

shall, within seventy-two (72) hours after being served with the order, either:

     (A) File with the court a receipt showing the firearm(s) was physically surrendered to the

Rhode Island state police or local police department, or to a federally licensed firearm dealer; or

     (B) Attest to the court that, at the time of the order, the person had no firearms in their his or her

immediate physical possession or control, or subject to their immediate physical possession or

control, and that the person, at the time of the attestation, has no firearms in their his or her

immediate physical possession or control or subject to their his or her immediate physical

possession or control.

     (ii) If a person restrained under this section transfers a firearm(s) to a federally licensed

firearms dealer pursuant to this section, the person restrained under this section may instruct the

federally licensed firearms dealer to sell the firearm(s) or to transfer ownership in accordance

with state and federal law, to a qualified named individual who is not a member of the person's

dwelling house, who is not related to the person by blood, marriage, or relationship as defined by

§15-15-1(3) (7), and who is not prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The

owner of any firearm(s) sold shall receive any financial value received from their its sale, less the

cost associated with taking possession of, storing, and transferring of the firearm(s).

     (iii) Every individual to whom possession of a firearm(s) is transferred pursuant to this

subsection shall be prohibited from transferring or returning any firearm(s) to the person

restrained under this section while the protective order remains in effect and shall be informed of

this prohibition. Any knowing violation of this subsection is a felony which that shall be

punishable by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by imprisonment for a

term of not less than one year and not more than five (5) years, or both.

     (iv) An individual to whom possession of a firearm(s) is transferred pursuant to this

subsection shall return a firearm(s) to the person formerly restrained under this section only if the

person formerly restrained under this section provides documentation issued by a court indicating

that the restraining order issued pursuant to this section that prohibited the person from

purchasing, carrying, transporting, or possessing firearms has expired and has not been extended.

     (4)(b) After notice to the respondent and after a hearing, which shall be held within

fifteen (15) days of surrendering said firearms, the court , in addition to any other restrictions,

may, for any protective order issued or renewed on or after July 1, 2017, continue the order the

defendant to of surrender physical possession of all firearms in his or her possession, care,

custody or control, and shall further order a person restrained under this section not to purchase or

receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, any firearms while the protective order is in effect.

     (b) Any individual who accepts physical possession of a firearm pursuant to this section

is prohibited from returning any firearm to any defendant under a restraining order during the

existence of the restraining order. Violation of this provision shall subject both the defendant and

the individual responsible for the return of the firearm to the defendant, to being found in

contempt of court.

     (c) The district court shall provide a notice on all forms requesting a protective order that,

at the hearing for a protective order, the defendant may a person restrained under this section

shall be ordered pursuant to §11-47-5, to surrender possession or control of any firearms and not

to purchase or receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, any firearms for a period not to exceed

the duration of the while the restraining order is in effect. The form shall further provide that any

person who has surrendered their firearms shall be afforded a hearing within fifteen (15) days of

surrendering their firearms.

     (d) If the defendant is present in court at a duly noticed hearing, the court may, in

addition to any other restrictions, order the defendant to physically surrender any firearm(s) in

that person's immediate physical possession or control, or subject to that person's immediate

physical possession or control, within twenty-four (24) hours of the order, by surrendering the

possession of the firearm(s) to the control of any individual not legally prohibited from

possessing a firearm who is not related to the defendant by blood, marriage, or relationship as

defined by § 15-15-1(3), (4), or (5) of the Rhode Island general laws, or by surrendering any

firearm(s) to the Rhode Island state police or local police department, or by surrendering the

firearm(s) to a licensed gun dealer. If the defendant is not present at the hearing, the defendant

shall surrender the firearm(s) within forty-eight (48) hours after being served with the order. A

person ordered to surrender possession of any firearm(s) pursuant to this subsection shall file with

the court a receipt showing the firearm(s) was either physically surrendered to an individual not

legally prohibited from possessing a firearm who is not related to the defendant by blood,

marriage, or relationship as defined by § 15-15-1(3), (4), or (5) or surrender to a licensed gun

dealer within seventy-two (72) hours after receiving the order. Any defendant transporting a

firearm to surrender in accordance with the above shall not be liable to prosecution under § 11-

47-8.

     Any firearm surrendered in accordance with this section to the Rhode Island state police

or local police department shall be returned to the person formerly restrained under this section

upon their request when:

     (1) The person formerly restrained under this section produces documentation issued by a

court indicating that the restraining order issued pursuant to this section that prohibited the person

from purchasing, carrying, transporting, or possessing firearms has expired and has not been

extended; and

     (2) The law enforcement agency in possession of the firearms determines that the person

formerly restrained under this section is not otherwise prohibited from possessing a firearm under

state or federal law.

     (3) The person required to surrender their his or her firearms pursuant to this section

shall not be responsible for any costs of storage of any firearms surrendered pursuant to this

section.

     (e) The Rhode Island state police are authorized to develop rules and procedures

pertaining to the storage and return of firearms surrendered to the Rhode Island state police or

local police departments pursuant to this section. The Rhode Island state police may consult with

the Rhode Island Police Chiefs' Association in developing rules and procedures.

     (f) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit, expand, or in any way modify

orders issued under §§12-29-4 or 15-5-19.

     (e)(g) Nothing in this section shall limit a defendant's right under existing law to petition

the court at a later date for modification of the order.

(h) The court shall immediately notify the person suffering from domestic abuse whose

complaint gave rise to the protective order and the law enforcement agency where the person

restrained under this section resides of the hearing.

(i) The person suffering from domestic abuse, local law enforcement, and the person

restrained under this section shall all have an opportunity to be present and to testify when the

court considers the petition.

(j) At the hearing, the person restrained under this section shall have the burden of

showing, by clear and convincing evidence, that, if their his or her firearm rights were restored,

They he or she would not pose a danger to the person suffering from domestic abuse or to any other person.

     (1) In determining whether to restore a person's firearm rights, the court shall examine all

relevant evidence, including, but not limited to: the complaint seeking a protective order; the

criminal record of the person restrained under this section; the mental health history of the person

restrained under this section; any evidence that the person restrained under this section has, since

being served with the order, engaged in violent or threatening behavior against the person

suffering from domestic abuse or any other person.

     (2) If the court determines, after a review of all relevant evidence and after all parties

have had an opportunity to be heard, that the person restrained under this section would not pose

a danger to the person suffering from domestic abuse or to any other person if their his or her

firearm rights were restored, then the court may grant the petition and modify the protective order

and lift the firearm prohibition.

     (3) If the court lifts a person's firearms prohibition pursuant to this subsection, the court

shall issue the person written notice that they are he or she is no longer prohibited under this

section from purchasing or possessing firearms while the protective order is in effect.

     (f)(k) The prohibition against possessing a firearm(s) due solely to the existence of a

domestic violence restraining order issued under this section shall not apply with respect to sworn

peace officers as defined in § 12-7-21 and active members of military service, including members

of the reserve components thereof, who are required by law or departmental policy to carry

departmental firearms while on duty or any person who is required by their his or her

employment to carry a firearm in the performance of their his or her duties. Any individual

exempted pursuant to this exception may possess a firearm only during the course of their his or

her employment. Any firearm required for employment must be stored at the place of

employment when not being possessed for employment use; all other firearm(s) must be

surrendered in accordance with § 8-8.1-3 this section.

     (g)(l) Any violation of the aforementioned protective order shall subject the defendant to

being found in contempt of court.

     (h)(m) No order shall issue under this section which that would have the effect of

compelling a defendant who has the sole legal interest in a residence to vacate that residence.

     (i)(n) The contempt order shall not be exclusive and shall not preclude any other

available civil or criminal remedies. Any relief granted by the court shall be for a fixed period of

time not to exceed three (3) years, at the expiration of which time the court may extend any order

upon motion of the plaintiff for such additional time as it deems necessary to protect the plaintiff

from abuse. The court may modify its order at any time upon motion of either party.

     (j)(o) Any violation of a protective order under this chapter of which the defendant has

actual notice shall be a misdemeanor which that shall be punished by a fine of no more than one

thousand dollars ($1,000) or by imprisonment for not more than one year, or both.

     (k)(p) The penalties for violation of this section shall also include the penalties provided

under § 12-29-5.

     (l)(q) "Actual notice" means that the defendant has received a copy of the order by

service thereof or by being handed a copy of the order by a police officer pursuant to § 8-8.1-5(d).

     (m)(r) The district court shall have criminal jurisdiction over all violations of this chapter.


 

 

72)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

8-15-9.3

65 and 70

 

 

8-15-9.3. Public inspection of court payments owed.

     (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the director of the finance section on a

quarterly basis shall prepare a list of the one hundred (100) delinquent persons who owe the

largest amount of court-imposed or court-related fees, fines, court costs, assessments, charges,

and/or any other monetary obligations due and owing to the state which that have been unpaid

for a period in excess of ninety (90) days from the date that any such amounts were due and are

not the subject of a court-ordered payment plan in good standing. (The above fees are hereinafter

referred to as "Ooverdue Ccourt Ffees".) The list shall contain the name, city or town, and state of

each person who owes Ooverdue Ccourt Ffees as of the end of the quarter, together with the total

amount owed, and the date of disposition. No person owing Ooverdue Ccourt Ffees shall be

included on such list if the underlying matter in which Ooverdue Ccourt Ffees were imposed, or

the amount of the fees, is the subject of an appeal.

     (b) [Deleted by P.L. 2016, ch. 35, § 1 and P.L. 2016, ch. 36, § 1].

     (c) Any such list prepared by the director of finance shall be available to the public for

inspection and shall be published on the website that is maintained by the courts; provided,

however, that any such list prepared by the director shall not include any individual's social

security number or driver's license number.


  

 

73)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers

 

9-8-3

66 and 71

 

 

9-8-3. Dismissal for lack of prosecution.

     (a) The supreme court, the superior court, the family court, or the district court, or the

traffic tribunal, may, at any time, in its discretion, dismiss actions at law and other proceedings

for lack of prosecution which that have been pending for five (5) years or more, after notice and

opportunity for hearing.

     (b) Notice that an action or proceeding will be in order for dismissal on a day certain

shall be given by the moving party (or by the clerk if upon the court's own motion) by mailing

written notice to the attorney of record, or if there is no attorney of record or the attorney has is

deceased, then to the party if his or her address appears in the papers of the case. In the event

there is no attorney of record, or he or she is deceased, and the address of the party is unknown,

notice may be given by insertion of a newspaper advertisement published in a daily newspaper

which that has circulation in the county or district where the action was instituted, at least once.

A certificate of the notice given shall be placed in the papers by the clerk.


 

 

74)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

9-8-5

66 and 71

 

 

9-8-5. Annual action by court.

     (a) Thereafter, during the first week in February in each year, or as soon as thereafter is

practicable, all actions at law, and other proceedings designated by the respective courts, deemed

by the court to be inactive and then pending in the supreme court, the superior court, the family

court, or the district court, or the traffic tribunal, for five (5) years or more, may be dismissed for

lack of prosecution, without costs. Entries of such dismissals shall be made as of course by the

clerk, upon order of the chief justice, presiding justice, or chief judges, or chief magistrate, of the

respective courts, after notice has been duly given of the date upon which the cases will stand

dismissed. The notice shall be given once a week for two (2) successive weeks at least three (3)

weeks before the date in a newspaper having general circulation in the county or district where

the action is pending.

     (b) Upon the date any party desiring to be heard in opposition to dismissal of a case in

which he or she appears may appear before the respective court (in the superior court before the

presiding justice) and be heard thereon, and the court may in its discretion dismiss or stay

dismissal of the case for such period as it may fix. Extensions of the period may also be granted.

Any adversary party shall not be thereby prevented from making a special motion for dismissal

within the period so fixed or extended.


 

 

75)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

10-9.1-9

72 and 101

 

 

10-9.1-9. Review.

     An aggrieved party may seek seeking review of a final judgment entered in a proceeding

brought under this chapter shall do so by filing a petition for writ of certiorari in accordance with

the supreme court rules of appellate procedure within sixty (60) days of the entry of the final

judgment.


 

 

76)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-5-2

344 and 354

 

 

11-5-2. Felony assault.

     (a) Every person who shall make an assault or battery, or both, with a dangerous weapon,

or with acid or other dangerous substance, or by fire, or an assault or battery which that results in

serious bodily injury, shall be guilty of a felony assault. If such assault results in serious bodily

injury, it shall be punished by imprisonment for not more than twenty (20) years. Every other

felony assault which results in bodily injury or no injury shall be punished by imprisonment for

not more than six (6) years.

     (b) Where the provisions of "The Domestic Violence Prevention Act", chapter 29 of title

12, are applicable, the penalties for violation of this section shall also include the penalties as

provided in § 12-29-5.

     (c) "Serious bodily injury" means physical injury that:

     (1) Creates a substantial risk of death;

     (2) Causes protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily part, member, or

organ; or

     (3) Causes serious permanent disfigurement or circumcises, excises, or infibulates the

whole or any part of the labia majora or labia minora or clitoris of a person.

     (d) "Bodily injury" means physical injury that causes physical pain, illness, or any

impairment of physical condition.

     SECTION 2. Section 11-41-5 of the General Laws in Chapter 11-41 entitled "Theft,

Embezzlement, False Pretenses, and Misappropriation" is hereby amended to read as follows:


 

 

77)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-9-9

157 and 163

 

 

11-9-9. Powers of family court.

Where in §§ 11-9-1 -- 11-9-8 any authority is vested in any court, the authority vested in

the court or courts mentioned is transferred to the family court. The family court shall have

exclusive original jurisdiction over any and all complaints and offenses set forth in §§ 11-9-1 --

11-9-8, 11-9-12, 11-9-14, and 11-9-15, and shall have the authority to impose sentence as set

forth in chapter 1 of title 14. Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, jurisdiction for

violations of §§ 11-9-1, 11-9-1.1, 11-9-1.2, 11-9-1.3, 11-9-1.5, 11-9-5.3 shall be vested in the

superior court.


 

 

78)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-9-13.10

409 and 426

 

 

11-9-13.10. Prohibition on the distribution of free tobacco products.

     The distribution of free tobacco products and electronic nicotine-delivery systems or

coupons or vouchers redeemable for free tobacco or electronic nicotine-delivery system products

to any person under eighteen (18) years of age shall be prohibited. Further, the distribution of free

tobacco products or electronic nicotine-delivery systems or coupons or vouchers redeemable for

free tobacco or electronic nicotine-delivery systems products shall be prohibited, regardless of the

age of the person to whom the products, coupons, or vouchers are distributed, within five hundred

(500) feet of any school. The attorney general, or any local or state of Rhode Island police

department, or their officer or agents, shall bring an action for any violation of this section. Every

separate, free tobacco product or electronic nicotine-delivery system or coupon or voucher

redeemable for a free tobacco or electronic nicotine-delivery system or product in violation of this

section shall constitute a separate offense subject to a fine of five hundred dollars ($500). The

penalty shall be assessed against the business or individual responsible for initiating the Rhode

Island distribution of the free tobacco products or electronic nicotine-delivery systems or coupons

or vouchers redeemable for free tobacco products or electronic nicotine-delivery systems.


 

 

79)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-9-13.13

409 and 425

 

 

11-9-13.13. Nature and size of penalties.

     (a) Any person or individual who violates a requirement of § 11-9-13.6(2), display of

specific signage, shall be subject to a fine in court of not less than thirty-five dollars ($35.00), nor

more than five hundred dollars ($500), per civil violation.

     (b) The license holder is responsible for all violations of this section that occur at the

location for which the license is issued. Any license holder who or that violates the prohibition of

§ 11-9-13.8(1) and/or (2) or §11-9-13.20 shall be subject to civil fines as follows:

     (1) A fine of two hundred fifty dollars ($250) for the first violation within any thirty-six-

month (36) period;

     (2) A fine of five hundred dollars ($500) for the second violation within any thirty-six-

month (36) period;

     (3) A fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000) and a fourteen-day (14) suspension of the

license to sell tobacco products or electronic nicotine-delivery systems for the third violation

within any thirty-six-month (36) period;

     (4) A fine of one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500) and a ninety-day (90)

suspension of the license to sell tobacco products or electronic nicotine-delivery systems for each

violation in excess of three (3).

     (c) Any person who or that violates a prohibition of § 11-9-13.8(3), sale of single

cigarettes; § 11-9-13.8(2), regarding factory-wrapped packs; shall be subject to a penalty of five

hundred dollars ($500) for each violation.

     (d) The department of taxation and/or the department of health shall not issue a license to

any individual, business, firm, association, or corporation, the license of which has been revoked

or suspended,; to any corporation, an officer of which has had his or her license revoked or

suspended,; or to any individual who is, or has been, an officer of a corporation the license of

which has been revoked or suspended so long as such revocations or suspensions are in effect.

     (e) The court shall suspend the imposition of a license suspension of the license secured

from the Rhode Island tax administrator for violation of subdivisions subsections (b)(3) and

(b)(4) of this section if the court finds that the license holder has taken measures to prevent the

sale of tobacco and/or electronic nicotine-delivery systems to minors and the license holder can

demonstrate to the court that those measures have been taken and that employees have received

training. No person shall sell tobacco products and/or electronic nicotine-delivery system

products at retail without first being trained in the legal sale of tobacco and/or electronic nicotine-

delivery system products. Training shall teach employees what constitutes a tobacco and/or

electronic nicotine-delivery system product; legal age of purchase; acceptable identification; how

to refuse a direct sale to a minor or secondary sale to an adult; and all applicable laws on tobacco

sales and distribution. Dealers shall maintain records indicating that the provisions of this section

were reviewed with all employees who conduct, or will conduct, tobacco and/or electronic

nicotine-delivery systems sales. Each employee who sells or will sell tobacco and/or electronic

nicotine-delivery system products shall sign an acknowledgement form attesting that the

provisions of this section were reviewed with him or her. Each form shall be maintained by the

retailer for as long as the employee is so employed and for no less than one year after termination

of employment. The measures to prevent the sale of tobacco and/or electronic nicotine-delivery

systems to minors shall be defined by the department of behavioral healthcare, developmental

disabilities and hospitals in rules and regulations.


 

 

 80)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-9-13.16

409 and 426

 

 

11-9-13.16. Rules and regulations.

The department of mental health, retardation and hospitals behavioral healthcare,

developmental disabilities and hospitals shall promulgate the rules and regulations necessary to

fulfill the intent of §§ 11-9-13.2 -- 11-9-13.19 11-9-13.20.


 

 

81)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-9-13.17

409 and 426

 

 

11-9-13.17. Fines collected.

     (a) One-half (1/2) of all the fines collected pursuant to §§ 11-9-13.2 -- 11-9-13.19 11-9-

13.20 shall be transferred to the municipalities in which the citation originated.

     (b) One-half (1/2) of all the fines collected pursuant to §§ 11-9-13.2 -- 11-9-13.19 11-9-

13.20 shall be transferred to the general fund.


 

 

82)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

11-9-13.20

409 and 426

 

 

11-9-13.20. Packaging of electronic nicotine-delivery system liquid.

     (a) No liquid, whether or not such liquid contains nicotine, that is intended for human

consumption and used in an electronic nicotine-delivery system, as defined in §11-9-13.4, shall

be sold unless the liquid is contained in child-resistant packaging.

     (b) Any liquid nicotine container that is sold at retail in this state must satisfy the child-

resistant effectiveness standards set forth in 16 C.F.R. §1700.15(b), when tested in accordance

with the method described in 16 C.F.R. §1700.20. All licensees under §23-1-56 shall ensure that

any liquid sold by the licensee intended for human consumption and used in an electronic-

nicotine delivery system, as defined in §11-9-13.4, is sold in a liquid nicotine container that meets

the requirements described and referenced in this subsection.

     (c) For the purposes of this section, "liquid nicotine container" means a bottle or other

container of a liquid or other substance where the liquid or substance is sold, marketed, or

intended for use in a vapor product. A "liquid nicotine container" does not include a liquid or

other substance in a cartridge that is sold, marketed, or intended for use in a vapor product,

provided that such cartridge is prefilled and sealed by the manufacturer, and not intended to be

opened by the consumer.

     (d) Any licensee or any person required to be licensed under §23-1-56 who or that fails

to comply with this section shall be subject to the penalties provided in §11-9-13.13.

     (e) The licensee is responsible for all violations of this section that occur at the location

for which the license is issued.

     (f) No licensee or person shall be found in violation of this section if the licensee or

person relied in good faith on documentation provided by or attributed to the manufacturer of the

packaging of the aforementioned liquid that such packaging meets the requirements of this

section.


 

 

84)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

11-18-34

133 and 146

 

 

11-18-34. Residential Mortgage Fraud.

     (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:

     (1) "Mortgage lending process" means the process through which a person seeks or

obtains a residential mortgage loan including, but not limited to, solicitation, application, or

origination, negotiation of terms, real estate appraisals and surveys, third-party provider services,

underwriting, signing and closing, and funding of the loan.

     (2) "Pattern of residential mortgage fraud" means one or more violations of subsection

(b)(l) or (b)(2) of this section that involve two (2) or more residential mortgage loans and that

have the same or similar intents, results, accomplices, or methods of commission or otherwise

result from comparable actions or omissions.

     (3) "Person" means an individual, corporation, company, limited liability company,

partnership, trustee, association, or any other entity.

     (4) "Residential mortgage loan" means a loan or agreement to extend credit made to a

person, which loan is secured by a deed to secure debt, security deed, mortgage, security interest,

deed of trust, promissory note, or any other document representing a security interest or lien upon

any interest in a one-to four(4)-family-(4)residential property including the renewal, modification,

or refinancing of any such loan.

     (5) "Victim" means a person who experienced personal loss, including, but not limited to

monetary loss, due to a violation of subsection (b) of this section.

     (b) A person commits residential mortgage fraud when, with the intent to defraud, such

person:

     (1) Knowingly makes an omission of a material fact or a written misrepresentation or

misstatement of a material fact during the mortgage lending process with the intention that a

mortgage lender, a borrower, or any other person who or that is involved in the mortgage lending

process will rely on the absence of such material fact or the making of such material

misrepresentation or misstatement; or

     (2) Knowingly uses or facilitates the use, or attempts to use or facilitate the use, of any

omission of a material fact or written misrepresentation or misstatement of a material fact during

the mortgage lending process with the intention that a mortgage lender, a borrower, or any other

person who or that is involved in the mortgage lending process will rely on the absence of such

material fact or the making of such material misrepresentation or misstatement; or

     (3) Knowingly receives, or attempts to receive, proceeds or any other funds in

connection with a residential mortgage transaction that resulted from an act or acts constituting a

violation of subsection (b)(l) or (b)(2) of this section; or

     (4) Conspires with or solicits another to engage in an act or acts constituting a violation

of subsection (b)(l) or (b)(2) of this section; or

     (5) Files, or causes to be filed, with a city or town clerk any document involved in the

mortgage lending process that the person knows to contain an omission of a material fact or a

written misrepresentation or misstatement of a material fact.

     (c) Any person who violates this section, upon conviction, shall be subject to the

following penalties:

     (1) Any person who commits an offense under subsection (b) of this section shall be

guilty of a felony and subject to imprisonment for not more than ten (10) years, a fine of not more

than ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or both.

     (2) Any person who engages or participates in a pattern of residential mortgage fraud, or

conspires or endeavors to engage or participate in a pattern of residential mortgage fraud, shall be

guilty of a felony and subject to imprisonment for not more than twenty (20) years, a fine of not

more than one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000), or both.

     (3) Any person who commits an offense and knew that the victim was vulnerable due to

age, disability, infirmity, reduced physical or mental capacity, or national origin shall be guilty of

a felony and subject to imprisonment for not more than fifteen (15) years, a fine of not more than

fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000), or both.

     (4) The court shall order restitution to any victim.

     (5) In addition to any criminal penalties above, any person found in violation of this

section shall forfeit anything of value received by them in the course of such violation, less any

restitution they actually paid pursuant to subsection (c)(4) of this section. Action for recovery of

these amounts shall be brought in the superior court of any county in which any element of the

crime occurred. The actions shall be brought in the name of the state by the attorney general for

the benefit and use of the state.

     (d) It shall be sufficient in any prosecution for residential mortgage fraud to show that the

party accused did the act with the intent to defraud. It shall be unnecessary to show that any

particular person was harmed financially in the transaction or that the person to whom the

material misstatement, misrepresentation, or omission was made relied upon the misstatement,

misrepresentation, or omission.


 

 

85)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-2

232 and 260

 

 

11-37.1-2. Definitions.

     (a) "Aggravated offense" means, and includes, offenses involving sexual penetration of

victims of any age through the use of force, or the threat of use of force, or offenses involving

sexual penetration of victims who are fourteen (14) years of age or under.

     (b) "Board", "board of review", or "sex offender board of review" means the sex offender

board of review appointed by the governor pursuant to § 11-37.1-6.

     (c) (1) "Conviction" or "convicted" means, and includes, any instance where:

     (i) A judgment of conviction has been entered against any person for any offense

specified in subsection (e) or (k), regardless of whether an appeal is pending; or

     (ii) There has been a finding of guilty for any offense specified in subsection (e) or (k),

regardless of whether an appeal is pending; or

     (iii) There has been a plea of guilty or nolo contendere for any offense specified in

subsection (e) or (k), regardless of whether an appeal is pending; or

     (iv) There has been an admission of sufficient facts or a finding of delinquency for any

offense specified in subsection (e) or (k), regardless of whether or not an appeal is pending.

     (2) Provided, in the event that a conviction, as defined in this subsection, has been

overturned, reversed, or otherwise vacated, the person who was the subject of the conviction shall

no longer be required to register as required by this chapter and any records of a registration shall

be destroyed. Provided, further, that nothing in this section shall be construed to eliminate a

registration requirement of a person who is again convicted of an offense for which registration is

required by this chapter.

     (d) [Deleted by P.L. 2003, ch. 162, § 1 and by P.L. 2003, ch. 170, § 1].

     (e) "Criminal offense against a victim who is a minor" means, and includes, any of the

following offenses or any offense in another jurisdiction that is substantially the equivalent of the

following or for which the person is or would be required to register under 42 U.S.C. § 14071 or

18 U.S.C. § 4042(c):

     (1) Kidnapping or false imprisonment of a minor, in violation of §§ 11-26-1.4, 11-26-1 or

11-26-2, where the victim of the offense is sixteen (16) years of age or older and under the age of

eighteen (18) years;

     (2) Enticement of a child in violation of § 11-26-1.5 with the intent to violate §§ 11-37-6,

11-37-8, 11-37-8.1, 11-37-8.3;

     (3) Any violation of §§ 11-37-6, 11-37-8, 11-37-8.1, or 11-37-8.3;

     (4) Any violation of § 11-1-10, where the underlying offense is a violation of chapter 34

of this title and the victim, or person solicited to commit the offense, is under the age of eighteen

(18) years;

     (5) Any violation of § 11-9-1(b) or (c);

     (6) Any violation of § 11-9-1.3;

     (7) Any violation of § 11-9-1.5;

     (8) Any violation of § 11-37.1-10;

     (9) Any violation of § 11-37-8.8;

     (10) Any violation of § 11-64-2, where the victim is under the age of eighteen (18) years;

     (11) Murder in violation of § 11-23-1, where the murder was committed in the

perpetration of, or attempted perpetration of, kidnapping and where the victim of the offense is

under eighteen (18) years of age; or

     (12) Any violation of § 11-67-6 Any violation of §§11-67-6, 11-67.1-3(b), 11-67.1-4(b),

11-67.1-5(c), 11-67.1-6(b), or 11-67.1-7(b).

     (f) "Designated state law enforcement agency" means the attorney general, or his or her

designee.

     (g) "Employed, carries on a vocation" means and includes the definition of "employed,

carries on a vocation" under 42 U.S.C. § 14071.

     (h) "Institutions of higher education" means any university, two- or four-year (2 or 4)

college or community college.

     (i) "Mental abnormality" means a congenital or acquired condition of a person that affects

the emotional or volitional capacity of the person in a manner that predisposes that person to the

commission of criminal sexual acts to a degree that makes the person a menace to the health and

safety of other persons.

     (j) "Predator" means a person whose act(s) is (are) or was (were) directed at a stranger, or

at a person with whom a relationship has been established or promoted for the primary purpose of

victimization.

     (k) "Sexually violent offense" means, and includes, any violation of §§ 11-37-2, 11-37-4,

11-37-6, 11-37-8, 11-37-8.1, 11-37-8.3, 11-67-2 (where the victim was subject to commercial

sexual activity), 11-67-3(a), 11-67-3(b) (where the victim was subject to commercial sexual

activity), 11-67.1-3(c) (where the victim was subject to sexual servitude), 11-67.1-5(d), 11-67.1-

6(c); or 11-5-1, where the specified felony is sexual assault; or § 11-23-1, where the murder was

committed in the perpetration of, or attempted perpetration of, rape or any degree of sexual

assault or child molestation; or any offense in another jurisdiction that is substantially the

equivalent of any offense listed in this subsection or for which the person is or would be required

to register under 42 U.S.C. § 14071 or 18 U.S.C. § 4042(c).

     (l) "Sexually violent predator" means a person who has been convicted of a sexually

violent offense and who has a mental abnormality or personality disorder that makes the person

likely to engage in predatory sexually violent offenses.

     (m) "Student" means, and includes, the definition of "student" under 42 U.S.C. § 14071.

     (n) "Parole board" means the parole board or its designee.


 

 

86)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-11

339 and 348

 

 

11-37.1-11. Release of information.

     (a) Except as otherwise provided by this chapter or as provided in subsections (b) or (c)

of this section, no information obtained under this chapter shall be released or transferred without

the written consent of the person or his or her authorized representative.

     (b) No consent for release or transfer of information obtained under this chapter shall be

required in the following instances:

     (1) Information may be disclosed to law enforcement agencies for law enforcement

purposes;

     (2) Information may be disclosed to government agencies conducting confidential

background checks;

     (3) The designated law enforcement agency and any local law enforcement agency

authorized by the state agency may release relevant information that is necessary to protect

individuals concerning a specific person required to register under this chapter, except that the

identity of a victim of an offense that requires registration under this section shall not be released;

     (4) Information may be released or disseminated in accordance with the provisions of §

11-37.1-12; and

     (5) Information shall be disclosed by the local police department to the general public in

a city or town for those registered offenders determined to be either a level 2 or level 3 offender

as determined consistent with parole board guidelines. ; and

     (6) Information shall be disclosed by the local police department to the local school

department for those registered offenders determined to be level 3 offenders by the parole board

for the purposes of notifying parents of students whose school bus stop is within one thousand

feet (1,000') of a level 3 sex offender's residence, which distance shall be measured from the

nearest boundary line of the real property supporting the residence of the level 3 sex offender to

the school bus stop.

     (c) Any local law enforcement agency shall release relevant information collected

pursuant to § 11-37.1-3(c) to any campus police agency appointed pursuant to § 16-15-2  16-52-2 or police

for private institutions appointed pursuant to § 12-2.1-1 for any person having a duty to register

who is enrolled in, employed by or carrying on a vocation at an institution of higher education.

That agency may release relevant information that is necessary to protect individuals concerning

a specific person required to register under this chapter, except that the identity of a victim of an

offense that requires registration under this section shall not be released.


 

 

87)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-21

233 and 325

 

 

11-37.1-21. Duty of shelters and homeless shelters to notify law enforcement of the

presence of sex offenders.

     (a) If any person convicted of any offense that requires sex offender registration pursuant

to this title, or otherwise has a duty to register their his or her address with the law enforcement

agency in the municipality in which they reside, is provided residence in any homeless shelter,

that person shall be required to inform the shelter of their his or her status and duty to register

and to provide their his or her name and date of birth to each shelter or homeless shelter where

they he or she resides overnight.

     (b) The obligation of the sex offender to provide the information required in subsection

(a) of this section, shall be on a continuing daily and nightly basis and they he or she shall

provide said information to each and every shelter or homeless shelter at which they he or she

takes up temporary residence regardless of the length of time they he or she stays at such shelter.

     (c) The homeless shelter that receives information from any sex offender shall be

required to transmit that information to the local law enforcement agency and if there be none, to

the closest Rhode Island state police barracks before midnight of that day of the offender

registering or signing in for the day, night, or any portion of a day.

     (d) Any homeless shelter that violates the provisions of this section shall upon a first

violation, be fined a civil penalty of up to five hundred dollars ($500),; for a second violation, by

a civil penalty of up to one thousand dollars ($1,000); and for a third or subsequent violation, by a

civil penalty of up to five thousand dollars ($5,000).

     (e) Jurisdiction over any violation by a homeless shelter shall be in the Ddistrict Ccourt

in the county in which the shelter is physically located.

     (f) Any sex offender who fails to disclose information as required by this chapter shall be

subject to the same penalties as set forth in §11-37.1-10.


 

 

88)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-41-5

344 and 354

 

 

11-41-5. Penalties for larceny.

     (a) Any person convicted of any offense under §§ 11-41-1 -- 11-41-6, except § 11-41-3,

if shall be punished as follows, according to the value of the property or money stolen, received,

embezzled, fraudulently appropriated, converted, or obtained, received, taken, or secreted by false

pretenses or otherwise with intent to cheat, defraud, embezzle, or fraudulently convert:

     (1) If the value exceeds one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500), and is less than five

thousand dollars ($5,000), by imprisonment for not more than three (3) years or by a fine of not

more than one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500), or both;

     (2) If the value exceeds five thousand dollars ($5,000), but is less than ten thousand

dollars ($10,000), by imprisonment for not more than six (6) years or by a fine of not more than

three thousand dollars ($3,000), or both; and

     (3) If the value exceeds ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or if the property is a firearm as

defined in § 11-47-5.1, regardless of its value, the person shall be punished by imprisonment for

not more than ten (10) years or by a fine of not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000), or both.

If the value of the property or money does not exceed one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500),

the person shall be punished by imprisonment for not more than one year, or by a fine of not more

than five hundred dollars ($500), or both. Any person convicted of an offense under § 11-41-2

who shall be found to have knowingly obtained the property from a person under eighteen (18)

years of age, notwithstanding the value of the property or money, shall be punished by

imprisonment for not more than ten (10) years or by a fine of not more than five thousand dollars

($5,000), or both.

     (b) Any person convicted of an offense in violation of §§ 11-41-1 -- 11-41-7, except §

11-41-3, which that involves a victim who is a person sixty-five (65) years of age or older at the

time of the offense and which involves property or money stolen, received, embezzled,

fraudulently appropriated, converted, or obtained, received, taken, or secreted by false pretenses

or otherwise with intent to cheat, defraud, embezzle, or fraudulently convert, with a value in

excess of five hundred dollars ($500), shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than two (2)

years but not more than fifteen (15) years or by a fine of not more than five thousand dollars

($5,000), or both. If the value of the property or money does not exceed five hundred dollars

($500), the person shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than one year but not more than

five (5) years or by a fine of not more than three thousand dollars ($3,000), or both.


 

 

89)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

11-47-5.4

374 and 385

 

 

11-47-5.4. Surrender of firearms after domestic violence offenses.

     (a) A plea of nolo contendere, resulting in a filing or probation or conviction shall

prohibit the defendant from purchasing, carrying, transporting, or having in their his or her

possession any firearm. Upon such a plea or conviction, the court shall order the defendant to

surrender all firearms owned by the person or in the person's possession as described in this

section.

     (1) Surrender shall be made within twenty-four (24) hours of prohibition to the Rhode

Island state police or local law enforcement or to a licensed gun dealer. The arresting law

enforcement agency shall be immediately notified by the court of the order to surrender firearms.

A law enforcement agency or licensed gun dealer taking possession of a firearm shall issue a

proof of surrender to the person surrendering the firearm. The proof of surrender must include the

name of the person, the date of surrender, and the serial number, manufacturer, and model of all

surrendered firearms.

     (2) A defendant transporting a firearm to surrender in accordance with this section shall

not be liable to prosecution under §§11-47-5(d) or 11-47-8.

     (3) The defendant shall, within forty-eight (48) hours after being served with the order,

either:

     (i) File a copy of proof of surrender with the court of jurisdiction, and attest that all

firearms owned by the person or in the person's possession at the time of plea or conviction have

been surrendered in accordance with this section and that the person currently owns no firearms

and has no firearms in their his or her possession; or

     (ii) Attest that, at the time of plea or conviction, the person owned no firearms and had no

firearms in their possession, and that the person currently owns no firearms and has no firearms in

their his or her possession.

     (4) The court of jurisdiction's copy of proof of surrender shall be kept under seal and

shall not be part of the public record.

     (5) The Rhode Island state police are authorized to develop rules, regulations and

procedures pertaining to the storage of firearms that are surrendered pursuant to this section. The

Rhode Island state police may consult with the Rhode Island Police Chiefs' Association in

developing rules and procedures. Law enforcement agencies and departments shall observe due

care in the receipt and storage of any firearm surrendered pursuant to this section. No law

enforcement agency shall dispose of any firearm surrendered pursuant to this section unless that

firearm is abandoned as provided in this section. The Rhode Island state police may consult with

the Rhode Island Police Chiefs' Association in developing rules and procedures.

     (6) A firearm surrendered to the Rhode Island state police or a local police department

under this section shall be deemed abandoned if:

     (i) Six (6) years have passed from the date of the completion of the defendant's sentence

for an offense enumerated in §11-47-5(a)(4); and

     (ii) During the two (2) years following the six (6)-year (6) period described in subsection

(a)(6)(i) of this section, the Rhode Island state police or local police department has provided

notice to the defendant, on at least two (2) separate occasions, that if the firearm is not reclaimed

it shall be disposed of; and

     (iii) After the two (2)-year (2) period described in subsection (a)(6)(ii) of this section and

after notice to the defendant, the defendant fails to reclaim the firearm.

     (7) The Rhode Island state police may dispose of an abandoned firearm at any time,

provided that no disposal shall occur while any appeal of the conviction for a crime enumerated

in §11-47-5(a)(4) is pending and provided that the owner of the firearm receives any financial

value generated from its disposal less the cost associated with disposing of the firearm.


 

 

90)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

11-47-5.5

374 and 385

 

 

11-47-5.5. Motion to lift firearms prohibition for persons convicted of specified

misdemeanor domestic violence offenses -- Consecutive prohibitions -- Return of

surrendered firearms.

     (a) A person prohibited from purchasing, owning, carrying, transporting, or having in

their possession any firearm solely because of a plea of nolo contendere to or a conviction of an

offense enumerated in §11-47-5(a)(4) may file a motion in the district court to have that firearm

prohibition lifted in accordance with this section. A person who is otherwise prohibited under

state law from purchasing, owning, carrying, transporting, or having in their possession any

firearm shall not be eligible for relief under this section.

     (b) Except for those cases where the defendant is eligible to reclaim firearms after the one

year completion of a filing or probation under §12-18-3, a person shall become eligible to file a

motion seeking relief under this section after five (5) years from the date of the completion of his

or her sentence, unless, during that five (5)-year period, the person enters a plea of nolo

contendere to or is convicted of any new offense enumerated in §11-47-5(a)(4).

     (1) A person already prohibited from purchasing, owning, carrying, transporting, or

having in their possession any firearm under §11-47-5(a)(4) who pleads nolo contendere to or is

convicted of any new offense enumerated in §11-47-5(a)(4) shall be subject to an additional six

(6)-year firearm prohibition under §11-47-5(a)(4). That additional prohibition shall run

consecutively to the prohibition already in effect at the time the person pleaded nolo contendere

to or was convicted of the new offense.

     (2) A person made subject to consecutive firearms prohibitions in accordance with this

subsection shall not become eligible to file a motion seeking relief under this section until their

consecutive prohibition periods have fully elapsed.

     (c) No filing fee shall be charged for the filing of a motion seeking relief under this

section.

     (d) The district court shall schedule a hearing on a motion seeking relief under this

section no later than thirty (30) days from the date the motion is filed.

     (e) The district court shall only consider whether the required amount of time to retrieve

the firearms has expired, and that no other legal prohibition exists to prevent the respondent from

recovering his or her firearms. If the court lifts a person's firearm prohibition pursuant to this

section, the court shall issue the person written notice that the person is no longer prohibited from

purchasing, owning, carrying, transporting, or having in their his or her possession any firearm

under §11-47-5(a)(4).

     (f) A firearm surrendered to the Rhode Island state police or a local police department by

a person formerly prohibited under §11-47-5(a)(4) who is granted relief under this section shall

be returned to the person upon their his or her request when:

     (1) The person formerly prohibited under §11-47-5(a)(4) provides written proof issued by

the court indicating that the firearm prohibition has been lifted pursuant to this section; and

     (2) The Rhode Island state police or a local police department determines that the person

formerly prohibited under §11-47-5(a)(4) is not otherwise prohibited from possessing a firearm

under state or federal law.

     (g) A court's grant of relief pursuant to this section shall not constitute an expungement,

nor shall it in any way impact, negate, or otherwise modify the person's prior conviction of an

offense enumerated in §11-47-5(a)(4).


 

 

91)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

11-67

232 and 260

 

 

 11-67. [Chapter Repealed]


 

 

92)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

11-67.1

232 and 260

 

 

CHAPTER 67.1

UNIFORM ACT ON PREVENTION OF AND REMEDIES FOR HUMAN TRAFFICKING


 

 

93)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

12-1-17

51 and 60

 

 

12-1-17. Background checks for employees of religious organizations.

     (a) In order to assist Rhode Island’s religious organizations and houses of worship

(hereinafter religious organization) with the ability to ensure that their staff, teachers, and

employees are of good moral character, all persons eighteen (18) years of age or older seeking to

work or volunteer for any religious organization shall, at the specific request of the religious

organization, be required to undergo a national criminal background check for the purpose of

determining whether the prospective employee or volunteer has been convicted of any crime.

     (1) Participation of any religious organization with the system of background checks

created by this section is voluntary and any decision to request a national background check for

any person may be made at the sole discretion of the religious organization.

     (2) "Disqualifying information" for purposes of this section shall mean those offenses

included in §§23-17-37, 11-37-1- through 11-37-8.4, and §§11-9-1- through 11-9-5.3.

     (b) Any religious organization may require any applicant for employment or volunteer

activity, if that employment or activity involves routine contact with minors, to apply to the

bureau of criminal identification (BCI), the department of the attorney general, the state police, or

the local police department for a nationwide criminal records check. The check shall conform to

the applicable federal standards, including the requirement that the applicant provide a set of

fingerprints to facilitate the background check.

     (1) It shall be the responsibility of the BCI to conduct the national criminal identification

check within fourteen (14) days of the applicant’s request.

     (c) If any disqualifying information is discovered with respect to the applicant, the BCI

shall inform the religious organization in writing, without disclosing the nature of the

disqualifying information, that an item of disqualifying nature has been discovered. In addition,

the BCI shall inform the applicant, in writing, of the nature of the disqualifying information.

     (1) Upon receipt of the disqualifying information from the BCI, the applicant may, within

twenty (20) days of receipt thereof, request that that the BCI provide a copy of the information to

the religious organization which will have the discretion to determine whether the applicant is

eligible for employment or volunteer status.

     (d) If no disqualifying information is found upon completion of the background check,

the BCI shall notify both the applicant and the religious organization, in writing, of this fact.

     (e) Upon completion of the background check, and after the twenty- (20) day (20) period

referenced in subsection (c)(1) of this section, the BCI shall promptly destroy the fingerprints

provided by the applicant.

     (f) No religious organization who that disqualifies an individual from employment or

volunteer activity as a result of its receipt of disqualifying information, shall be liable for civil

damages or subject to any claim, cause of action, or proceeding of any nature, as a result of such

disqualification.

     (g) The applicant shall be responsible for the costs of conducting the nationwide criminal

records check.


 

 

94)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-1.2-6

52 and 61

 

 

12-1.2-6. Candidates for director and other positions -- Selection -- Appointment --

Dismissals.

     (a) Candidates for the position of director and all other positions of the crime laboratory

may be recommended to the commission by the executive secretary and/or other members of the

commission as well as from all other sources.

     (b) The director and all other positions of the state crime laboratory shall be considered

limited appointment positions of the board of governors for higher education employees of the

council on postsecondary education and shall be subject to all employment policies, practices,

and procedures of the board of governors for higher education council on postsecondary

education and the University of Rhode Island.

     (c) The appointive authority for the University of Rhode Island shall also be the

appointing authority for the position of director and all other positions of the state crime

laboratory subject to approval or disapproval by the commission.


 

 

95)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-1.3-2

234 and 316

 

 

12-1.3-2. Motion for expungement.

     (a) Any person who is a first offender may file a motion for the expungement of all

records and records of conviction for a felony or misdemeanor by filing a motion in the court in

which the conviction took place; provided, that no person who has been convicted of a crime of

violence shall have his or her records and records of conviction expunged; and provided, that all

outstanding court-imposed or court-related fees, fines, costs, assessments, charges, and/or any

other monetary obligations have been paid, unless such amounts are reduced or waived by order

of the court.

     (b) Notwithstanding §12-1.3-1(3) ("first offender"), any person who has been convicted

of more than one misdemeanor, but fewer than six (6) misdemeanors, and has not been convicted

of a felony may file a motion for the expungement of any or all of those misdemeanors by filing a

motion in the court in which the convictions took place,; provided that convictions for offenses

under chapter 29 of title 12, §§31-27-2 or 31-27-2.1 are not eligible for and may not be expunged

under this subsection.

     (b)(c) Subject to subsection (a), a person may file a motion for the expungement of

records relating to a misdemeanor conviction after five (5) years from the date of the completion

of his or her sentence.

     (c)(d) Subject to subsection (a), a person may file a motion for the expungement of

records relating to a felony conviction after ten (10) years from the date of the completion of his

or her sentence.

     (d)(e) Subject to § 12-19-19(c), and without regard to subsections (a) through (c) of this

section, a person may file a motion for the expungement of records relating to a deferred sentence

upon its completion, after which the court will hold a hearing on the motion.

     (f) Subject to subsection (b) of this section, a person may file a motion for the

expungement of records relating to misdemeanor convictions after ten (10) years from the date of

the completion of their last sentence.


 

 

96)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-1.3-3

234 and 316

 

 

12-1.3-3. Motion for expungement -- Notice -- Hearing -- Criteria for granting.

     (a) Any person filing a motion for expungement of the records of his or her conviction

pursuant to § 12-1.3-2 shall give notice of the hearing date set by the court to the department of

the attorney general and the police department that originally brought the charge against the

person at least ten (10) days prior to that date.

     (b) The court, after the hearing at which all relevant testimony and information shall be

considered, may, in its discretion, order the expungement of the records of conviction of the

person filing the motion if it finds:

     (1) (i) That in the five (5) years preceding the filing of the motion, if the conviction was

for a misdemeanor, or in the ten (10) years preceding the filing of the motion, if the conviction

was for a felony, the petitioner has not been convicted nor arrested for any felony or

misdemeanor; there are no criminal proceedings pending against the person; that the person does

not owe any outstanding court-imposed or court-related fees, fines, costs, assessments, or

charges, unless such amounts are reduced or waived by order of the court, and he or she has

exhibited good moral character; or

     (ii) That after a hearing held under the provisions of § 12-19-19(c), the court finds that

the person has complied with all of the terms and conditions of the deferral agreement including,

but not limited to, the payment in full of any court-ordered fines, fees, costs, assessments, and

restitution to victims of crimes; there are no criminal proceedings pending against the person; and

he or she has established good moral character. Provided, that no person who has been convicted

of a crime of violence shall have their records relating to a deferred sentence expunged.; or

     (iii) Subject only to §§12-1.3-2(b) and (f), that in the ten (10) years preceding the filing of

the motion, if the convictions were for multiple misdemeanors, the petitioner has not been

convicted nor arrested for any felony or misdemeanor,; there are no criminal proceedings pending

against the person,; and they have exhibited good moral character; and, provided that convictions

for offenses under chapter 29 of title 12, §§31-27-2 or 31-27-2.1 are not eligible and may not be

expunged under this subsection.

     (2) That the petitioner's rehabilitation has been attained to the court's satisfaction and the

expungement of the records of his or her conviction is consistent with the public interest.

     (c) If the court grants the motion, it shall, after payment by the petitioner of a one

hundred dollar ($100) fee to be paid to the court, order all records and records of conviction

relating to the conviction expunged and all index and other references to it removed from public

inspection. A copy of the order of the court shall be sent to any law enforcement agency and other

agency known by either the petitioner, the department of the attorney general, or the court to have

possession of the records. Compliance with the order shall be according to the terms specified by

the court.

     (d) The defendant shall be advised at the hearing that any and all bail money relating to a

case that remains on deposit and is not claimed at the time of expungement shall be escheated to

the state's general treasury in accordance with chapter 12 of title 8.


 

 

97)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-7-12

342 and 353

 

 

12-7-12.  Release of arrested person by officer.

     (a) The officer in charge of any police station may shall consider the release of any

person in his or her station who has been arrested without a warrant:

     (1) Without requiring the person to appear in court, when the officer is satisfied that there

is no ground for making criminal complaint against the person or when the person has been

arrested for drunkenness but in the judgment of the officer need not be brought before a

magistrate; or

     (2) If the arrest is for a misdemeanor, upon that person signing an agreement to appear in

court at a designated time.

     (b) Any officer with custody of a person who has been arrested or detained without a

warrant may recognize that the person suffers from a serious mental illness and may release and

refer the person to the nearest appropriate inpatient mental health facility or outpatient treatment

program.


 

 

98)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-10-12

342 and 353

 

 

12-10-12. Filing of complaints.

     (a) Subject to any other provisions of law relative to the filing of complaints for particular

crimes, any judge of the district court or superior court may place on file any complaint in a

criminal case other than a complaint for the commission of a felony or a complaint against a

person who has been convicted of a felony or a private complaint. The court may in its discretion

require, as a condition of the filing, the performance of services for the public good or may attach

any other conditions to it that the court shall determine; provided, in cases where the court

ordered restitution totals less than two hundred dollars ($200) to an injured party pursuant to this

section or § 12-19-34, the court shall require that full restitution be made at the time of sentencing

if the court determines that the defendant has the present ability to make the restitution.

     (b) Express conditions of any filing in accordance with this section shall be that the

defendant at all times during the one year keep the peace and be of good behavior and shall have

paid all outstanding court-imposed or court-related fees, fines, costs, assessments, charges, and/or

any other monetary obligations unless reduced or waived by order of the court. A violation of

these express conditions, or any other condition set by the court, shall may be deemed a violation

of the filing and the matter that was filed may be resurrected by the court, or the court may

impose a sanction. A determination of whether a violation has occurred shall be made by the

court in accordance with the procedures relating to a violation of probation, §§ 12-19-9 and 12-

19-14.

     (c) In the event the complaint was originally filed under this section subsequent to the

defendant's plea of guilty or nolo contendere to the charges, the court, if it finds there to have

been a violation but does not impose a sanction, may sentence the defendant. In the event the

court filed the complaint under this section while the defendant maintained a plea of not guilty, if

the court finds there to have been a violation but does not impose a sanction, it may proceed to

the further disposition of the complaint according to law. If no action is taken on the complaint

for a period of one year following the filing, the complaint shall be automatically expunged. No

criminal record shall result; provided, that in any civil action for a tort, a plea of guilty or a

finding of guilty should be admissible notwithstanding the fact that the complaint has been filed.

     (d) Notwithstanding the foregoing provisions of this section, in the event a complaint for

a crime involving domestic violence was originally filed under this section subsequent to the

defendant's plea of guilty or nolo contendere to the charges, the court, if it finds there to have

been a violation, may sentence the defendant. In the event the court filed the complaint for a

crime involving domestic violence under this section while the defendant maintained a plea of not

guilty, if the court finds there to have been a violation, it may proceed to the further disposition of

the complaint for a crime involving domestic violence according to law. If, for a period of one

year after the date of filing, the defendant is not charged with a violation pursuant to subsection

(b) of this section, the filed complaint for the crime involving domestic violence shall be

automatically quashed and shall not be resurrected. If, for a period of three (3) years after the date

of filing, the defendant is not charged with a crime involving domestic violence, or if so charged,

is acquitted or the complaint is dismissed, all records relating to the filed complaint for a crime

involving domestic violence shall be expunged without the requirement of filing a motion

pursuant to chapter 1.3 of title 12. No criminal records shall result, unless in any civil action for a

tort, in which a plea of guilty or a finding of guilty is admissible notwithstanding the fact that the

complaint has been filed. Provided, however, that in sentencing a defendant for a crime involving

domestic violence of which the defendant was charged within three (3) years after the filing of a

prior crime involving domestic violence to which the defendant pleaded guilty or nolo

contendere, the court may take the plea into consideration.

     (e) The defendant shall be advised that any and all bail money relating to a case that

remains on deposit and is not claimed at the time of expungement shall be escheated to the state's

general treasury in accordance with chapter 12 of title 8.


 

 

99)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-12-17

133 and 146

 

 

12-12-17. Statute of limitations.

     (a) There shall be no statute of limitations for the following offenses: treason against the

state,; any homicide, arson, first-degree arson, second-degree arson, third-degree arson, burglary,

counterfeiting, forgery, robbery, rape, first-degree sexual assault, first-degree child molestation

sexual assault, second-degree child molestation sexual assault, bigamy,; manufacturing, selling,

distribution, or possession with intent to manufacture, sell, or distribute a controlled substance

under the Uniform Controlled Substance Act, chapter 28 of title 21,; or any other offense for

which the maximum penalty provided is life imprisonment.

     (b) The statute of limitations for the following offenses shall be ten (1 O)(10) years:

larceny under §11-41-2 (receiving stolen goods), §11-41-3 (embezzlement and fraudulent

conversion), §11-41-4 (obtaining property by false pretenses or personation), §11-41-11

(embezzlement by bank officer or employee), §11-41-12 (fraudulent conversion by agent or

factor), and §11-41-13 (obtaining signature by false pretenses), or any larceny which that is

punishable as a felony; any violation of chapter 7 of title 11 (bribery); any violation of §11-18-1

(giving false document to agent, employee, or public official); perjury; any violation of chapter

42 of title 11 (threats and extortion); any violation of chapter 15 of title 7 (racketeer influenced

and corrupt organizations); any violation of chapter 57 of title 11 (racketeer violence); any

violation of chapter 36 of title 6 (antitrust law); of any violation of §11-68-2 (exploitation of an

elder); any violation of §11-41-11.1 (unlawful appropriation); any violation of §11-18-6 (false

financial statement to obtain loan or credit); any violation of §19-9-28 (false statement to obtain a

loan); any violation of §19-9-29 (bank fraud); or any violation of §11-18-34 (residential mortgage

fraud).

     (c) The statute of limitations for any other criminal offense shall be three (3) years, unless

a longer statute of limitations is otherwise provided for in the general laws.

     (d) Any person who participates in any offense, either as a principal accessory, or

conspirator, shall be subject to the same statute of limitations as if the person had committed the

substantive offense.

     (e) The statute of limitations for any violation of chapter 18.9 of title 23 (refuse disposal),

chapter 19 of title 23 (solid waste management corporation), chapter 19 .1 of title 23 (hazardous

waste management), chapter 12 of title 46 (water pollution), and chapter 13 of title 46 (public

drinking water supply) shall be seven (7) years from the time that the facts constituting the

offense or violation shall have become known to law enforcement authorities, unless a longer

statute of limitations is otherwise provided for in the general laws.


 

 

100)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-13-24

342 and 353

 

 

12-13-24. Confidentiality of pretrial services program records.

     (a) Information supplied by a defendant to a representative of the pretrial services

program during the defendant's initial interview or subsequent contacts, or information obtained

by the pretrial services program as a result of the interview or subsequent contacts, shall be

deemed confidential and shall not be subject to subpoena or to disclosure without the written

consent of the defendant except in the following circumstances:

      (1) Information relevant to the imposition of conditions of release shall be presented to

the court on a standardized form when the court is considering what conditions of release to

impose;

      (2) Information furnished by the defendant to the pretrial services program and recorded

on a completed interview form shall be furnished to law enforcement officials upon request only

if the defendant fails to appear in court when required, after notice to the defendant or the

defendant's attorney of record;

      (3) Information concerning compliance with any conditions of release imposed by the

court shall be furnished to the court upon its request for consideration or modification of

conditions of release or of sentencing or of probation;

      (4) Information relevant to sentencing or probation shall be furnished to the court upon

its request for consideration in imposing sentence or probation;

      (5) At its discretion, the court may permit the probation officer, for the purpose of

preparing the presentence investigation report, and the defense attorney to inspect the completed

interview form; and

     (6) In felony cases, completed pre-arraignment reports shall be provided to the superior

court; and

      (6)(7) Any person conducting an evaluation of the pretrial release program may have

access to all completed interview forms upon order from the supreme court.

      (b) At the beginning of the defendant's initial interview with a representative of the

pretrial services program, the defendant shall be advised of the above uses of information

supplied by him or her or obtained as a result of information supplied by him or her.


 

 

 

 

101)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-13-24.1

342 and 353

 

 

12-13-24.1. Pretrial services unit.

     (a) Creation of unit; definitions. - There is created within the district court a pretrial

services unit to provide pre-arraignment and post-arraignment services to defendants. These

services shall include, but not be limited to: bail information and screening,

     (1) "Pre-arraignment report" may include:

     (i) The results of a risk screen;

     (ii) For a defendant who scores as high risk on the risk screen, additional validated

screens for mental health and substance use needs, to determine whether more in-depth

assessment is needed post-arraignment; and

     (iii) For a defendant charged with a domestic violence offense under §12-29-2, and who

has prior domestic violence offenses or other indications of risk, a lethality or dangerousness

assessment.

     (2) "Post-arraignment service" includes completion of the pre-arraignment report, a post-

arraignment report, if necessary, and monitoring of defendants released on conditions that are

informed by the pre-arraignment report, bail including substance abuse treatment referrals and

testing,; referrals to the home confinement program,; employment referrals,; and any other

referrals that may be necessary to carry out the intent of this section.

     (3) "Risk screen" means a validated, empirically-based pretrial risk tool composed of a

brief set of questions that may be answered without interviewing the defendant and are designed

to predict failure to appear and risk to re-offend.

      (b) Bail evaluation Pre-arraignment report. - Whenever any person shall be taken into

custody by any peace officer for the purpose of bringing that person before a court for

arraignment or any other proceeding which may result in that person being detained pending a

final adjudication of the charge, if the person is charged with a felony, or a misdemeanor

domestic violence offense under §12-29-2 and has prior domestic violence offenses or other

indications of risk, the pretrial services unit shall, time permitting, prepare, a judicial officer may

cause to be conducted a pre-arraignment report and any or post-arraignment screening of the

accused deemed necessary by the court or the pretrial services unit, and shall obtain any relevant

information, records, and documents that may be useful to the judicial officer in determining the

form and type of recognizance and conditions placed on the defendant.

      (c) Delivery of report. - The pre-arraignment report of the pre-arraignment or and any

post-arraignment screening shall be immediately delivered to the judicial officer before whom the

accused shall be brought for the purpose of determining the form and conditions of recognizance

and shall contain the information set forth in subsection (d) of this section.

      (d) Form of report. - The report of the pre-arraignment or post-arraignment screening

shall contain the following information regarding the accused:

      (1) Name and address;

      (2) Date of birth;

      (3) Marital status;

      (4) Names and addresses of dependents;

      (5) Social security number;

      (6) Present employment including place of employment, position held and length of

employment;

      (7) Whether or not the accused is under the care of a licensed physician or on any

medication prescribed by a licensed physician;

      (8) Education;

      (9) Prior criminal record;

      (10) Prior court appearances;

      (11) Ties to the community; and

      (12) Any other information that may be required to make a determination on the amount

and conditions of recognizance or bail.

      (e) Confidentiality of communications. - The accused shall be advised orally and in a

written waiver form for the signature of the accused, that he or she has the right to remain silent

and may voluntarily decline to respond to any or all questions that may be put by representatives

of the pre-trial services unit. Communications between the accused and representatives of the pre-

trial services unit shall be considered confidential pursuant to § 12-13-24.


 

 

102)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-19-8

345 and 351

 

 

12-19-8. Suspension of sentence and probation by superior or district court.

     (a) Application. - Except where the suspension of sentence shall otherwise be prohibited

by law, and subject to the purposes and limits imposed by this section and §12-19-8.1, whenever

any defendant shall appear for sentence before the superior or district court, the court may impose

a sentence and suspend the execution of the sentence, in whole or in part, or place the defendant

on probation without the imposition of a suspended sentence. The suspension shall place the

defendant on probation for the time and on any terms and conditions of probation that the court

may fix and pursuant to the terms and conditions set by §12-19-8.1.

     (b) Duration. - The period of probation for a felony shall be set for a period of time as

required by law, or in accordance with judicial sentencing benchmarks. , where no sentence is

imposed or where sentence is entirely suspended, The period of probation for a misdemeanor,

where no sentence is imposed or where sentence is entirely suspended, may be for any period up

to the maximum time of sentence provided by applicable statutes. Where sentence is imposed and

suspended in part, the term ordered to be served and the period of probation together shall not

exceed the maximum time of sentence provided by applicable statutes.

     (c) At any time during the term of a sentence imposed, the probation and parole unit of

the department of corrections may seek permission of the superior or district court to modify a

defendant's conditions of probation set at the time of sentence by either imposing additional

conditions of probation or removing previously imposed conditions of probation to provide for

more effective supervision of the defendant. Failure of the defendant to comply with modified

conditions of probation may result in a violation of probation being filed pursuant to § 12-19-9.


 

 

103)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

12-19-8.1

345 and 351

 

 

12-19-8.1. Conditions of probation.

     (a) The following shall constitute basic conditions of probation applicable to all

defendants upon whom a period of probation has been imposed:

     (1) Obey all laws;

      (2) Report to the probation officer and parole officer as directed;

     (3) Remain within the state of Rhode Island except with the prior approval, specifically

or as an agreed routine, of the probation and parole office;

     (4) Notify the probation and parole officer immediately of any change of address,

telephone number, or employment;

     (5) Make every effort to keep steadily employed or attend school or vocational training;

     (6) Waive extradition from anywhere in the United States to Rhode Island, if required to

appear in any Rhode Island court;

     (7) Provide a DNA sample if required by §§12-1.5-7 and 12-1.5-8;

     (8) Pay restitution, court costs, and fines, if assessed, in one or several sums, based on the

defendant’s ability to pay; and

     (9) Submit to a risk and needs assessment.

     (b) Special probation conditions related to community service, computer restrictions, no

contact orders, or any other conditions deemed just and reasonable may be imposed at the

discretion of the court.

     (c) At any time during the term of a sentence imposed, the probation and parole unit of

the department of corrections may seek permission of the superior or district court to modify a

defendant's basic conditions or special conditions of treatment or counseling by either imposing

additional conditions or removing previously imposed conditions of probation to provide for

more effective supervision of the defendant.

     (d) Failure of the defendant to comply with modified conditions of probation constitutes a

violation.


 

 

104)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-19-9

345 and 351

 

 

12-19-9. Violation of terms of probation -- Notice to attorney general -- Revocation

or continuation of suspension.

     (a) Whenever any person who has been placed on probation pursuant to § 12-9-8 violates

the terms and conditions of his or her probation as fixed by the court, the police or the probation

authority shall inform the attorney general of the violation, and the attorney general shall cause

the defendant to appear before the court. The department of corrections court may request the

division of field rehabilitative services to shall promptly render a report relative to the conduct of

the defendant, and, pending receipt of the report, and the information contained in any report

under §12-13-24.1. The division of rehabilitative services may recommend that the time served

up to that point is a sufficient response to a violation that is not a new alleged crime. The court

may order the defendant held without bail for a period not exceeding ten (10) days, excluding

Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays.

     (b) The court shall conduct a hearing within thirty (30) days of arrest unless waived by

the defendant to determine whether the defendant has violated the terms and conditions of his or

her probation, at which hearing the defendant shall have the opportunity to be present and to

respond. Upon a determination by a fair preponderance of the evidence that the defendant has

violated the terms and conditions of his or her probation, the court, in open court and in the

presence of the defendant, may:

     (1) Remove remove the suspension and order the defendant committed on the sentence

previously imposed, or on a lesser sentence, or:

     (2) Impose impose a sentence if one has not been previously imposed, or may;

     (3) Stay all or a portion of the sentence imposed after removal of the suspension;

     (4) Continue continue the suspension of a sentence previously imposed, as to the court

may seem just and proper. ; or

     (5) Convert a sentence of probation without incarceration to a suspended sentence.

     (c) The court shall sentence for a violation under subsection (b) of this section in

accordance with judicial sentencing benchmarks.


 

 

105)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-19-14

345 and 351

 

 

12-19-14. Violation of terms of probation -- Notice to court -- Revocation or

continuation of suspension.

     (a) Whenever any person, who has been placed on probation by virtue of the suspension

of execution of his or her sentence pursuant to § 12-19-13, violates the terms and conditions of

his or her probation as fixed by the court, the police or department of corrections division of field

rehabilitative services shall cause the defendant to appear before the court. The court may require

the division of field rehabilitative services to shall promptly render a written report relative to the

conduct of the defendant, and, pending receipt of the report, and the information contained in any

report under §12-13-24.1. The division of rehabilitative services may recommend that the time

served up to that point is a sufficient response to a violation that is not a new, alleged crime. The

court may order the defendant held without bail for a period not exceeding ten (10) days

excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays.

     (b) The court shall conduct a hearing within thirty (30) days of arrest, unless waived by

the defendant, to determine whether the defendant has violated the terms and conditions of his or

her probation, at which hearing the defendant shall have the opportunity to be present and to

respond. Upon a determination by a fair preponderance of the evidence that the defendant has

violated the terms and conditions of his or her probation, the court, in open court and in the

presence of the defendant, may as to the court may seem just and proper:

     (1) Revoke revoke the suspension and order the defendant committed on the sentence

previously imposed, or on a lesser sentence, or may continue the suspension as to the court may

seem just and proper. :

     (2) Impose a sentence if one has not been previously imposed; or

     (3) Stay all or a portion of the sentence imposed after removal of the suspension;

     (4) Continue the suspension of a sentence previously imposed; or

     (5) Convert a sentence of probation without incarceration to a suspended sentence.


 

 

106)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-19-15

345 and 351

 

 

12-19-15. Term of probation -- Power to commit after termination of original

Sentence.

The power of the court to commit the defendant shall not be deemed to terminate with the

termination of the period of the original sentence, but the court shall have power to enforce the

sentence even though the original period of the sentence has expired. The term of the suspended

sentence may be longer or shorter or for the same time as the probation period, and the time

during which the defendant is on probation shall not be deemed by §§ 12-19-13 -- 12-19-17 to be

a part of the term of his or her sentence, although the court, in its discretion, may give

consideration to the probationer's conduct during the probationary period in imposing a sanction

or enforcing the sentence originally imposed, or any lesser sentence.


 

 

107)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-19-19

345 and 351

 

 

12-19-19. Sentencing on plea of guilty or nolo contendere -- Deferment of sentence.

     (a) Whenever any person is arraigned before the superior court and pleads guilty or nolo

contendere, he or she may be at any time sentenced by the court; provided, that if at any time the

court formally defers sentencing, then the person and the attorney general court shall enter into a

written deferral agreement to be filed with the clerk of the court. When a court formally defers

sentence, the court may only impose sentence within up to five (5) years from and after the date

of the written deferral agreement, unless during the five (5) year required period, the person shall

be declared to have violated the terms and conditions of the deferment pursuant to subsection (b)

in which event the court may impose sentence.

     (b) It shall be an express condition of any deferment of sentence in accordance with this

section The court may require that the person agreeing to said deferment of sentence shall not

violate any condition of the written deferral agreement at all times during the period of deferment

keep the peace and be of good behavior. A violation of this express condition or any other

condition set forth by either the court or the written deferral agreement shall violate the terms and

conditions of the deferment of sentence and the court may impose a sanction or impose sentence.

The determination of whether a violation has occurred shall be made by the court in accordance

with procedures relating to violation of probation in court rules and §§ 12-19-2 and 12-19-14.

      (c) If a person, after the completion of the five-year (5) deferment period is determined

by the court after a hearing to have complied with all of the terms and conditions of the deferral

agreement including, but not limited to, the payment in full of any court-ordered fines, fees, costs,

assessments, and restitution to victims of crime, then the person shall become immediately

eligible for consideration for expungement pursuant to the provisions of §§ 12-1.3-2 and 12-1.3-

3.


 

 

108)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-19-34

345 and 351

 

 

12-19-34. Priority of restitution payments to victims of crime.

     (a) (1) If a person, pursuant to §§ 12-19-32, 12-19-32.1, or 12-19-33, is ordered to make

restitution in the form of monetary payment the court may order that it shall be made through the

administrative office of state courts which shall record all payments and pay the money to the

person injured in accordance with the order or with any modification of the order; provided, in

cases where court ordered restitution totals less than two hundred dollars ($200) the court

determines that the defendant has the present ability to make full restitution, payment shall be

made at the time of sentencing if the court determines that the defendant has the present ability to make restitution.

     (2) Payments made on account when both restitution to a third-party is ordered, and court

costs, fines, and fees, and assessments related to prosecution are owed, shall be disbursed by the

administrative office of the state courts in the following priorities:

     (i) Upon determination of restitution, court ordered restitution payments shall be paid

first to persons injured until such time as the court's restitution is fully satisfied;

     (ii) Followed by the payment of court costs, fines, fees, and assessments related to

prosecution.

     (3) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any interest which has been accrued by

the restitution account in the central registry shall be deposited on a regular basis into the crime

victim compensation fund, established by chapter 25 of this title. In the event that the office of the

administrator of the state courts cannot locate the person or persons to whom restitution is to be

made, the principal of the restitution payment shall escheat to the state pursuant to the provisions

of chapter 8-12. 12 of title 8.

     (b) The state is authorized to develop rules and/or regulations relating to assessment,

collection, and disbursement of restitution payments when any of the following events occur:

     (1) The defendant is incarcerated or on home confinement or has completed probation

without completing restitution but is able to pay some portion of the restitution; or

     (2) The victim dies before restitution payments are completed.

     (c) The state may maintain a civil action to place a lien on the personal or real property of

a defendant who is assessed restitution, as well as to seek wage garnishment, and/or seek

enforcement of civil judgment entered in accordance with §12-28-5.1 consistent with state and

federal law.


 

 

109)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

12-19-40

345 and 351

 

 

12-19-40. Severability.

If any provision of this chapter or its application to any person or circumstances is held

invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of the chapter which can be

given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this

chapter are declared to be severable.


 

 

110)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-25-17

110 and 174, 341and 350

 

 

12-25-17. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Administrator" means the program administrator of this chapter.

     (2) "Child" means an unmarried person who is under eighteen (18) years of age and

includes a stepchild or an adopted child.

     (3) "Court" means the superior court.

     (4) "Dependent" means a person wholly or partially dependent upon the income of the

victim at the time of his or her death or would have been so dependent but for the incapacity due

to the injury from which the death resulted. The term includes a child of the victim born after the

death of the victim.

     (5) "Office" means the office of the general treasurer.

     (6) "Pecuniary loss" includes:

     (i) For personal injury:

     (A) Medical expenses (including psychiatric care) for which the victim is not

compensated by any other source;

     (B) Hospital expenses for which the victim is not compensated by any other source;

     (C) Loss of past earnings for which the victim is not compensated by any other source;

     (D) Loss of future earnings because of a disability resulting from the personal injury for

which the victim is not compensated by any other source.

     (ii) For death:

     (A) Funeral and burial expenses for which the victim's estate is not compensated by any

other source; and

     (B) Loss of support to the dependents of the victim for which the dependents are not

compensated by any other source.

     (iii) Any other expenses actually and necessarily incurred as a result of the personal

injury or death for which the victim or his or her estate is not compensated by any other source,

but it does not include property damage.

     (7) "Personal injury" means actual bodily harm, mental or nervous shock, and a

pregnancy resulting from sexual attack.

     (8) "Relative" means a spouse, parent, grandparent, stepfather, stepmother, child,

grandchild, brother, sister, half-brother, half-sister, and a spouse's parents.

     (9) "Resident" means any person who has his or her residence within the state of Rhode

Island.

     (10) "Secondary victim" means a child who suffers an emotional injury as a direct result

of witnessing a homicide or incident of domestic violence.

     (10)(11) "State" includes the District of Columbia, the fifty (50) states, and the United

States' territories and possessions.

     (11)(12) "Treasurer" means the general treasurer of the state of Rhode Island or his or her

designee.

     (12)(13) "Victim" means a person who is injured or killed by any act of a person or

persons which is within the description of any of the offenses specified in § 12-25-20 and which

act occurs in the state of Rhode Island. "Victim" also means a resident of the state of Rhode

Island who is a victim of an act of terrorism as defined in 18 U.S.C. § 2331 occurring outside the

United States or within the United States as referred to in 42 U.S.C. § 10603b. 34 U.S.C. §20105.

     (13)(14) "1972 Act" means the Criminal Injuries Compensation Act of 1972, established

pursuant to former §§ 12-25-1 -- 12-25-12.1.

     (14)(15) "1996 Act" means the Criminal Injuries Compensation Act of 1996, established

pursuant to §§ 12-25-16 -- 12-25-30.

12-25-17. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Administrator" means the program administrator of this chapter.

     (2) "Child" means an unmarried person who is under eighteen (18) years of age and

includes a stepchild or an adopted child.

     (3) "Court" means the superior court.

     (4) "Dependent" means a person wholly or partially dependent upon the income of the

victim at the time of his or her death or would have been so dependent but for the incapacity due

to the injury from which the death resulted. The term includes a child of the victim born after the

death of the victim.

     (5) "Office" means the office of the general treasurer.

     (6) "Pecuniary loss" includes:

     (i) For personal injury:

     (A) Medical expenses (including psychiatric care) for which the victim is not

compensated by any other source;

     (B) Hospital expenses for which the victim is not compensated by any other source;

     (C) Loss of past earnings for which the victim is not compensated by any other source;

     (D) Loss of future earnings because of a disability resulting from the personal injury for

which the victim is not compensated by any other source. ; and

     (E) Direct expenses related to the delivery or obtainment of medical or counseling

services, or participation in criminal justice proceedings.

     (ii) For death:

     (A) Funeral and burial expenses for which the victim's estate is not compensated by any

other source; and

     (B) Loss of support to the dependents of the victim for which the dependents are not

compensated by any other source. ; and

     (C) Direct expenses related to the participation in funeral services, counseling, or

criminal justice proceedings.

     (iii) Any other expenses actually and necessarily incurred as a result of the personal

injury or death for which the victim or his or her estate is not compensated by any other source,

but it does not include property damage.

     (7) "Personal injury" means actual bodily harm, mental or nervous shock, and a

pregnancy resulting from sexual attack.

     (8) "Relative" means a spouse, parent, grandparent, stepfather, stepmother, child,

grandchild, brother, sister, half-brother, half-sister, and a spouse's parents.

     (9) "Resident" means any person who has his or her residence within the state of Rhode

Island.

     (10) "State" includes the District of Columbia, the fifty (50) states, and the United States'

territories and possessions.

     (11) "Treasurer" means the general treasurer of the state of Rhode Island or his or her

designee.

     (12) "Victim" means a person who is injured or killed by any act of a person or persons

which that is within the description of any of the offenses specified in § 12-25-20 and which act

occurs in the state of Rhode Island. "Victim" also means a resident of the state of Rhode Island

who is a victim of an act of terrorism as defined in 18 U.S.C. § 2331 occurring outside the United

States or within the United States as referred to in 42 U.S.C. § 10603b.

     (13) "1972 Act" means the Criminal Injuries Compensation Act of 1972, established

pursuant to former §§ 12-25-1 -- 12-25-12.1.

     (14) "1996 Act" means the Criminal Injuries Compensation Act of 1996, established

pursuant to §§ 12-25-16 -- 12-25-30.


 

 

111)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-25-19

110 and174, 341 and 350

 

 

12-25-19. Awarding compensation.

     (a) In any case in which a person is injured or killed by any act of a person or persons

which that is within the description of the offenses listed in § 12-25-20, the victim, his or her

guardian, the child advocate as provided in § 42-73-9.1, or in the case of his or her death, a legal

representative, may apply to the office for compensation. Additionally, a secondary victim or

their guardian, the child advocate as provided in §42-73-9.1 or a legal representative on behalf of

a secondary victim, may apply to the office for compensation. The office shall provide notice of

the application to the attorney general. The office may award compensation in accordance with

the provisions of this chapter if the act occurs:

     (1) Within the physical confines of the state of Rhode Island;

     (2) Within the maritime jurisdiction of the state of Rhode Island;

     (3) Outside the state of Rhode Island to any victim who has his or her residence in the

state of Rhode Island and had the residence in the state at the time that the offense occurred, and

is not entitled to compensation of any kind from the state, possession, or territory or district of the

United States in which the offense occurred; or

     (4) Outside the state of Rhode Island to any victim, who had his or her residence in the

state of Rhode Island at the time the offense occurred, who is injured or killed by an act of

terrorism occurring either outside of the United States, as defined in 18 U.S.C. § 2331, or within

the United States as referred to in 42 U.S.C. § 10603b 34 U.S.C. § 20105

     (b) The office may award compensation as described in this section:

     (1) To or on behalf of the injured person, or his or her guardian;

     (2) In the case of the personal injury of the victim where the compensation is for

pecuniary loss suffered or expenses incurred by any person responsible for the maintenance of the

victim, to that person; or

     (3) In the case of the death of the victim, to or for the benefit of the dependents or closest

relative of the deceased victim, or any one or more of the dependents or to the legal representative

of the victim.

     (c) For the purposes of this chapter, a person shall be deemed to have intended an act

notwithstanding that, by reason of age, insanity, drunkenness, or otherwise, he or she was legally

incapable of forming a criminal intent.

     (d) (1) In determining whether to award compensation as described in this section and the

amount of compensation, the office shall consider any circumstances it determines to be relevant,

including, but not limited to: (i) cCompliance by the victim with the reasonable requests of law

enforcement agencies and personnel; (ii) vViolent felonious criminal conduct of the victim

committed within the past five (5) years or subsequent to his or her injury; (iii) aAny conviction

of a crime of violence by the victim; and (iv) tThe behavior of the victim which that directly or

indirectly contributed to his or her injury or death, unless the injury or death resulted from the

victim's lawful attempt to prevent the commission of a crime or to apprehend an offender. The

office may reduce or deny an award based on these circumstances.

     (2) Any individual who is incarcerated at any criminal institutional facility at the time of

his or her injury shall be deemed ineligible to receive an award of compensation as described in

this section.

     (e) No compensation may be awarded unless the office so directs upon a finding that:

     (1) The act did occur; and

     (2) The injury or death resulted from the act.

     (f) An award may be made under this section whether or not any person is prosecuted or

convicted of any offense arising out of the act, or if the act is the subject of any other legal action.

Upon application from the attorney general, the office shall suspend proceedings under this

chapter until the application is withdrawn or until a prosecution for an offense arising out of the

act is no longer pending or imminent. The office may suspend proceedings in the interest of

justice if a criminal or civil action arising from the act is pending or imminent.

     (g) The office shall pay to the person named in the award of compensation, and the

payments shall be made from the violent crimes indemnity account and from any federal moneys

available as coordinated by the office.

     (h) Where compensable medical services have been rendered, any award made payable to

a medical provider shall be based on the current final adjustment to charge ratio approved by the

department of labor and training pursuant to chapter 33 of title 28 and applied by the Rhode

Island workers' compensation unit in establishing payout ratios for inpatient charges, emergency

room charges, and ambulatory surgery charges. Amounts awarded for all other medical services

shall be based on the current Rhode Island Workers' Compensation Medical Fee Schedule. If the

provider employs a sliding scale fee structure for any category of patient or service, the award

shall not exceed the amount the applicant would be charged if he or she qualified under the

provider's sliding scale fee structure. Medical service providers shall be required to accept these

awards as full payment for services rendered and shall be prohibited from assessing any

additional charges against the victim or secondary victim.

12-25-19. Awarding compensation

     (a) In any case in which a person is injured or killed by any act of a person or persons

which that is within the description of the offenses listed in § 12-25-20, the victim, his or her

guardian, the child advocate as provided in § 42-73-9.1, or in the case of his or her death, a legal

representative, may apply to the office for compensation. The office shall provide notice of the

application to the attorney general. The office may award compensation in accordance with the

provisions of this chapter if the act occurs:

     (1) Within the physical confines of the state of Rhode Island;

     (2) Within the maritime jurisdiction of the state of Rhode Island;

     (3) Outside the state of Rhode Island to any victim who has his or her residence in the

state of Rhode Island and had the residence in the state at the time that the offense occurred, and

is not entitled to compensation of any kind from the state, possession, or territory or district of the

United States in which the offense occurred; or

     (4) Outside the state of Rhode Island to any victim who had his or her residence in the

state of Rhode Island at the time the offense occurred who is injured or killed by an act of

terrorism occurring either outside of the United States, as defined in 18 U.S.C. § 2331, or within

the United States as referred to in 42 U.S.C. § 10603b.

     (b) The office may award compensation as described in this section:

     (1) To or on behalf of the injured person, or his or her guardian;

     (2) In the case of the personal injury of the victim where the compensation is for

pecuniary loss suffered or expenses incurred by any person responsible for the maintenance of the

victim, to that person; or

     (3) In the case of the death of the victim, to or for the benefit of the dependents or closest

relative of the deceased victim, or any one or more of the dependents, or to the legal

representative of the victim.

     (c) For the purposes of this chapter, a person shall be deemed to have intended an act

notwithstanding that, by reason of age, insanity, drunkenness, or otherwise, he or she was legally

incapable of forming a criminal intent.

     (d) (1) In determining whether to award compensation as described in this section and the

amount of compensation, the office shall consider any circumstances it determines to be relevant,

including, but not limited to:

     (i) cCompliance by the victim with the reasonable requests of law enforcement agencies

and personnel;

     (ii) vViolent felonious criminal conduct of the victim committed within the past five (5)

years or subsequent to his or her injury;

     (iii) aAny conviction of a crime of violence by the victim; and

     (iv) tThe behavior of the victim which , including past behavior, that directly or indirectly

contributed to his or her injury or death, unless the injury or death resulted from the victim's

lawful attempt to prevent the commission of a crime or to apprehend an offender. The office may

reduce or deny an award based on these circumstances.

     (2) Any individual who is incarcerated at any criminal institutional facility at the time of

his or her injury shall be deemed ineligible to receive an award of compensation as described in

this section.

     (e) No compensation may be awarded unless the office so directs upon a finding that:

     (1) The act did occur; and

     (2) The injury or death resulted from the act.

     (f) An award may be made under this section whether or not any person is prosecuted or

convicted of any offense arising out of the act, or if the act is the subject of any other legal action.

Upon application from the attorney general, the office shall suspend proceedings under this

chapter until the application is withdrawn or until a prosecution for an offense arising out of the

act is no longer pending or imminent. The office may suspend proceedings in the interest of

justice if a criminal or civil action arising from the act is pending or imminent.

     (g) The office shall pay to the person named in the award of compensation, and the

payments shall be made from the violent crimes indemnity account and from any federal moneys

available as coordinated by the office.

     (h) Where compensable medical services have been rendered, any award made payable to

a medical provider shall be based on the current final adjustment to charge ratio approved by the

department of labor and training pursuant to chapter 33 of title 28 and applied by the Rhode

Island workers' compensation unit in establishing payout ratios for inpatient charges, emergency

room charges, and ambulatory surgery charges. Amounts awarded for all other medical services

shall be based on the current Rhode Island Wworkers' Ccompensation Mmedical Ffee Sschedule.

If the provider employs a sliding scale fee structure for any category of patient or service, the

award shall not exceed the amount the applicant would be charged if he or she qualified under the

provider's sliding scale fee structure. Medical service providers shall be required to accept these

awards as full payment for services rendered and shall be prohibited from assessing any

additional charges against the victim.


 

 

112)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-25-21

110 and 174

 

 

12-25-21. Nature of compensation.

     (a) The office may award compensation under this chapter for:

     (1) Expenses actually and reasonably incurred as a result of the personal injury or death

of the victim;

     (2) Pecuniary loss to the dependents of the deceased victim;

     (3) Any other pecuniary loss resulting from the personal injury or death of the victim, the

amount of which the office finds upon the evidence to be reasonable and necessary;

     (4) The administrator may issue a supplemental award for compensation for additional

medical expenses, including psychiatric care and mental health counseling, provided that the

victim provides proper documentation that the additional medical expenses have been actually

and reasonably incurred as a direct result of the personal injury. The administrator shall issue a

supplemental award as long as the total award does not exceed the maximum award allowable

under this chapter; and

     (5) The administrator may issue an award for expenses related to psychiatric care and

mental health counseling for a parent, spouse, sibling or child of a victim who dies as a direct

result of a violent crime as defined in this chapter, provided that the parent, spouse, sibling or

child provide proper documentation that the psychiatric care and mental health counseling have

been actually and reasonably incurred as a direct result of the death of the victim.and

     (6) The administrator may issue an award for expenses related to psychiatric care and

mental health counseling for a secondary victim, provided that the secondary victim provides

proper documentation that the psychiatric care and mental health counseling have been actually

and reasonably incurred as a direct result of witnessing the homicide of a victim or the domestic

violence incident against a victim. An award issued to a secondary victim for psychiatric care and

mental health counseling shall not exceed one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500) and shall

not be paid upon a secondary victim reaching the age of eighteen (18).

     (b) In determining the amount of the judgment or order approving a settlement, the office

shall take into consideration the rates and amounts payable for injuries and death under other

statutes of this state and of the United States, and the amount of revenue in the violent crimes

indemnity account and the number and nature of claims pending against it. The office shall make

every effort to ensure that compensation awards are paid within six (6) months of the date of

application.


  

 

113)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-25-22

110 and 174, 341 and 350

 

 

12-25-22. Limitations upon awarding compensation.

     (a) Actions for compensation under this chapter shall be commenced within three (3)

years after the date of the personal injury or death, and no compensation shall be awarded for an

injury or death resulting from a crime which was not reported to the appropriate law enforcement

authority within ten (10) days of its occurrence; provided, that the office shall have the authority

to allow a claim which was not reported pursuant to this section when the victim or secondary

victim was below the age of eighteen (18) years of age or of unsound mind, or for good cause

shown.

     (b) No compensation shall be awarded under this chapter to the victim, or in the case of

death to dependent relatives or to the legal representative, in a total amount in excess of twenty-

five thousand dollars ($25,000) plus any attorney fees awarded upon appeal to the treasurer or to

the superior court pursuant to § 12-25-25.

     (c) No compensation shall be awarded under this chapter to a secondary victim in a total

amount in excess of one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500).

     (c)(d) No compensation shall be awarded when the office, in its discretion, determines

that unjust enrichment to or on behalf of the offender would result. Compensation under this

chapter shall not be awarded to any victim or dependent relative or legal representative if the

award would directly or indirectly inure to the benefit of the offender.

     (d)(e) No interest shall be included in or added to an award of compensation under this

chapter.

     (e)(f) When the plaintiff is the victim's estate, it shall only be awarded compensation for

the victim's actual medical, hospital, funeral, and burial expenses for which the victim or his or

her estate is not compensated by any other source and for the loss of support to the dependents of

 

 

12-25-22. Limitations upon awarding compensation.

     (a) Actions for compensation under this chapter shall be commenced within three (3)

years after the date of the personal injury or death, and no compensation shall be awarded for an

injury or death resulting from a crime which was not reported to the appropriate law enforcement

authority within ten (10) days of its occurrence; provided, that the office shall have the authority

to allow a claim which was not reported pursuant to this section when the victim or secondary

victim was below the age of eighteen (18) years of age or of unsound mind, or for good cause

shown.

     (b) No compensation shall be awarded under this chapter to the victim, or in the case of

death to dependent relatives or to the legal representative, in a total amount in excess of twenty-

five thousand dollars ($25,000) plus any attorney fees awarded upon appeal to the treasurer or to

the superior court pursuant to § 12-25-25.

     (c) No compensation shall be awarded under this chapter to a secondary victim in a total

amount in excess of one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500).

     (c)(d) No compensation shall be awarded when the office, in its discretion, determines

that unjust enrichment to or on behalf of the offender would result. Compensation under this

chapter shall not be awarded to any victim or dependent relative or legal representative if the

award would directly or indirectly inure to the benefit of the offender.

     (d)(e) No interest shall be included in or added to an award of compensation under this

chapter.

     (e)(f) When the plaintiff is the victim's estate, it shall only be awarded compensation for

the victim's actual medical, hospital, funeral, and burial expenses for which the victim or his or

her estate is not compensated by any other source and for the loss of support to the dependents of

the victim.


 

 

 

 

 

113)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-29-5

374 and 385

 

 

12-29-5. Disposition of domestic violence cases. [Effective January 1, 2017.]

     (a) Every person convicted of, or placed on probation for, a crime involving domestic

violence or whose case is filed pursuant to § 12-10-12 where the defendant pleads nolo

contendere, in addition to any other sentence imposed or counseling ordered, shall be ordered by

the judge to attend, at his or her own expense, a batterer's intervention program appropriate to

address his or her violent behavior; provided, however, that the court may permit a

servicemember or veteran to complete any court-approved counseling program administered or

approved by the Veterans' Administration. This order shall be included in the conditions of

probation. Failure of the defendant to comply with the order shall be a basis for violating

probation and/or the provisions of § 12-10-12. This provision shall not be suspended or waived

by the court.

     (b) Every person convicted of, or placed on probation for, a crime involving domestic

violence, as enumerated in § 12-29-2, or whose case if is filed pursuant to § 12-10-12 where the

defendant pleads guilty or nolo contendere, in addition to other court costs or assessments

imposed, shall be ordered to pay a one hundred twenty-five dollar ($125) assessment. Eighty

percent (80%) of the assessment collected pursuant to this section shall be provided to the Rhode

Island Coalition Against Domestic Violence for programs to assist victims of domestic violence

and twenty percent (20%) of the assessment shall be deposited as general revenue.

     (c) (1) Every person convicted of an offense punishable as a misdemeanor involving

domestic violence as defined in § 12-29-2 shall:

     (i) For a second violation, be imprisoned for a term of not less than ten (10) days and not

more than one year.

     (ii) For a third and subsequent violation, be deemed guilty of a felony and be imprisoned

for a term of not less than one year and not more than ten (10) years.

     (2) No jail sentence provided for under this section can be suspended.

     (3) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed as limiting the discretion of the judges to

impose additional sanctions authorized in sentencing.

     (d) The court shall determine, for every person who pleads nolo contendere to, or is

convicted of, an offense involving domestic violence, as enumerated in §12-29-2, whether, as a

result of the plea or conviction, the defendant is prohibited under §11-47-5(a)(3) or §11-47-

5(a)(4) from purchasing, owning, carrying, transporting, or having in their his or her possession

any firearm.

     (1) Prior to the entry of a plea of nolo contendere to an offense involving domestic

violence, as enumerated in §12-29-2, the court shall advise the defendant that a plea of nolo

contendere has the same legal effect and collateral consequences as a plea of guilty.

     (2) Prior to the entry of a plea of nolo contendere to an offense punishable as a felony

involving domestic violence, as enumerated in §12-29-2, or an offense enumerated in §11-47-

5(a)(4), the court shall advise the defendant that, in addition to any other sentence or penalty, the

defendant shall, as result of the plea, be prohibited from purchasing, owning, carrying,

transporting, or having in their possession any firearm under §11-47-5.

     (3) The person required to surrender their his or her firearms pursuant to this section

shall not be responsible for any costs of storage of any firearms surrendered pursuant to this

section.

     (d)(e) For the purposes of this section, "batterers intervention program" means a program

which that is certified by the batterers intervention program standards oversight committee

according to minimum standards, pursuant to §§ 12-29-5.1, 12-29-5.2, and 12-29-5.3.

     (e)(f) For purposes of this section, "servicemember" means a person who is presently

serving in the armed forces of the United States, including the Coast Guard, a reserve component

thereof, or the National Guard. "Veteran" means a person who has served in the armed forces,

including the Coast Guard of the United States, a reserve component thereof, or the National

Guard, and has been discharged under other than dishonorable conditions.

     (f)(g) The court shall indicate on every record of conviction or a plea of nolo contendere

for an offense punishable as a felony involving domestic violence, as defined in § 12-29-2, that

the defendant is prohibited under §§ 11-47-5 and 11-47-5.3 from purchasing, owning, carrying,

transporting, or having in their possession, any firearm(s). The court shall inform the defendant of

their prohibited status and shall order the defendant to surrender any firearm(s) in their

ownership, possession, care, custody or control in accordance with § 11-47-5.3.

     (h) The court shall indicate on every record of conviction or a plea of nolo contendere for

an offense enumerated in §11-47-5(a)(4) that the defendant is prohibited under §§11-47-5 and 11-

47-5.4 from purchasing, owning, carrying, transporting, or having in their possession, any

firearm(s). The court shall inform the defendant of their prohibited status, shall order the

defendant to surrender any firearm(s) in their ownership, possession, care, custody or control, and

shall ensure that surrender is made in accordance with §11-47-5.4.

     (g)(i) No proceeds shall be provided to any person if the firearm(s) is destroyed pursuant

to this section.

     (h)(j) Any firearm(s) used in the commission of the offense leading to the conviction

pursuant to this section shall be forfeited to the state upon conviction.

     SECTION 5. Section 15-15-3 of the General Laws in Chapter 15-15 entitled "Domestic

Abuse Prevention" is hereby amended to read as follows:


 

 

 

114)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-29-5.2

343 and 349

 

 

12-29-5.2. Duties and responsibilities of committee.

     (a) The committee shall have the duties and responsibilities to:

     (1) Establish and promulgate minimum standards for batterers intervention programs

serving persons mandated pursuant to § 12-29-5,; revise the standards as is deemed necessary,;

ensure the standards comport with evidence-informed practices designed to reduce risk,; and

make the standards available to the public, provided that the standards shall include, but not be

limited to, the following:

     (i) Batterers intervention programs shall be conducted using evidence-informed

programming and dosage levels designed to reduce the risk of future violent behavior in the

context of psycho-educational groups, i.e., groups of domestic violence perpetrators led by one or

more professional group leaders trained and experienced in batterers intervention programming

and conducted for the purposes of learning and enacting non-abusive behaviors through didactic

instruction, interaction among participants and leaders, and teaching of skills within the groups;

     (ii) The duration of batterers intervention programs shall be a minimum of forty (40)

contact hours over the course of twenty (20) weeks;

     (iii) Batterers intervention programs shall require that all mandated batterers pay fees for

the programs in accordance with the provisions of § 12-29-5; provided, that programs shall

accommodate varying levels of ability to pay by means of sliding-fee scales and may elect to

offer alternatives to payment in the form of community restitution and/or deferred payment for a

portion of the fees; and

     (iv) Provisions shall be established defining the circumstances under which defendants

who have attended a batterers program while incarcerated, and/or a batterers program in another

jurisdiction which that is certified under that jurisdiction's standards or not subject to standards in

that jurisdiction, may request that their documented participation in such program be accepted in

satisfaction of some portion of their obligation to attend forty (40) hours of a certified batterers

intervention program as described in subdivision subsection 12-29-5.2(a)(1)(ii)(a)(1)(ii).

     (2) Monitor and review batterers intervention programs seeking certification with respect

to compliance with the standards, including periodic, on-site review;

     (3) Certify those batterers intervention programs which that are in compliance with the

standards established pursuant to subdivision (1) of this subsection; subsection (a)(1) ; and

     (4) Investigate and decide appeals, complaints, requests for variances, and post-

enrollment certification applications.

     (b) For purposes of this chapter, "post-enrollment certification applications" means those

applications made to the committee by a batterer mandated to attend a certified batterers

intervention program in accordance with § 12-29-5 who has, prior to adjudication, enrolled in a

program not certified by the committee. The application shall include supporting documentation

from the batterers intervention program and a request that participation in the batterers

intervention program be accepted in lieu of the equivalent number of hours of a certified batterers

intervention program. The committee shall act upon a post-enrollment certification application

within thirty (30) days of receipt of the application.

     (c) The state public safety grant administration office may provide grants to provide for

the access to, and expansion and improvement of, community-based batterers intervention

programs. The batterers intervention standards oversight committee shall make recommendations

to the public safety grant administration policy board regarding the distribution of funds in the

form of grants to programs to cover the costs of delivering quality services to indigent offenders,

and to assist community providers and their staffs to utilize outcome-based best practices and

effective programming methods.


 

 

115)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

13-8-14.1

346 and 352

 

 

13-8-14.1. Parole standards.

     (a) At least once each calendar year the parole board shall adopt standards to be utilized

by the board in evaluating applications for parole of persons convicted of a criminal offense and

sentenced to the adult correctional institutions. These standards shall establish, with the range of

parole eligibility set by statute, the portion of a sentence which should be served depending on the

likelihood of recidivism as determined by a risk assessment, and shall serve as guidelines for the

board in making individual parole determinations.

     (b) The board shall consider the applicable standard prior to rendering a decision on a

parole application, and may make a determination at variance with that standard only upon a

finding that the determination is warranted by individualized factors, such as the character, and

criminal record criminal history, and attitudes of the applicant that bear on the likelihood to

reoffend,; the nature and circumstances of the offense or offenses for which the applicant was

sentenced, the conduct of the applicant while incarcerated, including meaningful participation in a

risk-reducing program and substantial compliance with the rules of the institution, and risk-

reducing behavior and the criteria set forth in § 13-8-14. "Risk-reducing program" means a

program that adheres to those elements that are shown in research to reduce recidivism.

      (c) In each case where the board grants an application prior to the time set by the

applicable standard or denies an application on or after the time set by that standard, the board

shall set forth in writing the rationale for its determination.


 

 

116)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

13-8-19

346 and 352

 

 

13-8-19. Arrest and return to institution on revocation of parole.

     (a) Whenever the permit of a prisoner is revoked, in accordance with the provisions of §

13-8-18.1 the parole board shall order the prisoner to be returned to the adult correctional

institutions or to the women's division of the adult correctional institutions, as the case may be, to

serve the remainder of the prisoner's original sentence according to the terms of that sentence.

     (b) The time between the release of the prisoner under the permit and the prisoner's return

to the adult correctional institutions or the women's division of the adult correctional institutions

under order of the board shall not may be considered as any part of the prisoner's original

sentence. The parole board may choose to credit or revoke all or part of the time while released

under the permit from the original sentence, taking into consideration the seriousness of the

violation that prompted revocation. The board shall adopt standards to be utilized in determining

whether to credit all or part of the time served under the permit from the original sentence.

      (c) If a prisoner is at liberty when the prisoner's permit is revoked, the chairperson shall

issue his or her warrant to any officer authorized to serve criminal process to arrest the prisoner

and return the prisoner to the adult correctional institutions or the women's division of the adult

correctional institutions in accordance with the provisions of § 13-8-18.1 as ordered by the board.

     (d) Where the prisoner is supervised by the parole board pursuant to a grant of parole by

a state or jurisdiction other than Rhode Island, the parole board shall issue a detention warrant

and order the prisoner committed to the adult correctional institution or the women's division of

the adult correctional institution until the authority from the state or other jurisdiction having

granted the prisoner parole takes custody of the prisoner.


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

117)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

13-8.1-3

346 and 352

 

 

13-8.1-3. Definitions.

     (a) "Permanently physically incapacitated" means suffering from a condition caused by

injury, disease, or illness, or cognitive insult such as dementia or persistent vegetative state,

which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty, permanently and irreversibly physically

incapacitates the individual to the extent that the individual needs help with most of the activities

that are necessary for independence such as feeding, toileting, dressing, and bathing and

transferring, or no significant physical activity is possible, and the individual is confined to bed or

a wheelchair.

      (b) "Terminally ill" means suffering from a condition caused by injury (except self-

inflicted injury), disease, or illness which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty, is a life-

limiting diagnosis that will lead to profound functional, cognitive and/or physical decline, and

likely will result in death within six (6) eighteen (18) months.

      (c) "Severely ill" means suffering from a significant and permanent or chronic physical

and/or mental condition that: (1) Requires extensive medical and/or psychiatric treatment with

little to no possibility of recovery; and (2) Precludes significant rehabilitation from further

incarceration.


 

 

118)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

13-8.1-4

346 and 352

 

 

13-8.1-4. Procedure.

     (a) The parole board is authorized to grant release of a prisoner, except a prisoner serving

life without parole, at any time, who is determined to be terminally ill, severely ill, or

permanently physically incapacitated within the meaning of § 13-8.1-3. Inmates who are severely

ill will only be considered for such release when their treatment causes the state to incur

exorbitant expenses as a result of continued and frequent medical treatment during incarceration,

as determined by the office of financial resources of the department of corrections.

     (b) In order to apply for this relief, the prisoner or their his or her family member or

friend, with an attending physician's written approval, or an attending physician, on behalf of the

prisoner, shall file an application with the director of the department of corrections. Within

seventy-two (72) hours after the filing of any application, the director shall refer the application to

the health service unit of the department of corrections for a medical report and a medical

discharge plan to be completed within ten (10) days. Upon receipt of the medical discharge plan,

the director of the department of corrections shall immediately transfer the medical discharge

plan, together with the application, to the parole board for its consideration and decision.

     (c) The report shall contain, at a minimum, the following information:

     (1) Diagnosis of the prisoner's medical conditions, including related medical history;

     (2) Detailed description of the conditions and treatments;

     (3) Prognosis, including life expectancy, likelihood of recovery, likelihood of

improvement, mobility and trajectory, and rate of debilitation;

     (4) Degree of incapacity or disability, including an assessment of whether the prisoner is

ambulatory, capable of engaging in any substantial physical activity, ability to independently

provide for their daily life activities, and the extent of that activity;

      (5) An opinion from the medical director as to whether the person is terminally ill, and if

so, the stage of the illness or whether the person is permanently physically incapacitated or

severely ill. If the medical director's opinion is that the person is not terminally ill, permanently,

physically incapacitated, or severely ill as defined in § 13-8.1-3, the petition for medical parole

shall not be forwarded to the parole board.

     (6) In the case of a severely ill inmate, the report shall also contain a determination from

the office of financial resources that the inmate's illness causes the state to incur exorbitant

expenses as a result of continued and frequent medical treatment during incarceration.

     (d) When the director of corrections refers a prisoner to the parole board for medical

parole, the director shall provide to the parole board a medical discharge plan which that is

acceptable to the parole board.

     (e) The department of corrections and the parole board shall jointly develop standards for

the medical discharge plan that are appropriately adapted to the criminal justice setting. The

discharge plan should ensure at the minimum that:

     (1) An appropriate placement for the prisoner has been secured, including, but not limited

to,: a hospital, nursing facility, hospice, or family home;

     (2) A referral has been made for the prisoner to secure a source for payment of the

prisoner's medical expenses;

     (3) A parole officer has been assigned to periodically obtain updates on the prisoner's

medical condition to report back to the board.

     (f) If the parole board finds from the credible medical evidence that the prisoner is

terminally ill, permanently physically incapacitated, or severely ill, the board shall grant release

to the prisoner but only after the board also considers whether, in light of the prisoner's medical

condition, there is a reasonable probability that the prisoner, if released, will live and remain at

liberty without violating the law, and that the release is compatible with the welfare of society

and will not so depreciate the seriousness of the crime as to undermine respect for the law.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, release may be granted at any time during the term

of a prisoner's sentence.

     (g) There shall be a presumption that the opinion of the physician and/or medical director

will be accepted. However, the applicant, the physician, the director, or the parole board may

request an independent medical evaluation within seven (7) days after the physician's and/or

medical director's report is presented. The evaluation shall be completed and a report, containing

the information required by subsection (b) of this section, filed with the director and the parole

board, and a copy sent to the applicant within fourteen (14) days from the date of the request.

     (h) Within seven (7) days of receiving the application, the medical report and the

discharge plan, the parole board shall determine whether the application, on its face, demonstrates

that relief may be warranted. If the face of the application clearly demonstrates that relief is

unwarranted, the board may deny the application without a hearing or further proceedings, and

within seven (7) days shall notify the prisoner in writing of its decision to deny the application,

setting forth its factual findings and a brief statement of the reasons for denying release without a

hearing. Denial of release does not preclude the prisoner from reapplying for medical parole after

the expiration of sixty (60) days. A reapplication under this section must demonstrate a material

change in circumstances.

     (i) (1) Upon receipt of the application from the director of the department of corrections

the parole board shall, except as provided in subsection (h) of this section, set the case for a

hearing within thirty (30) days;

     (2) Notice of the hearing shall be sent to the prosecutor and the victim(s), if any, of the

offense(s) for which the prisoner is incarcerated, and the prosecutor and the victim(s) shall have

the right to be heard at the hearing, or in writing, or both;

     (3) At the hearing, the prisoner shall be entitled to be represented by an attorney or by the

public defender if qualified or other representative.

     (j) Within seven (7) days of the hearing, the parole board shall issue a written decision

granting or denying medical parole and explaining the reasons for the decision. If the board

determines that medical parole is warranted, it shall impose conditions of release, which that

shall include the following:

     (1) Periodic medical examinations;

     (2) Periodic reporting to a parole officer, and the reporting interval;

     (3) Any other terms or conditions that the board deems necessary; and

     (4) In the case of a prisoner who is medically paroled due to being severely ill, the parole

board shall require electronic monitoring as a condition of the medical parole, unless the health

care plan mandates placement in a medical facility that cannot accommodate the electronic

monitoring.

     (k) If after release the releasee's condition or circumstances change so that he or she

would not then be eligible for medical parole, the parole board may order him or her returned to

custody to await a hearing to determine whether his or her release should be revoked. A release

may also be revoked for violation of conditions otherwise applicable to parole.

     (l) An annual report shall be prepared by the director of corrections for the parole board

and the general assembly. The report shall include:

     (1) The number of inmates who have applied for medical parole;

     (2) The number who have been granted medical parole;

     (3) The nature of the illness of the applicants, and the nature of the placement pursuant to

the medical discharge plan;

     (4) The categories of reasons for denial for those who have been denied;

     (5) The number of releasees on medical parole who have been returned to the custody of

the department of corrections and the reasons for return.


 

 

119)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

14-1-60

69 and 100

 

 

14-1-60. [Repealed]


 

 

120)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

14-4

69 and 100

 

 

CHAPTER 14-4 [Repealed] 

 

 

 


 

 

121)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

15-5-16.2

166 and 311

 

 

15-5-16.2. Child support.

     (a) In a proceeding for divorce, divorce from bed and board, a miscellaneous petition

without the filing of divorce proceedings, or child support, the court shall order either or both

parents owing a duty of support to a child to pay an amount based upon a formula and guidelines

adopted by an administrative order of the family court. If, after calculating support based upon

court established formula and guidelines, the court, in its discretion, finds the order would be

inequitable to the child or either parent, the court shall make findings of fact and shall order either

or both parents owing a duty of support to pay an amount reasonable or necessary for the child's

support after considering all relevant factors including, but not limited to:

     (1) The financial resources of the child;

     (2) The financial resources of the custodial parent;

     (3) The standard of living the child would have enjoyed had the marriage not been

dissolved;

     (4) The physical and emotional condition of the child and his or her educational needs;

and

     (5) The financial resources and needs of the non-custodial parent;, provided, that

establishing a child-support order, incarceration may not be treated as voluntary unemployment.

     (b) The court may, if in its discretion it deems it necessary or advisable, order child

support and education costs for children attending high school at the time of their eighteenth

(18th) birthday and for ninety (90) days after graduation, but in no case beyond their nineteenth

(19th) birthday.

     Notwithstanding the foregoing, the court, in its discretion, may order child support, in the

case of a child with a severe physical or mental impairment still living with or under the care of a

parent, beyond the child's emancipation as defined above. The court shall consider the following

factors when making its determination: (1) tThe nature and extent of the disability; (2) tThe cost

of the extraordinary medical expenses; (3) tThe ability of the child to earn income; (4) tThe

financial resources of the child; (5) tThe financial resources of the parents; (6) tThe inability of

the primary caregiver of the child to sustain gainful employment on a full-time basis due to the

care necessitated by the child. The onset of the disability must have occurred prior to the

emancipation event. If a child support order for a child with a severe physical or mental

impairment has been terminated, suspended, or expired, the court shall consider the factors in this

paragraph and has the discretion to order child support for this child prospectively based upon

established child support guidelines. The court may periodically review the case to determine if

circumstances warrant the continuation of child support.

     (c) (1) The court may, if in its discretion it deems it necessary or advisable, appoint an

attorney or a guardian ad litem to represent the interest of a minor or dependent child with respect

to his or her support, custody, and visitation.

     (i) In determining whether an appointment should be made, the court shall consider the

extent to which a guardian ad litem may assist in providing information concerning the best

interest of the child; the age of the child; the wishes of the parents, as well as their financial

resources; the nature of the proceeding including the level of contentiousness, allegations of child

abuse, or domestic violence and the risk of harm to the child if a guardian is not appointed; or

conflicts of interest between the child and parents or siblings;

     (ii) The guardian ad litem shall be appointed from a list of persons properly credentialed

pursuant to administrative orders of the chief judge of the family court;

     (iii) The court shall enter an order of appointment stating the specific assignment the

optional and mandatory duties of the guardian ad litem, the guardian's access to the child and

confidential information regarding the child, and a provision for payment of the costs and fees of

the guardian ad litem;

     (iv) Communications made to a guardian, including those made by a child, are not

privileged and may or may not be disclosed to the parties, the court, or to professionals providing

services to the child or the family;

     (v) The guardian ad litem shall meet with the child, conduct an investigation, and upon

request of the court, shall prepare an oral or written report that contains the procedural

background of the case, identification of all persons interviewed and other sources of information,

a statement of the child's emotional, medical, educational, and social service needs, the child's

wishes, and other factors relevant to the court's determination regarding the best interests of the

child;

     (vi) Any written report of the guardian ad litem shall be marked as a full exhibit in the

proceedings, subject to cross-examination;

     (vii) If the guardian ad litem requests confidential health care information and consent is

withheld, he or she shall apply to the court for leave to obtain such information after compliance

with § 5-37.3-6.1;

     (viii) The guardian ad litem shall be given notice of and should appear at all proceedings

in family court that affect the interests of the child;

     (ix) A person serving as a guardian ad litem under this section acts as the court's agent

and is entitled to quasi-judicial immunity for acts performed within the scope of the duties of the

guardian ad litem;

     (x) The chief judge of the family court shall issue, through administrative orders, rules

governing the appointment and performance of guardians ad litem in domestic proceedings.

     (2) After a decree for support has been entered, the court may, from time to time upon the

petition of either party, or by the state in accordance with subsection (c)(3) of this section, review

and alter its decree relative to the amount of support and the payment of it, and may make any

decree relative to it which that it might have made in the original suit. The decree may be made

retroactive in the court's discretion only to the date that notice of a petition to modify was given

to the adverse party if the court finds that a substantial change in circumstances has occurred;

provided, that the court shall set forth in its decision the specific findings of fact which that show

a substantial change in circumstances and upon which findings of facts the court has decided to

make the decree retroactive. In modifying the order, incarceration may not be treated as voluntary

unemployment which that would prevent the motion from being heard or result in a denial of the

motion. The child-support order shall continue in full force and effect, by wage withholding, after

the youngest child is emancipated, and shall be applied towards any arrearage due and owing, as

indicated on the child-support computer system. Upon satisfaction of the arrears due and owing

the child-support order shall be automatically suspended and wage withholding terminated

without the necessity of returning to family court.

     (3) When the department of human services, office of child support services, becomes

aware of the fact, through an electronic data exchange of information with the department of

corrections, or by any other means, that the noncustodial parent is or will be incarcerated for one

hundred eighty (180) days or more, the department may automatically file a motion to modify or

a motion for relief, to be heard before the court via a video conference hearing or other type of

hearing. A specific request for the filing of this motion need not be made in writing or otherwise

by the incarcerated, noncustodial parent, but the parent shall be notified of the hearing and

provided a meaningful opportunity to respond. The court shall schedule a hearing to determine

the noncustodial, parent's ability to pay, taking into consideration the assets and financial

resources and any benefits the noncustodial parent may be receiving, the length of the sentence,

and shall modify or suspend all child-support orders, after setting forth in its decision specific

findings of fact, which that show circumstances upon which the court has decided to modify or

suspend all child support orders during the period of incarceration. Upon the obligor's release, the

department of human services, office of child support services, shall file a motion for support, and

a hearing shall be scheduled to determine the obligor's ability to begin paying child support

pursuant to the child support guidelines in effect. This section does not apply to those individuals

who are serving a sentence for criminal nonsupport in state or federal prison, or who are found to

be in civil contempt for failure to pay child support and incarcerated for that reason.

     (d) (1) In a proceeding to enforce a child-support order, or a spousal-support order for a

custodial parent having custody of a minor child, the court or its magistrate may assign to the

obligee such tangible personal property of the obligor that will be sufficient to satisfy the child or

spousal-support arrearage owed. The court or its magistrate, after a hearing, shall establish the

amount of the child-or spousal-support arrearage, and the nature and value of the tangible

personal property. To effect the assignment, the court or its magistrate may order the obligor to

execute and deliver the documents of title which that may be necessary to complete the transfer

of title to the property, and may order the obligor to deliver possession of the property to the

obligee. Whenever the obligor fails to comply with the order assigning the property, the order of

assignment shall be regarded as a judgment vesting title to the property in the obligor as fully and

completely as if the obligor had executed and delivered the documents of title.

     (2) Any order for child support issued by the family court shall contain a provision

requiring either or both parents owing a duty of support to a child to obtain health insurance

coverage for the child when coverage is available to the parent or parents through their

employment without cost or at a reasonable cost. "Reasonable cost" shall be defined in

accordance with guidelines adopted by administrative order of the family court in conjunction

with the child support guidelines.

     (3) Any existing child-support orders may be modified in accordance with this subsection

unless the court makes specific written findings of fact that take into consideration the best

interests of the child and conclude that a child-support order or medical order would be unjust or

inappropriate in a particular case.

     (4) In addition, the national medical support notice shall be issued with respect to all

orders issued, enforced, or modified on or after October 1, 2002, in accordance with chapter 29 of

title 15. The notice shall inform the employer of provisions in the child support order, for health

care coverage for the child, and contain instructions on how to implement this coverage. In lieu of

the court ordering the non-custodial parent to obtain or maintain health care coverage for the

child, the court may order the non-custodial parent to contribute a weekly cash amount towards

the medical premium for health care coverage paid by the state of Rhode Island and/or the

custodial parent. The method to determine a reasonable weekly amount shall be addressed in the

family court administrative order pertaining to the child support guidelines.

     (e) In a proceeding to establish support, the court in its discretion may, after opportunity

for a hearing, issue a temporary order for child support payable into the registry of the court and

to be held pending entry of judgment. In the event of a final adjudication requiring no payment or

payments in an amount less than those payments which that have been made pursuant to a

temporary order under this section, the defendant shall be entitled to a refund of all or a portion of

the amounts paid.

     (f) In any proceeding to establish support, or in any case in which an obligor owes past-

due support, for a child or children receiving public assistance pursuant to chapter 5.1 of title 40,

the court or its magistrate, upon a finding that an able-bodied absent parent obligor is

unemployed, underemployed, or lacks sufficient income or resources from which to make

payment of support equal to the public assistance payment for the child or children, or is unable

to pay the arrearages in accordance with a payment plan, may order that parent to perform unpaid

community service for at least twenty (20) hours per week through community service

placements arranged and supervised by the department of human services or to participate in any

work activities that the court deems appropriate. The performance of community service shall not

be a basis for retroactive suspension of arrears due and owing.

     (g) (1) In any proceeding to establish support for a minor child whose adjudicated parent

is a minor (minor-parent), the court or its magistrate may order a grandparent of the minor child

to reimburse the department of human services in an amount not to exceed the total amount of

cash assistance benefits paid to or for the minor child pursuant to chapter 5.1 of title 40 until the

minor-parent reaches the age of eighteen (18), less any payment made to the department by the

minor parent.

     (2) The obligation of reimbursement for the minor child shall be the joint and several

responsibility of the minor parent and the grandparent(s) until the minor parent reaches the age of

eighteen (18); provided, that each joint obligor shall have a right of contribution against each joint

obligor, which right shall be enforceable by an action in the family court.

     (h) (1) All support orders established or modified in the state on or after October 1, 1998,

shall be recorded with the Rhode Island family court department of human services child-support-

computer-enforcement system, which maintains the official registry of support orders entered in

accordance with applicable administrative orders issued by the Rhode Island family court. The

support order shall be recorded whether or not services are being provided under the IV-D state

plan.

     (2) The obligee to a paternity or child-support proceeding shall be required to file with

the family court, upon the entry of the order, the appropriate form as provided by family court

which that includes the full name of the parties, residential and mailing address, telephone

number, drivers license number, social security number, and the name, address, and telephone

number of the employer. The form shall also include the full order amount and date and amount

of arrearages if any, the name of the child(ren), their date of birth, address, and social security

number, and any other information as required by administrative order.

     (3) After this, each party is required to file an amended form, whenever any of the

information contained on the original form has been changed in any way, within ten (10) days of

the change. The information shall be entered in the child-support-enforcement computer system

within five (5) business days of receipt of the amended form.

     (i) In any subsequent child-support-enforcement action between the parties, upon

sufficient showing that diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of such a party, the

court may deem state due process requirements for notice and service of process to be met with

respect to the party, upon service by first class mail or, where appropriate, by service as specified

in the Rhode Island rules of procedure for domestic relations for the Ffamily Ccourt of Rhode

Island, of written notice to the most recent residential or employer address of record.


 

122)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

15-5-16.7

222 and 334

 

 

15-5-16.7. Review of child support orders.

     (a) For purposes of this section, a "child-support order" means a child-support order

enforceable pursuant to the Rhode Island state plan for support enforcement as further defined in

§ 15-16-5(a).

     (b) Every three (3) years from the date the child-support order was established or

modified, and upon the request of either party, or if there is an assignment under § 40-6-9 upon

the request of the state pursuant to §15-5-16.2(c)(3), the court shall review and, if appropriate,

adjust the order in accordance with the child-support guidelines if the amount of the child-support

award under the order differs from the amount that would be awarded in accordance with the

guidelines. The adjustment of the order shall be made under this subsection without a requirement

for proof or showing of a change in circumstances. In adjusting the order, incarceration may not

be treated as voluntary unemployment which that would prevent the motion from being heard or

result in a denial of the motion. The periodic review of child support orders as provided in this

subsection is in addition to the opportunity for review provided in § 15-5-16.2(c).

     (c) In the case of a request for a review before the three- (3) year (3) period, upon the

request of either party, or upon the request of the state pursuant to §15-5-16.2(c)(3), the amount

of support may, in the court's discretion, be modified if the court finds that a substantial change in

circumstances has occurred in accordance with § 15-5-16.2. The court, in its discretion, may

modify a child-support order retroactively only to the date that notice of a petition to modify was

given to the adverse party if the court finds that a substantial change in circumstances has

occurred; provided, that the court shall set forth in its decision the specific findings of fact which

that show a substantial change in circumstances and upon which findings of facts the court has

decided to make the decree retroactive.


 

 

123)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

15-5-24.3

222 and 334

 

 

15-5-24.3. Visitation rights -- Grandparents and siblings.

     (a) (1) The family court, upon miscellaneous petition of a grandparent for visitation rights

with the petitioner's grandchild, and upon notice to both parents of the child and notice to the

child, and after a hearing on the petition, may grant reasonable rights of visitation of the

grandchild to the petitioner.

     (2) The court, in order to grant the petitioner reasonable rights of visitation, must find and

set forth in writing the following findings of fact:

     (i) That it is in the best interest of the grandchild as determined on a case-by-case basis

that the petitioner is granted visitation rights with the grandchild;.

     In considering whether it is in the child's best interests, the courts shall consider all the

relevant factors including, but not limited to:

     (A) The nature of the relationship between the child and the grandparent seeking

visitation;

     (B) The amount of time the grandparent and child spent together;

     (C) The potential detriments and benefits to the child from granting visitation;

     (D) The potential effect of granting visitation on the parent child relationship;

     (E) The preferences of the grandchild who is of sufficient intelligence, understanding,

and experience to express a preference; and

     (F) The reasons that the parent(s) believe that it is not in their child's best interests to have

visitation with the grandparent(s).

     (ii) That the petitioner is a fit and proper person to have visitation rights with the

grandchild;

     (iii) That the petitioner has repeatedly attempted to visit his or her grandchild during the

thirty (30) days immediately preceding the date the petition was filed and was not allowed to visit

the grandchild during the thirty-(30) day (30) period as a direct result of the actions of either, or

both, parents of the grandchild;

     (iv) That there is no other way the petitioner is able to visit his or her grandchild without

court intervention; and

     (v) That the petitioner, by clear and convincing evidence, has successfully rebutted the

presumption that the parent's decision to refuse the grandparent visitation with the grandchild was

reasonable.

     (vi) The court may assess the reasonable attorney's fees incurred by the parent(s) to the

grandparent(s) if the petition for visitation is denied.

     (b) (1) The family court, upon miscellaneous petition of, or on behalf of, a sibling(s) for

visitation rights with a minor brother(s), and/or step-brother(s), and/or sister(s), and/or step-

sister(s) of the sibling(s) and upon notice to both parents of the minor and notice to the minor, and

after a hearing on the petition, may grant reasonable rights of visitation of the minor to a

sibling(s).

     (2) The court, in order to grant a sibling reasonable rights of visitation, must find and set

forth in writing the following findings of fact:

     (i) That it is in the best interest of the minor that a sibling(s) be granted visitation rights

with the minor;

     (ii) That the sibling(s) is a fit and proper person to have visitation rights with the minor;

     (iii) That the sibling(s) was not allowed to visit the minor during the thirty-(30) day (30)

period immediately preceding the date the petition was filed as a direct result of the actions of

either, or both, parents or guardians of the minor;

     (iv) That there is no other way the sibling(s) is able to visit the minor without court

intervention; and

     (v) That the sibling(s), by clear and convincing evidence, has successfully rebutted the

presumption that the parental decision to refuse the visitation with the minor was reasonable.

     (c) The court may issue all necessary orders relative to the visitation rights it has granted.

Once a petition has been granted, notice of any petition seeking a change in custody or visitation

shall be served on the petitioner.


 

 

124)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

15-15-1

105 and 111

 

 

15-15-1. Definitions.

     The following words as used in this chapter have the following meanings:

     (1)(2) "Courts" means the family court.

     (2)(4) "Domestic abuse" means:

     the occurrence of one or more of the following acts between present or former family

members, parents, stepparents, or persons who are or have been in a substantive dating or

engagement relationship within the past one year in which at least one of the persons is a minor:

     (i) Attempting to cause or causing physical harm;

     (ii) Placing another in fear of imminent serious physical harm; or

     (iii) Causing another to engage involuntarily in sexual relations by force, threat of force,

or duress. ; or

     (iv) Stalking or cyberstalking.

     (3)(6) "Parents" mean persons who together are the legal parents of one or more children,

regardless of their marital status or whether they have lived together at any time.

     (4)(7) "Present or former family member" means the spouse, former spouse, minor

children, stepchildren, or persons who are related by blood or marriage.

     (5)(8) "Sexual exploitation" means the occurrence of any of the following acts by any

person who knowingly or willfully encourages, aids, or coerces any child under the age of

eighteen (18) years:

     (i) Recruiting, employing, enticing, soliciting, isolating, harboring, transporting,

providing, persuading, obtaining, or maintaining, or so attempts, any minor for the purposes of

commercial sex acts or sexually explicit performances; or selling or purchasing a minor for the

purposes of commercial sex acts.

     (A) "Commercial sex act" means any sex act or sexually explicit performance on account

of which anything of value is given, promised to, or received, directly or indirectly, by any

person.

     (B) "Sexually-explicit performance" means an act or show, intended to arouse, satisfy the

sexual desires of, or appeal to the prurient interests of patrons or viewers, whether public or

sexual desires of, or appeal to the prurient interests of patrons or viewers, whether public or

private, live, photographed, recorded, or videotaped.

     (5)(10) "Substantive dating" or "engagement relationship" means a significant and

personal/intimate relationship which shall be adjudged by the court's consideration by the

following factors:

     (i) The length of time of the relationship;

     (ii) The type of relationship; and

     (iii) The frequency of interaction between the parties.

     (6)(9) "Stalking" means harassing another person or willfully, maliciously and repeatedly

following another person with the intent to place that person in reasonable fear of bodily injury;.

     (7)(3) "Cyberstalking" means transmitting any communication by computer to any person

or causing any person to be contacted for the sole purpose of harassing that person or his or her

family;.

     (8)(5) "Harassing" means following a knowing and willful course of conduct directed at a

specific person with the intent to seriously alarm, annoy, or bother the person, and which serves

no legitimate purpose. The course of conduct must be such as would cause a reasonable person to

suffer substantial emotional distress, or be in fear of bodily injury;.

     (9)(1) "Course of conduct" means a pattern of conduct composed of a series of acts over a

period of time, evidencing a continuity of purpose. Constitutionally protected activity is not

included within the meaning of "course of conduct.".


 

 

125)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

15-15-3

111and 105, 374 and 385

 

 

15-15-3. Protective orders -- Penalty – Jurisdiction.

     (a) A person, or a parent, custodian, or legal guardian on behalf of a minor child or the

director of the department of children, youth and families ("DCYF") or their its designee for a

child in the custody of DCYF, pursuant to §§40-11-7 and 40-11-7.1, suffering from domestic

abuse or sexual exploitation as defined in §15-15-1, may file a complaint in the family court

requesting any order which will protect and support her or him from abuse or sexual exploitation

including, but not limited, to the following:

     (1) Ordering that the defendant be restrained and enjoined from contacting, assaulting,

molesting, sexually exploiting, or interfering with the plaintiff at home, on the street, or

elsewhere, whether the defendant is an adult or a minor;

     (2) Ordering the defendant to vacate the household immediately;

     (3) Awarding the plaintiff custody of the minor children of the parties, if any;

     (4) After notice to the respondent and a hearing, ordering either party to make payments

for the support of a minor child or children of the parties as required by law for a period not to

exceed ninety (90) days, unless the child support order is for a child or children receiving public

assistance pursuant to chapter 5.1 of title 40. In these cases, legal counsel for the division of

taxation, child support enforcement, shall be notified as a party in interest to appear for the

purpose of establishing a child support order under a new or existing docket number previously

assigned to the parties and not under the protective docket number. The child support order shall

remain in effect until the court modifies or suspends the order.;

     (5) After notice to the respondent and a hearing, the court in addition to any other

restrictions, may order the defendant to surrender physical possession of all firearms in his or her

possession, care, custody, or control.

     (b) Any individual who accepts physical possession of a firearm pursuant to this section

is prohibited from returning any firearm to any defendant under a restraining order during the

existence of the restraining order. Violation of this provision shall subject both the defendant and

the individual responsible for the return of the firearm to the defendant, to being found in

contempt of court.

     (c) The Family Court shall provide a notice on all forms requesting a protective order

that, at the hearing for a protective order, the defendant may be ordered to surrender physical

possession or control of any firearms and not to purchase or receive, or attempt to purchase or

receive, any firearms for a period not to exceed the duration of the restraining order.

     (d) If the defendant is present in court at a duly noticed hearing, the court may order the

defendant to physically surrender any firearm in that person's immediate possession or control, or

subject to that person's immediate physical possession or control, within twenty-four (24) hours

of the order, by surrendering the possession of the firearm(s) to the control of any individual not

legally prohibited from possessing a firearm(s) who is not related to the defendant by blood,

marriage, or relationship as defined by § 15-15-1(3), (4), or (5), of the Rhode Island general laws,

or by surrendering any firearm(s) to the Rhode Island Sstate Ppolice or local police department,

or by surrendering the firearm(s) to a licensed gun dealer. If the defendant is not present at the

hearing, the defendant shall surrender possession of the firearm(s) within forty-eight (48) hours

after being served with the order. A person ordered to surrender possession of any firearm(s)

pursuant to this subsection shall file with the court a receipt showing the firearm(s) was either

legally transferred to an individual not legally prohibited from possessing a firearm who is not

related to the defendant by blood, marriage, or relationship as defined by § 15-15-1(3), (4), or (5)

of the Rhode Island general laws or surrender to a licensed gun dealer within seventy-two (72)

hours after receiving the order. Any defendant transporting a firearm to surrender in accordance

with the above shall not be liable to prosecution under § 11-47-8.

     (e) Nothing in this section shall limit a defendant's right under existing law to petition the

court at a later date for modification of the order.

     (f) The prohibition against possessing a firearm(s) due solely to the existence of a

domestic violence restraining order issued under this section shall not apply with respect to sworn

peace officers as defined in § 12-7-21 and active members of military service, including members

of the reserve components thereof, who are required by law or departmental policy to carry

departmental firearms while on duty or any person who is required by their employment to carry

a firearm in the performance of their duties. Any individual exempted pursuant to this exception

may possess a firearm only during the course of their employment. Any firearm required for

employment must be stored at the place of employment when not being possessed for

employment use; all other firearm(s) must be surrendered in accordance with § 15-15-3 this

section.

     (g) Upon motion by the plaintiff, his or her address shall be released only at the discretion

of the family court judge.

     (h) (1) Any violation of the protective orders in subsection (a) of this section shall subject

the defendant to being found in contempt of court.

     (2) The contempt order shall not be exclusive and shall not preclude any other available

civil or criminal remedies. Any relief granted by the court shall be for a fixed period of time not

to exceed three (3) years, at the expiration of which time the court may extend any order, upon

motion of the plaintiff, for any additional time, that it deems necessary to protect the plaintiff

from abuse. The court may modify its order at any time upon motion of either party.

     (i) (1) Any violation of a protective order under this chapter of which the defendant has

actual notice shall be a misdemeanor which that shall be punished by a fine of no more than one

thousand dollars ($1,000) or by imprisonment for not more than one year, or both.

     (2) The penalties for violation of this section shall also include the penalties as provided

by § 12-29-5.

     (j) Actual notice means that the defendant has received a copy of the order by service or

by being handed a copy of the order by a police officer pursuant to § 15-15-5(d).

     (k) (1) The district court shall have criminal jurisdiction over all adult violations of this

chapter.

     (2) The family court shall have jurisdiction over all juvenile violations of this chapter.

15-15-3. Protective orders -- Penalty -- Jurisdiction

     (a) A person suffering from domestic abuse may file a complaint in the family court

requesting any order which that will protect and support her or him from abuse, including, but

not limited, to, the following:

     (1) Ordering that the defendant be restrained and enjoined from contacting, assaulting,

molesting, or interfering with the plaintiff at home, on the street, or elsewhere, whether the

defendant is an adult or a minor;

     (2) Ordering the defendant to vacate the household immediately;

     (3) Awarding the plaintiff custody of the minor children of the parties, if any;

     (4) Ordering the defendant to surrender physical possession of all firearms in their his or

her possession, care, custody, or control and shall further order a person restrained not to

purchase or receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, any firearms while the protective order is

in effect. The defendant shall surrender said firearms within twenty-four (24) hours of notice of

the protective order to the Rhode Island state police or local police department or to a federally

licensed firearms dealer.

     (i) A person ordered to surrender possession of any firearm(s) pursuant to this section

shall, within seventy-two (72) hours after being served with the order, either:

     (A) File with the court a receipt showing the firearm(s) was physically surrendered to the

Rhode Island state police or local police department, or to a federally licensed firearms dealer; or

     (B) Attest to the court that, at the time of the order, the person had no firearms in their his

or her immediate physical possession or control, or subject to their immediate physical

possession or control, and that the person, at the time of the attestation, has no firearms in their

immediate physical possession or control, or subject to their immediate physical possession or

control.

     (ii) If a person restrained under this section transfers a firearm(s) to a federally licensed

firearms dealer pursuant to this section, the person restrained under this section may instruct the

federally licensed firearms dealer to sell the firearm(s) or to transfer ownership, in accordance

with state and federal law, to a qualified named individual who is not a member of the person's

dwelling house, who is not related to the person by blood, marriage, or relationship as defined by

§15-15-1(3), and who is not prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The

owner of any firearm(s) sold shall receive any financial value received from their its sale, less the

cost associated with taking possession of, storing, and transferring of the firearm(s).

     (iii) Every individual to whom ownership of a firearm(s) is transferred pursuant to this

subsection shall be prohibited from transferring or returning any firearm(s) to the person

restrained under this section while the protective order remains in effect and shall be informed of

this prohibition, Any knowing violation of this subsection is a felony which that shall be

punishable by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by imprisonment for a

term of not less than one year and not more than five (5) years, or both.

     (iv) An individual to whom ownership of a firearm(s) is transferred pursuant to this

subsection shall return a firearm(s) to the person formerly restrained under this section only if the

person formerly restrained under this section provides documentation issued by a court indicating

that the restraining order issued pursuant to this section that prohibited the person from

purchasing, carrying, transporting, or possessing firearms has expired and has not been extended.

     (4)(5) After notice to the respondent and a hearing, ordering either party to make

payments for the support of a minor child or children of the parties as required by law for a period

not to exceed ninety (90) days, unless the child support order is for a child or children receiving

public assistance pursuant to chapter 5.1 of title 40. In these cases, legal counsel for the division

of taxation, child support enforcement, shall be notified as a party in interest to appear for the

purpose of establishing a child support order under a new or existing docket number previously

assigned to the parties and not under the protective docket number. The child support order shall

remain in effect until the court modifies or suspends the order.

     (5)(b) After notice to the respondent and a hearing, which shall be held within fifteen (15)

days of surrendering said firearms, the court, in addition to any other restrictions, may, order the

defendant to surrender physical possession of all firearms in his or her possession, care, custody

or control. for any protective order issued after or renewed on or after July 1, 2017, continue the

order of surrender, and shall further order a person restrained under this section not to purchase or

receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, any firearms while the protective order is in effect.

     (b) Any individual who accepts physical possession of a firearm pursuant to this section

is prohibited from returning any firearm to any defendant under a restraining order during the

existence of the restraining order. Violation of this provision shall subject both the defendant and

the individual responsible for the return of the firearm to the defendant, to being found in

contempt of court.

     (c) The Family Court shall provide a notice on all forms requesting a protective order

that, at the hearing for a protective order, the defendant may be ordered to surrender physical

possession or control of any firearms and not to purchase or receive or attempt to purchase or

receive any firearms for a period not to exceed the duration of the restraining order. that a person

restrained under this section shall be ordered pursuant to §11-47-5 to surrender possession of any

firearms while the protective order is in effect. The form shall further provide that any person

who has surrender their his or her firearms shall be afforded a hearing within fifteen (15) days of

surrendering their his or her firearms.

     (d) If the defendant is present in court at a duly noticed hearing, the court may order the

defendant to physically surrender any firearm in that person's immediate possession or control, or

subject to that person's immediate physical possession or control, within twenty-four (24) hours

of the order, by surrendering the possession of the firearm(s) to the control of any individual not

legally prohibited from possessing a firearm(s) who is not related to the defendant by blood,

marriage, or relationship as defined by § 15-15-1(3), (4), or (5), of the Rhode Island general laws,

or by surrendering any firearm(s) to the Rhode Island State Police or local police department, or

by surrendering the firearm(s) to a licensed gun dealer. If the defendant is not present at the

hearing, the defendant shall surrender possession of the firearm(s) within forty-eight (48) hours

after being served with the order. A person ordered to surrender possession of any firearm(s)

pursuant to this subsection shall file with the court a receipt showing the firearm(s) was either

legally transferred to an individual not legally prohibited from possessing a firearm who is not

related to the defendant by blood, marriage, or relationship as defined by § 15-15-1(3), (4), or (5)

of the Rhode Island general laws or surrender to a licensed gun dealer within seventy-two (72)

hours after receiving the order. Any defendant transporting a firearm to surrender in accordance

with the above shall not be liable to prosecution under § 11-47-8.

     (d) Any firearm surrendered in accordance with this section to the Rhode Island state

police or local police department shall be returned to the person formerly restrained under this

section upon their his or her request when:

     (1) The person formerly restrained under this section produces documentation issued by a

court indicating that the restraining order issued pursuant to this section that prohibited the person

from purchasing, carrying, transporting, or possessing firearms has expired and has not

been extended; and

     (2) The law enforcement agency in possession of the firearms determined that the person

formerly restrained under this section is not otherwise prohibited from possessing a firearm under

state or federal law.

     (3) The person required to surrender their firearms pursuant to this section shall not be

responsible for any costs of storage of any firearms surrendered pursuant to this section.

     (e) The Rhode Island state police are authorized to develop rules and procedures

pertaining to the storage and return of firearms surrendered to the Rhode Island state police or

local police departments pursuant to this section. The Rhode Island state police may consult with

the Rhode Island Police Chiefs' Association in developing rules and procedures.

     (f) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit, expand, or in any way modify

orders issued under §12-29-7 or §15-5-19.

     (e)(g) Nothing in this section shall limit a defendant's right under existing law to petition

the court at a later date for modification of the order.

     (h) The court shall immediately notify the person suffering from domestic abuse whose

complaint gave rise to the protective order and the law enforcement agency where the person

restrained under this section resides of the hearing.

     (i) The person suffering from domestic abuse, local law enforcement, and the person

restrained under this section shall all have an opportunity to be present and to testify when the

court considers the petition.

     (j) At the hearing, the person restrained under this section shall have the burden of

showing, by clear and convincing evidence, that, if their his or her firearm rights were restored,

they he or she would not pose a danger to the person suffering from domestic abuse or to any

other person.

     (1) In determining whether to restore a person's firearm rights, the court shall examine all

relevant evidence, including, but not limited to: the complaint seeking a protective order; the

criminal record of the person restrained under this section; the mental health history of the person

restrained under this section; any evidence that the person restrained under this section has, since

being served with the order, engaged in violent or threatening behavior against the person

suffering from domestic abuse or any other person.

     (2) If the court determined determines, after a review of all relevant evidence and after

all parties have had an opportunity to be heard, that the person restrained under this section would

not pose a danger to the person suffering from domestic abuse or to any other person if their his

or her firearm rights were restored, then the court may grant the petition and modify the

protective order and lift the firearm prohibition.

     (3) If the court lifts a person's firearms prohibition pursuant to this subsection, the court

shall issue the person written notice that they he or she are no longer prohibited under this

section from purchasing or possessing firearms while the protective order is in effect.

      (f)(k) The prohibition against possessing a firearm(s) due solely to the existence of a

domestic violence restraining order issued under this section shall not apply with respect to sworn

peace officers as defined in § 12-7-21 and active members of military service, including members

of the reserve components thereof, who are required by law or departmental policy to carry

departmental firearms while on duty or any person who is required by their his or her

employment to carry a firearm in the performance of their his or her duties. Any individual

exempted pursuant to this exception may possess a firearm only during the course of their his or

her employment. Any firearm required for employment must be stored at the place of

employment when not being possessed for employment use; all other firearm(s) must be

surrendered in accordance with § 15-15-3.

     (g)(l) Upon motion by the plaintiff, his or her address shall be released only at the

discretion of the family court judge.

     (h)(m) (1) Any violation of the protective orders in subsection (a) of this section shall

subject the defendant to being found in contempt of court.

     (2) The contempt order shall not be exclusive and shall not preclude any other available

civil or criminal remedies. Any relief granted by the court shall be for a fixed period of time not

to exceed three (3) years, at the expiration of which time the court may extend any order, upon

motion of the plaintiff, for any additional time, that it deems necessary to protect the plaintiff

from abuse. The court may modify its order at any time upon motion of either party.

     (i)(n) (1) Any violation of a protective order under this chapter of which the defendant

has actual notice shall be a misdemeanor which shall be punished by a fine of no more than one

thousand dollars ($1,000) or by imprisonment for not more than one year, or both.

     (2) The penalties for violation of this section shall also include the penalties as provided

by § 12-29-5.

     (j)(o) Actual notice means that the defendant has received a copy of the order by service

or by being handed a copy of the order by a police officer pursuant to § 15-15-5(d).

     (k)(p) (1) The district court shall have criminal jurisdiction over all adult violations of

this chapter.

     (2) The family court shall have jurisdiction over all juvenile violations of this chapter.


 

 

126)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

15-23.1-703

64 and 74

 

 

15-23.1-703. Relationship of the state of Rhode Island office of child support services.

The court department of human services - office of child support services of this state is

recognized as the agency designated by the United States central authority to perform specific

functions under the convention.


 

 

127)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

15-23.1-704

64 and 74

 

 

15-23.1-704. Initiation by the Rhode Island department of human services - office of child

support services.

     (a) In a support proceeding under this chapter, the court department of human services -

office of child support services of this state shall:

     (1) Transmit and receive applications; and

     (2) Initiate or facilitate the institution of a proceeding regarding an application in a

tribunal of this state.

     (b) The following support proceedings are available to an obligee under the convention:

     (1) Recognition or recognition and enforcement of a foreign support order;

     (2) Enforcement of a support order issued or recognized in this state;

     (3) Establishment of support order if there is no existing order, including, if necessary,

determination of parentage of a child;

     (4) Establishment of support order if recognition of a foreign support order is refused

under subdivision §§ 15-23.1-708(b)(2), (b)(4), or (b)(9);

     (5) Modification of a support order of a tribunal of this state; and

     (6) Modification of a support order of a tribunal of another state or a foreign country.

     (c) The following support proceedings are available under the convention to an obligor

against which there is an existing support order:

     (1) Recognition of an order suspending or limiting enforcement of an existing support

order of a tribunal of this state;

     (2) Modification of a support order of a tribunal of this state; and

     (3) Modification of a support order of a tribunal of another state or a foreign country.

     (d) A tribunal of this state may not require security, bond, or deposit, however described,

to guarantee the payment of costs and expenses in proceedings under the convention.


 

 

128)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

15-23.1-705

64 and 74

 

 

15-23.1-705. Direct request.

     (a) A petitioner may file a direct request seeking establishment or modification of a

support order or determination of parentage of a child. In the proceeding, the law of this state

applies.

     (b) A petitioner may file a direct request seeking recognition and enforcement of a

support order or support agreement. In the proceeding, §§ 15-23.1-706 -- 15-23.1-713 apply.

     (c) In a direct request for recognition and enforcement of a convention support order or

foreign support agreement:

     (1) A security, bond, or deposit is not required to guarantee the payment of costs and

expenses; and

     (2) An obligee of or obligor that in the issuing country has benefited from free legal

assistance is entitled to benefit, at least to the same extent, from any free legal assistance provided

for by the law of this state under the same circumstances.

     (d) A petitioner filing a direct request is not entitled to assistance from the court

department of human services - office of child support services.

     (e) This chapter does not prevent the application of laws of this state that provide

simplified, more expeditious rules regarding a direct request for recognition and enforcement of a

foreign support order or foreign support agreement.


 

 

129)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-2-2

258 and 264

 

 

16-2-2. City and town schools required -- School year -- Location – Kindergartens.

     (a) (1) Except as specifically provided in this section, every city or town shall establish

and maintain for at least one hundred eighty (180) days annually or the equivalent thereof,

exclusive of holidays, a sufficient number of schools in convenient places under the control and

management of the school committee and under the supervision of the board of regents for

elementary and secondary education Rhode Island Board of Education. In lieu of a convenient

location, the school committee may provide transportation for pupils to and from school in

accordance with the provisions of chapter 21 of this title. Provided, that a school district may

establish a school year which that is the equivalent of one hundred eighty (180) days through the

use of longer school days in terms of hours or pursuant to subsection (c) of this section, and

which that may total less than one hundred eighty (180) separate days, so long as through the use

of the longer school day, the school district annually provides a minimum of one thousand eighty

(1,080) school hours in a single school year. This figure is based on a minimum of six (6) hours

per school day. For purposes of clarification, the intent herein is to permit school districts to

amend their school year to provide for longer school days while reducing the actual number of

days in which the school facilities must be fully staffed and maintained, but to insure that in doing so,

school districts shall still provide the minimum amount of instruction time

contemplated by this section. Nothing herein shall be deemed to limit a school district from

exceeding the minimum amounts of days and hours set forth herein.

     (2) School districts intending to make use of the option provided herein to lengthen

school days and shorten the school year shall submit a detailed school day plan and a proposed

school calendar to the commissioner of elementary and secondary education for approval. The

commissioner shall review the submitted school day plan and the submitted calendar to determine

whether the plan and calendar are academically sound and fiscally efficient. The commissioner

may grant or deny approval of the plan and/or the calendar.

     (b) School facilities shall include a sufficient number of kindergartens.

     (c) On or before December 1, 2017, the department of elementary and secondary

education shall establish a policy that allows a school district to submit a detailed plan, at any

time, to the commissioner of elementary and secondary education that would allow the schools to

conduct instruction through virtual education when the schools have been closed due to inclement weather or

other emergency. The plan for virtual education would be subject to, and require approval by the council

on elementary and secondary education in order to count as a school day.


 

 

130)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-2.1-1

209 and 245

 

 

16-2.1-1. Civic education commission.

There is hereby created a permanent commission to be known as the Rhode Island

Permanent Commission on Civic Education to consist of twenty-four (24) twenty-one (21)

members; three (3) of whom shall be from the house of representatives, not more than two (2)

from the same political party, to be appointed by the speaker; three (3) of whom shall be from the

senate, not more than two (2) from the same political party, to be appointed by the senate

president; one of whom shall be the Rhode Island secretary of state, or designee; two (2) of whom

shall be teachers or representatives of teachers, one of whom shall be a member of the National

Education Association of Rhode Island, to be appointed by the speaker, and one of whom shall be

a member of the American Federation of Teachers, to be appointed by the senate president; one

of whom shall be a member of the Superintendent's Association, or Principal's Association, to be

appointed by the speaker; one of whom shall be the director of the Rhode Island Historical

Society, or designee; one of whom shall be the Rhode Island state archivist, or designee; one of

whom shall be the commissioner of elementary and secondary education, or designee; one of

whom shall be the commissioner of postsecondary education, or designee; one of whom shall be

the director of legislative press and public information bureau, or designee; one of whom shall be

from the Rhode Island Black Heritage Society, to be appointed by the speaker; one of whom shall

be from the Dorcas International Institute of Rhode Island, to be appointed by the senate

president; and one of whom shall be a school librarian/media specialist to be appointed by the

speaker; one of whom shall be a teacher at a parochial/private school institution, to be appointed

by the speaker; one of whom shall be the director of museum and program at the Rhode Island

Heritage Harbor Museum Foundation, or designee; one of whom shall be the director of the Rhode

Island Committee Council for the Humanities, or designee; one of whom shall be the director of

the Pell Center for International Relations and Public Policy, or designee; one of whom shall be

the director of the Rhode Island Latino Civic Fund Progreso Latino, or designee; and one of

whom shall be the executive director of the Civics First Organization, or designee; and one of

whom shall be the director of the Center for Civic Education, or designee.


 

 

131)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-2.1-2

209 and 245

 

 

16-2.1-2. Powers and duties.

     (a) The commission is empowered to appoint committees to study specialized areas of

concern and to report their findings and recommendations to the commission; provided, however,

that one of these committees shall be a Rhode Island history committee.

     (b) All departments and agencies of the state shall furnish advice and information,

documentary and otherwise, to the commission and its agents as may be necessary or desirable to

facilitate the purposes of this chapter.

     (c) The commission shall report its findings and/or recommendations to the speaker of

the house of representatives, the senate majority leader president, and the commission

commissioner of elementary and secondary education.

     (d) Nine (9) Eight (8) members of the commission shall constitute a quorum.

     (e) The commission shall meet at least four (4) two (2) times per year.


 

 

132)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-11.4-4

275 and 292

 

 

16-11.4-4. Policy advisory board on teacher and administrative certification --

General powers and duties.

The advisory board shall:

     (1) Recommend to the commissioners commissioner of elementary and secondary

education and to the board of regents for council on elementary and secondary education

standards for obtaining and maintaining a certificate of qualifications;

     (2) Recommend to the commissioners commissioner of elementary and secondary

education and to the board of regents for council on elementary and secondary education

standards for the revocation or suspension of a certificate of qualifications and the standards for

the reinstatement of a suspended or revoked certificate of qualifications;

     (3) Recommend to the commissioners commissioner of elementary and secondary

education and to the board of regents for council on elementary and secondary education the

adoption or revision of rules and regulations consistent with law as may be necessary to regulate

teacher and administrator certification pursuant to chapter 11 of this title;

     (4) Recommend to the commissioners commissioner of elementary and secondary

education, commissioner of postsecondary education and to the board of regents for councils on

elementary and secondary education and postsecondary education standards for teacher and

administrator preparation programs in this state and standards for the evaluation of teacher and

administrator preparation programs in this state. The commissioner of elementary and secondary

education and the commissioner of postsecondary education shall provide a report to the

presidents of the Uuniversity of Rrhode Iisland and Rrhode Iisland Ccollege, the president of the

senate and the speaker of the house of representatives that outlines the recommendations of the

advisory board and what, if any, action was taken by October 31, 2017.


 

 

133)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-16-26

412 and 413

 

 

16-16-26. Spouse's or domestic partner's benefits. -- (a) Spouse's and domestic

partner's benefits are payable following the decease of a member as provided in §§ 16-16-25-

through 16-16-38. (b) The spouse or domestic partner shall be entitled to benefits upon attaining

the age of sixty (60) years. (c) The spouse or domestic partner was living with the deceased

member at the time of the member's death. A spouse or domestic partner is deemed to have been

living with the deceased member if they were both members of the same household on the date of

the deceased member's death, or the spouse or domestic partner was receiving regular

contributions from the deceased member toward support on that date, or the deceased member

had been ordered by a court to contribute to the spouse's or domestic partner's support. (d)

Remarriage of the spouse or domestic partner or establishment of a domestic partnership shall

render him or her ineligible to receive current or future benefits under this section. (e) The

spouse or domestic partner of a member, as defined in this section, shall be entitled to monthly

benefits payable in accordance with the following table:

Highest Annual Salary Spouse's or Domestic Partner's Monthly Minimum Benefit

$17,000 or less $750 825

$17,001 to $25,000 $875 963

$25,001 to $33,000 1,000 $1,100

$33,001 to $40,000 1,125$1,238

$40,001 and over 1,250 $1,375

     (f) A yearly cost-of-living adjustment for spouse's or domestic partner's benefits shall be

based on the annual social security adjustment.


 

 

134)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-16-35

412 and 413

 

 

16-16-35. Contributions.

     (a) The cost of the benefits provided in §§ 16-16-25 -- 16-16-38 shall be two percent

(2%) of the member's annual salary up to but not exceeding an annual salary of ninety-six

hundred dollars ($9,600) eleven thousand five hundred dollars ($11,500); one-half (1/2) of the

cost shall be contributed by the member by deductions from his or her salary, and the other half

(1/2) shall be contributed and paid by the respective city, town, or school district by which the

member is employed. These contributions shall be in addition to the contributions provided in §

16-16-22 and shall be paid into the teachers' survivors benefit fund created by §§ 16-16-25 -- 16-

16-38 in the same manner as contributions are made under the provisions of § 16-16-22.

     (b) In the event the market value of the Tteachers' Ssurvivor Bbenefit Pplan assets shall

decrease below one hundred and twenty (120%) one hundred (100%) percent of the Tteachers'

Ssurvivor Bbenefit Pplan liabilities as reported by a qualified actuary pursuant to § 16-16-37, the

retirement board shall determine and fix the amount of contributions necessary to maintain a

funding level of not less than one hundred and twenty (120%) one hundred (100%) percent of

assets to liabilities ratio. Any adjusted cost of the benefits provided in §§ 16-16-25 -- 16-16-38

shall be paid for by the member by deduction from his or her salary. These contributions shall be

in addition to the contributions provided in § 16-16-22 and shall be paid into the teachers'

survivors benefit fund created by §§ 16-16-25 -- 16-16-38 in the same manner as contributions

are made under the provisions of § 16-16-22; provided, however, that payments to compensate

for asset-to-liability ratios less than one hundred (100%) percent shall be amortized over

individual ten-(10) year (10) close periods. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this

chapter or in any other provision of Rhode Island law, no benefit enhancements, beyond the

current provisions within §§16-16-25 through 16-16-38, shall be granted until the market value of

the Tteachers' Ssurvivor Bbenefit Pplan assets shall increase above one hundred and twenty

(120%) percent of the Tteachers' Ssurvivor Bbenefit Pplan liabilities as reported by a qualified

actuary pursuant to §16-16-37.


 

 

 

 

135)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-21-23

19 and 32

 

 

16-21-23. School safety teams, school crisis response teams, and school safety

Assessments.

     (a) Each school district of each town, city, and regional school department shall conduct a

school safety assessment in conjunction with local police, fire, school safety team pursuant to the

provisions of this § 16-21-23 section and any other expert said school department deems

necessary. The assessment shall examine the current status of each school building's safety and

shall be performed within thirty (30) days of passage of this act, and every three (3) years

thereafter. The assessment shall be completed by November 1 of the year mandated, and by

December 31 of that year, the commissioner of elementary and secondary education shall report

to the speaker of the house, the senate president, and the governor that such assessments have

been completed. Assessments performed within a year of the date of passage of this act shall

satisfy this requirement. All meetings regarding the school safety assessment are not subject to

the open meetings law pursuant to chapter 46 of title 42, and documents produced including, but

not limited to, meeting minutes and the school safety assessment are not subject to the access to

public records law pursuant to chapter 2 of title 38.

     (b) The school committee of each town, city, and regional school department shall review

and adopt in executive session a comprehensive school safety plan regarding crisis intervention,

emergency response, and management. The plan shall be developed by a school safety team

comprised of representatives of the school committee, representatives of student, teacher, and

parent organizations, school safety personnel, school administration, and members of local law

enforcement, fire, and emergency personnel. Members of the school safety team shall be

appointed by the school committee and/or school superintendent of the town, city, or regional

school district. In creating the school safety plan, the school safety team(s) shall consult the

model school safety plan developed by the department of elementary and secondary education

pursuant to § 16-21-23.1.

     (c) The school crisis response team shall be comprised of those selected school personnel

willing to serve as members of a psychological response team to address the psychological and

emotional needs of the school community, and may seek mental health resources from the

department of elementary and secondary education. Members of the school crisis response team

may coordinate mental health services for those students and school employees affected by acts

of violence in the schools, using resources available through the department of elementary and

secondary education.


 

 

136)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-22-4

107 and 115

 

 

16-22-4. Instruction in health and physical education.

     (a) All children in grades one through twelve (12) attending public schools, or any other

schools managed and controlled by the state, shall receive in those schools instruction in health

and physical education under rules and regulations the department of elementary and secondary

education may prescribe or approve during periods which that shall average at least twenty (20)

minutes in each school day. No private school or private instruction shall be approved by any

school committee for the purposes of chapter 19 of this title as substantially equivalent to that

required by law of a child attending a public school in the same city and/or town unless

instruction in health and physical education similar to that required in public schools shall be

given. Commencing September 1, 2012, the required health education curriculum shall be based

on the health education standards of the Rhode Island Health Education Framework: Health

Literacy for All Students as promulgated by the Rhode Island department of education and

consistent with the mandated health instructional outcomes therein. Commencing September 1,

2012, the required physical education curriculum shall be based on the physical education

standards of the Rhode Island Physical Education Framework: Supporting Physically Active

Lifestyles through Quality Physical Education as promulgated by the Rhode Island department of

education and consistent with the instructional outcomes therein.

      (b) The department of elementary and secondary education shall consider, in

consultation with the state department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and

hospitals, the incorporation of substance abuse prevention and suicide prevention into the health

education curriculum. For the purpose of this section, "substance abuse prevention" means the

implementation of evidence-based, age appropriate programs, practices, or curricula related to the

use and abuse of alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs; "suicide prevention" means the

implementation of evidence-based appropriate programs, practices, or curricula related to mental

health awareness and suicide prevention.


 

 

137)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-22-28

228 and 256

 

 

16-22-28. Instruction in media literacy.

     The department of elementary and secondary education shall consider, in consultation

with national or statewide organizations focused on media literacy, the incorporation of media

literacy education into the board of education’s basic education program regulations.

     For the purposes of this section, "media literacy" means the ability to access, analyze,

evaluate, create, and communicate using a variety of forms, including, but not limited to, print,

visual, audio, interactive, and digital texts.


 

 

138)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-24-1

200 and 237

 

 

16-24-1. Duty of school committee to provide special education.

     (a) In any city or town where there is a child with a disability within the age range as

designated by the regulations of the state board of regents for elementary and secondary

education, who is functionally limited to such an extent that normal educational growth and

development is prevented, the school committee of the city or town where the child resides shall

provide the type of special education that will best satisfy the needs of the child with a disability,

as recommended and approved by the state board of regents for elementary and secondary

education in accordance with its regulations governing the education of children with disabilities.

     (b) Notwithstanding any other federal or state law or regulation, the school committee

where a parentally placed child who has, or develops, a disability in private school resides, shall

provide the child with the same free and appropriate education as it provides to children in public

schools. These children shall have the same rights and remedies in the regulations of the board of

regents for elementary and secondary education governing the education of children with

disabilities as children in public school relative to initially determining eligibility,

implementation, and/or any other rights and remedies relative to any special education services

the child may be eligible or receive from the public school district.

     (c) For the purpose of this statute, a parentally placed child who has, or develops, a

disability in private school is defined as a child enrolled or placed in a private school by the

unilateral decision of his or her parents and without consolation of the public school district, who

either has, or at some point while at the private school is diagnosed with, a learning disability.

Parents who unilaterally enroll their child in a private school are required to pay the tuition costs

related to the child's education that are unrelated to the child's disability, and the public school

district where the child resides is responsible for payment of the services related to the child's

disability as developed and determined in the child's individual education plan.

     (d) For the purpose of this statute, a free and appropriate education is defined as special

education services and related services that:

     (1) Are provided at public expense, under public supervision and direction, and without

charge;

     (2) Meet all of the standards and requirements of the state of Rhode Island department of

education and requirements of the regulations of the board of regents for elementary and

secondary education governing the education of children with disabilities, which shall include

initial evaluation and determination procedures;

     (3) Include preschool, elementary school, or secondary school education in the state; and

     (4) Are provided in conformity with an individualized education program that meets the

requirements of the regulations of the board of regents for elementary and secondary education

governing the education of children with disabilities.

     (e) In those cases that an individual education plan has been adopted for a child and the

child moves to another town or city, the plan shall remain in effect until a new plan is adopted for

the child in the new town or city.

     (f) A child with a disability as referenced in subsection (a) of this section shall have

available to them any benefits provided by this section up to their twenty-first birthday, in

accordance with the student’s individualized education program (IEP). Provided, in the event

such a child with a disability is enrolled in a postsecondary or transitional educational program

as part of the services provided to the child by the school committee or local education agency

(LEA), and such child reaches twenty-one (21) years of age during a school or program year, then

the school committee's or LEA's obligation to pay for the post-secondary or transitional program

shall continue through to the conclusion of the school or program's academic year, in accordance

with the student's individualized education programNot later than sixty (60) calendar days prior

to the child turning twenty-one (21) years of age, the local educational agency (LEA) shall

provide the child and the parent or guardian with notice explaining the rights under this section

that remain in effect at age twenty-one (21). Further, not later than sixty (60) calendar days prior

to the child turning twenty-one (21) years of age, the state adult service agencies responsible for

planning, funding and providing services and supports for adults with developmental disabilities,

including the state office of rehabilitation services (ORS) and the state department of behavioral

healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals (BHDDH), shall provide the child and the

parent or guardian with notice of the obligations and responsibilities that the respective agency

owes to eligible recipients along with a level of funding and/or an individual support plan for the

child twenty-one (21) years of age to receive. Students who require more extensive care will

remain under the direction of the department of rehabilitative services and will be transitioned

through the individual education plan prior to reaching age twenty-one (21). This section shall not

be used to delay or defer the obligation of a state agency responsible for providing services to this

population.


 

 

139)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-40-1

50 and 58

 

 

16-40-1. Approval of secondary and higher schools  -- Certification to secretary of state.

     (a) No academy, college, university, or other institution of secondary or higher education

shall be incorporated or established in this state or be permitted to transact business, unless

exempt pursuant to § 16-40-10, within this state unless and until:

     (1) Suitable provision, approved by the council on elementary and secondary education

or the council on postsecondary education, shall be made that the academy, college, university, or

institution is in compliance with the provisions of this chapter and with the regulations and

standards for approval adopted by the appropriate council or full board to implement this chapter;

and

     (2) For institutions offering an associates degree or higher, the institution has initiated

discussions, that are evidenced by a writing, with the New England Association of Schools and

Colleges (NEASC) regarding potential accreditation. ; or

     (3) For distance-learning purposes only, a degree-granting institution has full

accreditation by a regional accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of

Education and equivalent to NEASC.

     (b) The secretary of state, upon the receipt by him or her under the provisions of the

general laws of articles of association purporting to establish an educational institution, shall

transmit the articles of association to the appropriate council and shall not issue the certificate of

incorporation provided by the general laws unless and until the commissioner of elementary and

secondary education or the commissioner of the office of post-secondary postsecondary

education shall file with the secretary of state a certificate over his or her signature that the

appropriate council has approved the application for incorporation as complying with the

requirements of this section.


 

 

140)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-40-2

50 and 58

 

 

16-40-2. Authority to grant degrees not presumed.

Authority to grant academic, collegiate, professional, or other degrees recognizing

learning, scholarship, or achievement shall not be included in, or presumed to be part of, the

functions of a corporation or of an institution of education unless its charter or the articles of

association shall specifically indicate that the institution is nonprofit and specifically indicate the

power to grant degrees and the nature of the degrees to be granted; and no corporation or

association shall grant academic, collegiate, professional, or similar degrees without specific

authorization; and for institutions offering an associates degree or higher, has have received full

New England Association of Schools and Colleges (NEASC) accreditation or for distance-

learning purposes only, a degree-granting institution has full accreditation by a regional

accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education and equivalent to

NEASC within five (5) years of its incorporation or establishment within this state or five (5)

years of being permitted to transact business within this state unless exempt pursuant to § 16-40-

10.


 

 

141)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-60-4

275 and 292

 

 

16-60-4. Council on elementary and secondary education -- Powers and duties.

     (a) The Ccouncil on Eelementary and Ssecondary Eeducation shall have in addition to

those enumerated in § 16-60-1, the following powers and duties:

     (1) To approve a systematic program of information gathering, processing, and analysis

addressed to every aspect of elementary and secondary education in this state especially as that

information relates to current and future educational needs so that current needs may be met with

reasonable promptness and plans formulated to meet future needs as they arise in the most

efficient and economical manner possible.;

     (2) To approve a master plan implementing the broad goals and objectives for elementary

and secondary education in the state that have been established by the board of education. These

goals and objectives shall be expressed in terms of what men and women should know and be

able to do as a result of their educational experience. The council on elementary and secondary

education shall continually evaluate the efforts and results of education in the light of these

objectives.;

     (3) To adopt standards and require enforcement and to exercise general supervision over

all elementary and secondary public and nonpublic education in the state as provided in

subdivision subsection(8) of this section. The council on elementary and secondary education shall not

engage in the operation or administration of any subordinate committee, local school district,

school, school service, or school program, except its own department of elementary and

secondary education, and except as specifically authorized by an act of the general assembly. The

adoption and submittal of the budget and the allocation of appropriations, the acquisition,

holding, disposition, and general management of property shall not be construed to come within

the purview of the preceding prohibition. The council on elementary and secondary education

shall communicate with, and seek the advice of, the commissioner of elementary and secondary

education and all those concerned with and affected by its determinations as a regular procedure

in arriving at its conclusions and in setting its policy.;

     (4) To allocate and coordinate the various educational functions among the educational

agencies of the state and local school districts and to promote cooperation among them so that

maximum efficiency and economy shall be achieved.;

     (5) (i) To prepare, with the assistance of the commissioner of elementary and secondary

education, and to present annually to the state budget officer, in accordance with § 35-3-4, a total

educational budget for the elementary and secondary sector which that shall include, but not be

limited to, the budgets of the department of elementary and secondary education, subordinate

boards and agencies, and state aid to local school districts. Prior to submitting the budget as

required by the budget office instructions and this subsection, the council shall present the budget

to the board of education for review and approval.; and

     (ii) In the preparation of the budget, the council on elementary and secondary education

shall implement the priorities established by the board of education of expenditures for

elementary and secondary education purposes of state revenues and other public resources made

available for the support of public elementary and secondary education among the various

education agencies of the state. Nothing contained in this section shall authorize any individual or

group of individuals to reallocate resources in a manner other than that prescribed in the budget as

appropriations by the general assembly.

     (6) To maintain a department of elementary and secondary education, to provide for its

staffing and organization, and to appoint a commissioner of elementary and secondary education

pursuant to § 16-60-6 who shall serve at its pleasure. The commissioner of elementary and

secondary education and the department of elementary and secondary education shall have any

duties and responsibilities as defined in §§ 16-60-6 and 16-60-7.;

     (7) To establish other educational agencies or subcommittees necessary or desirable for

the conduct of any or all aspects of elementary and secondary education and to determine all

powers, functions, and composition of any agencies or subcommittees and to dissolve them when

their purpose shall have been fulfilled; provided that nothing contained in this subdivision shall

be construed to grant the council the power to establish subcommittees or agencies performing

the duties and functions of local school committees except as provided in § 16-1-10.;

     (8) To exercise the authority previously vested in the board of regents for education with

relation to secondary nonpublic educational institutions within the state under the terms of

chapter 40 of this title and other laws affecting nonpublic education in the state, and to cause the

department of elementary and secondary education to administer the provisions of that section.

     (9) To exercise all the functions, powers and duties which that previously were vested in

the board of regents for education, under the provisions of former § 16-49-4(9), including but not

limited to the following specific functions:

     (i) To approve the basic subjects and courses of study to be taught and instructional

standards required to be maintained in the public elementary and secondary schools of the state.;

     (ii) To adopt standards and qualifications for the certification of teachers and to provide

for the issuance of certificates, and to establish fees for the certification of teachers. The fees

collected for the certification of teachers, along with various education licensing and testing fees,

shall be deposited by the council on elementary and secondary education as general revenues.

The funds appropriated by the general assembly shall be utilized by the department of elementary

and secondary education to establish and support programs which that enhance the quality and

diversity of the teaching profession. The commissioner of elementary and secondary education

shall regularly make recommendations to the board about specific programs and projects to be

supported by those funds. The commissioner shall oversee the funds, assess the effectiveness of

its programs and projects, and make recommendations about the general use and operation of the

funds to the board.;

     (iii) To be responsible for the distribution of state school funds.;

     (iv) To determine the necessity of school construction and to approve standards for

design and construction of school buildings throughout the state.;

     (v) To set standards for school libraries and school library services.;

     (vi) To make recommendations relative to transportation of pupils to school, school bus

routes, time schedules, and other matters relating to pupil transportation.;

     (vii) To enforce the provisions of all laws relating to elementary and secondary

education.;

     (viii) To decide and determine appeals from decisions of the commissioner.;

     (ix) To prescribe forms for the use of local school committees and local officers when

reporting to the department of elementary and secondary education.;

     (x) To adopt and require standard accounting procedures for local school districts, except

as provided for in subdivision (3) of § 16-24-2.; and

     (xi) To adopt and require standard uniform operating and capital budgeting procedures

for local school districts.

     (10) To establish rules for the approval and accrediting of elementary and secondary

schools.;

     (11) To recommend to the general assembly changes in the size and number of the school

districts within the state; and to make any further and other recommendations to the general

assembly as the council on elementary and secondary education may determine to be necessary

or desirable, including, but not limited to, proposals for incentives for the coordination of services

and facilities of certain school districts and the feasibility of granting taxing authority to local

school committees upon their request, and the impact upon the quality of education within that

particular community by granting the request. In carrying out this duty, the council on elementary

and secondary education shall periodically issue reports in school district organizations for

selected regions and school districts.;

     (12) To exercise all other powers with relation to the field of elementary and secondary

education within this state not specifically granted to any other department, board, or agency, and

not incompatible with law, which the council on elementary and secondary education may deem

advisable.;

     (13) To exercise the authority previously vested in the board of regents for education with

relation to adult education as defined in § 16-58-2[repealed] and to establish definitive goals for and operate

a comprehensive delivery system for adult education programs and services, including the

counseling and testing of persons interested in obtaining high school equivalency diplomas, the

issuance of diplomas, and the maintenance of a permanent record of applications, tests, and

equivalency diplomas.;

     (14) To promote maximum efficiency and economy in the delivery of elementary and

secondary educational services in the state.;

     (15) To approve a training program for school committee members to enhance their

individual skills and their effectiveness as a corporate body. The training program should include,

but not be limited to, the following roles and responsibilities of school committees: strategic

planning, human and community relations, and school finance and budgeting.;

     (16) Within ninety (90) days after the end of each fiscal year, the board shall submit an

annual report to the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of the

senate of its activities during that fiscal year. The report shall provide: an operating statement

summarizing meetings or hearings held, subjects addressed, decisions rendered, rules or

regulations promulgated, studies conducted, policies and plans developed, approved, or modified,

and programs administered or initiated; a consolidated financial statement of all funds received

and expended including the source of the funds, a listing of any staff supported by these funds,

and a summary of any clerical, administrative or technical support received; a summary of

performance during the previous fiscal year including accomplishments, shortcomings and

remedies; a synopsis of hearings, complaints, suspensions, or other legal matters related to the

authority of the council; a briefing on anticipated activities in the upcoming fiscal year; and

findings and recommendations for improvements. The director of the department of

administration shall be responsible for the enforcement of the provisions of this subsection.;

     (17) To prepare with the assistance of the commissioner a multi-year plan of priority

educational goals and objectives. This plan should recommend policy objectives, implementation

strategies, and a timetable for major policy initiatives.;

     (18) Each year the governor shall by writing notify the council on elementary and

secondary education concerning broad economic, cultural, and social needs that the education

system needs to consider which the board shall address in developing educational plans and

programs.;

     (19) Appoint a standing committee that will develop a schedule to systematically review

all council policies over a three-(3) year (3) period.;

     (20) To prepare, with the assistance of the commissioner, a statement of regulatory

policy. This policy should set forth the goals and objectives of state regulations which are

expressed in terms of what educational inputs and outputs the board expects regulations to

address.;

     (21) (i) To prepare, with the assistance of the commissioner of elementary and secondary

education, and to present annually to the general assembly by January 1 a report on school

discipline in Rhode Island schools. This report shall include:;

     (A) Expulsions by district, including duration and the reason for each action.;

     (B) Suspensions by district, including duration and the reason for each action.;

     (C) Placements to alternative programs for disciplinary reasons.;

     (D) Assaults of teachers, students, and school staff by students.;

     (E) Incidents involving possession of weapons on school property. For the purpose of this

section, a weapon shall be considered any of those weapons described in §§ 11-47-2 and 11-47-

42.;

     (F) Incidents of the sale of controlled substances by students.;

     (G) Incidents of the possession with the intent to sell controlled substances by students.;

     (H) Additional demographic information including, but not limited to, the ethnic and

racial classifications, age, and gender, as prescribed by the commissioner, of each of the students

involved in the incidents, events or actions described in subparagraphs (A) through (G) of this

subdivision.; and

     (I) A description of the education program provided to each student suspended for over

ten (10) consecutive school days in a school year.

     (ii) All school superintendents shall supply the necessary information on forms

established by the commissioner of elementary and secondary education to the council on

elementary and secondary education to assist in the preparation of the council's report on school

discipline.

     (22) To prepare and promulgate a uniform statewide school reporting system which

would provide information including, but not limited to, the following:

     (i) Student and teacher attendance rates;

     (ii) Standardized test scores;

     (iii) Demographic profiles;

     (iv) Results of polls of students, parents, and teachers;

     (v) Descriptions of goals, initiatives, and achievements;

     (vi) Best teaching practices;

     (vii) Alternative student assessments;

     (viii) Special programs; and

     (ix) Number of student suspensions and teacher grievances and the amount of parental

involvement.

     (23) [Deleted by P.L. 2014, ch. 145, art. 20, § 7].

     (b) The council shall identify the benefit to students regarding the action that is taken in

executing its duties.


 

 

142)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-70

227 and 239

 

 

CHAPTER 16-70

THE COLLEGE CRUSADE SCHOLARSHIP [SEE TITLE 16 CHAPTER 97 - THE RHODE

ISLAND BOARD OF EDUCATION ACT]


 

 

143)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-73-1

215 and 257

 

 

16-73-1. Legislative findings.

It is found and declared that:

      (1) All children are capable of success and schools are the centers of vibrant

communities. The growing social needs of children directly affect their ability to perform

successfully in school because health, emotional, social, and family problems can impede

learning.

      (2) Schools are most effective when families take active roles in the education of

children. Community schools are in a unique position to provide the vital links between

education, social services, and health care to children and their families.

      (3) It is important that schools be assisted in fulfilling the critical function of

coordinating the delivery of comprehensive social services at or near the site of public schools to

address the particular needs of each school community.


 

 

144)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-73-1.1

215 and 257

 

 

16-73-1.1. Definition.

"Child opportunity zone", Rhode Island's community school initiative, means a site at or

near a school that provides: early childhood initiatives; before-school, after-school, and summer

enrichment programs; health and mental health services; parent engagement, adult education,

workforce development training; or any combination of these programs based upon the students

and the community's needs.


 

 

145)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-73-2

215 and 257

 

 

16-73-2. Creation of plan.

The commissioner of elementary and secondary education, under the direction of the

board of regents for elementary and secondary education, and in cooperation with directors of the

departments of health, administration, children, youth, and families, mental health, retardation,

and hospitals, and the office of higher education (after this referred to as the The children's

cabinet) shall develop a incorporate into its strategic plan for creating "child opportunity zones"

as a means to deliver comprehensive and coordinated social services at or near public school

sites. , and pursuant to this, The commissioner of elementary and secondary education shall

undertake activities including, but not limited to, the award of demonstration, planning, and

training and administration of grants to further the purpose set forth in this chapter.


 

 

146)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-73-5

215 and 257

 

 

16-73-5. Purpose.

The purpose of child opportunity zones is to implement programs related to the specific

community needs that ultimately increase student performance in school. The child opportunity

zone shall provide a means to integrate education, health, and social services into schools and link

families to the school and community resources. The child opportunity zone may operate

programs, including, but not limited to: early childhood initiatives; before-school, after-school

and summer enrichment; family engagement initiatives; adult education and family literacy

programs based upon community needs.


 

 

147)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-73-6

215 and 257

 

 

16-73-6. Reporting.

The department of elementary and secondary education shall provide an annual report by

August 1 of each year to the president of the senate and speaker of the house of representatives

regarding the number of children and families served, and appropriate outcome data for each

program operated by a child opportunity zone.


 

 

148)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-91.1

338 and 355

 

 

CHAPTER 91.1

THE SUDDEN CARDIAC ARREST PREVENTION ACT


 

 

149)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-108

102 and 108

 

 

CHAPTER 16-108

ALL STUDENTS COUNT ACT


 

 

150)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-109

229 and 318

 

 

CHAPTER 16-109

STUDENT JOURNALISTS' FREEDOM OF EXPRESSION ACT


 

 

 

 

 

 

151)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-9.1-7

226 and 321

 

 

17-9.1-7. Registration at the division of motor vehicles.

     (a) Every person applying at the division of motor vehicles for a driver's license or a

renewal of the license, or personal identification document issued by the division of motor

vehicles, and who is or may be by the next general election qualified to vote, shall be afforded the

opportunity to register registered to vote, or if previously registered, be afforded the opportunity

to change their address for voting purposes.

     (b) The application to register to vote must be offered simultaneously with the application

for the driver's license or renewal of it or personal identification document. Division of motor

vehicles employees must provide to applicants for driver's licenses, license renewal, or personal

identification documents the same level of assistance and instruction with respect to the

application to register to vote as is provided with respect to the application for driver's licenses,

renewal of the license, or personal identification documents; provided, that separate signatures

one signature shall may be required sufficient on the application for driver's license, renewal of

the license, or personal identification document and the application to register to vote. The

applicant may shall be afforded the opportunity to decline to register to vote by failing to sign the

voter registration formIf previously registered, the applicant shall be afforded the opportunity to

change their his or her address for voting purposes. In order to protect the privacy of those who

do not wish to register to vote for any reason, the failure of an applicant for a driver's license or

renewal of it or a personal identification document to sign the voter registration form register to

vote may not be used for any purposes other than to determine the person's voter registration

status.

     (c) (1) The voter registration application shall contain the registrant's name, residence

address, mailing address if different from residence address, date of birth, and registrant's

signature and date of affixation of signature, and may include any other information,

certifications, and declarations, including those made under the penalty of perjury, that may be

required by the state board in order to administer a single and unified system of voter registration

in accordance with applicable state and federal laws which that shall enable duly registered

voters to vote in all elections in their respective voting districts including, elections for federal

officers. The voter registration application must also include, in print identical to that used in the

attestation portion of the form, the following:

     (i) The penalties provided by law for submitting a false voter registration;

     (ii) A statement that, if the applicant declines to register to vote, his or her decision will

remain confidential and be used only for voter registration purposes; and

     (iii) A statement that, if the applicant does register to vote, information regarding the

office or branch of the division of motor vehicles to which the application was submitted will

remain confidential, to be used only for voter registration purposes.

     (2) It shall be the responsibility of the division of motor vehicles to print and to have

available at all times a sufficient number of voter registration forms in order to carry out the

provisions of this section.

     (d) The completed voter registration application shall be transmitted by the division of

motor vehicles to the central voter registration system mandated pursuant to § 17-6-1.2 not later

than the next business day after the date of acceptance by the division of motor vehicles.

Transmission shall be made by electronic means as prescribed by the secretary of state, and shall

be in an electronic form compatible with the voter registration system maintained by the secretary

of state. For each registration electronically transmitted, a hard copy will be provided to the

appropriate local board of canvassers.

     (e) Any person who has fully and correctly completed an application to register to vote at

the division of motor vehicles is presumed to be registered as of the date of the acceptance of the

registration by the division of motor vehicles, subject to verification of the registration by the

local board as provided in § 17-9.1-25.

     (f) Pursuant to §17-9.1-11, the division of motor vehicles shall not transmit the voter

registration of any applicant, who fails to certify that they are a citizen of the United States.

     (g) If a person who is ineligible to vote becomes registered to vote pursuant to this

section, that person's registration shall be presumed to be deemed officially authorized and not be

deemed attributable to or the fault of that person. Notwithstanding the foregoing, anyone who

knowingly and willfully provides false information pursuant to this section shall be subject to

prosecution under §17-9.1-12.

     (f)(h) The state board of elections shall have the authority to adopt regulations to

implement and administer the provisions of this section, including all registrations taken at the

division of motor vehicles.

     (i)(1) In accordance with Section 7 of the Federal National Voter Registration Act of

1993, other applicable state government agencies that the secretary verifies already collect

documents that would provide proof of eligibility, including age, citizenship, and residence

address, may follow the procedures for automatic voter registration enumerated for the division of

motor vehicles as described in subsections (b) through (d) of this section.

     (2) Any additional agencies that are designated for automatic registration must follow the

rules and protocols established in this section for the division of motor vehicles.

     (i)(j) Effective date. The provisions of this section shall take effect thirty (30) days after

the administrator of the division of motor vehicles certifies in writing to the general assembly that

the Rhode Island motor vehicle licensing system (RIMS) computer system is capable of meeting

the requirements set forth in this act. The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall

consult with the secretary prior to making this determination about the computer system.


 

 

152)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-15-14

7 and 21

 

 

17-15-14. Qualifications of primary officials – Affidavit.

     (a) Each warden or moderator and each primary supervisor appointed under the

provisions of §§ 17-15-13 and 17-15-16 shall be able to read the Constitution of the state in the

English language, and to write his or her name, and shall, whenever possible, be a voter of the

senatorial district, representative district, or town, ward, or voting district from which he or she is

appointed.

     (b) No person shall be appointed to serve as a primary official who has been convicted,

found guilty, pleaded guilty or nolo contendere, or placed on a deferred or suspended sentence or

on probation for any crime which that involved moral turpitude or a violation of any of the

election, caucus, or primary laws of this or any other state.

     (c) No person shall be appointed to serve as a primary official who is an officer or

employee of the United States, of this state, or of any city or town of this state, but no person

shall be disqualified solely because that person is a notary public or a teacher. No person serving

as a primary official may serve in such capacity in the city or town in which they are a municipal

employee.

     (d) No person who is seeking nomination or election at any primary election shall act as a

primary official at that primary.

     (e) Every primary official shall make an affidavit before the proper local board or some

member of the board to the effect that that official is not disqualified by reason of the provisions

of this section.


 

 

 

 

 

 

153)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-19-4

104 and 113

 

 

17-19-4. Voting booths and optical scan precinct count units -- Number to be

furnished.

     (a) For each voting district and for each town not divided into voting districts, an optical

scan at least one precinct count unit shall be prepared and delivered by the state board or its

designee.

     (b) At each voting place, both in cities and in towns, at least one voting booth shall be

furnished for every one hundred seventy-five (175) qualified electors, whose names are upon the

voting list used at the voting place and entitled to use the machines, as certified to the state board

based on the voting list certified as a result of the final canvass.

     (c) In making the calculation required by this section, voters whose names are on the

inactive list of voters shall not be included.


 

 

154)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-19-12

5 and 23

 

 

17-19-12. Delivery of election supplies.

All printed matter, stationery, and supplies required to be furnished by this chapter shall

be delivered to or picked up by the proper officer as determined by the state board not later than

three (3) days 12:00 p.m. the day before the election for which they are to be used. Computer

ballots to be used at each polling place, ballot transfer cases, marking pens, secrecy sleeves, and

any other items related to the voting equipment shall be packaged by the state board and shall be

picked up by the local canvassing authority delivered to or picked up by the proper officer as

determined by the state board.


 

 

155)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-19-13

6 and 24

 

 

17-19-13. Exhibition of machines for instructional purposes.

The local board shall may designate suitable and adequate times and places where optical

scan voting equipment and sample ballots showing titles of offices to be filled and, so far as

practicable, the names of candidates to be voted for at the next election shall be exhibited for the

purpose of giving instructions as to the manner of casting a vote to all voters who apply. No

optical scan precinct count unit that is to be used in an election shall be used for the instruction

after it has been prepared and sealed for the election.


 

 

156)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

17-19-37.4

410 and 423

 

 

17-19-37.4. Post-election audits.

     (a) The general assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares that auditing of election

results is necessary to ensure effective election administration and public confidence in the

election results. Further, risk-limiting audits provide a more effective manner of conducting

audits than traditional audit methods in that risk-limiting audit methods typically require only

limited resources for election contests with wide margins of victory while investing greater

resources in close contests.

     (b) Commencing in 2018, the board, in conjunction with local boards, is authorized to

conduct risk-limiting audits after all statewide primary, general, and special elections in

accordance with the requirements of this section. Commencing in 2020, the state board, in

conjunction with local boards, must conduct risk-limiting audits after the presidential preference

primary, and general elections in accordance with requirements in this section.

     (c) The audit program shall be conducted as follows:

     (1) The state board shall determine what local, statewide, and federal contests are subject

to a risk-limiting audit;

     (2) The state board shall provide notice pursuant of to chapter 46 of title 42 of the time

and place of the random selection of the audit units to be manually tallied and of the times and

places of the audits;

     (3) The state board shall make available to the public a report of the vote-tabulating

device results for the contest, including the results for each audit unit in the contest, prior to the

random selection of audit units to be manually tallied and prior to the commencement of the

audit;

     (4) The state board, in conjunction with the local boards, shall conduct the audit upon

tabulation of the unofficial final results as provided in §§17-19-36 and 17-19-37; and

     (5) The state board, in conjunction with the local boards, shall conduct the audit in public

view by manually interpreting the ballots according to rules established by the state board in

accordance with chapter 45 of title 42.

     (d) If a risk-limiting audit of a contest leads to a full manual tally of the ballots cast using

the voting system, the vote counts according to that manual tally shall replace the vote counts

reported pursuant to §§17-19-36 and 17-19-3 7 for the purpose of determining the official contest

results pursuant to §§17-22-5.2 and 17-22-6.

     (e) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the following meanings:

     (1) "Audit unit" means a precinct, a set of ballots, or a single ballot. A precinct, a set of

ballots, or a single ballot may be used as an audit unit for purposes of this section only if all of the

following conditions are satisfied:

     (i) The relevant vote-tabulating device is able to produce a report of the votes cast in the

precinct, set of ballots, or single ballot.; and

     (ii) Each ballot is assigned to not more than one audit unit.

     (2) "Contest" means an election for an office or for a measure.

     (3) "Risk-limiting audit" means a manual tally employing a statistical method that

ensures a large, predetermined minimum chance of requiring a full manual tally whenever a full

manual tally would show an electoral outcome that differs from the outcome reported by the vote-

tabulating system for the audited contest. A risk-limiting audit shall begin with a hand tally of the

votes in one or more audit units and shall continue to hand tally votes in additional audit units

until there is strong statistical evidence that the electoral outcome is correct. In the event that

counting additional audit units does not provide strong statistical evidence that the electoral

outcome is correct, the audit shall continue until there has been a full manual tally to determine

the correct electoral outcome of the audited contest.

     (4) "Unofficial final results" means election results tabulated pursuant §§17-19-36 and

17-19-37.

     (f) The results of any audits conducted under this section shall be published on the

website of the state board within forty-eight (48) hours of being accepted by the state board. If the

audit involved a manual tally of one or more entire precincts, then the names and numbers of all

precincts audited and a comparison of the vote tabulator results with the hand counts for each

precinct shall be published with the audit results on the website.

     (g) Any audit required under this section shall not commence for any election subject to a

recount pursuant to §§17-19-37.1, 17-19-37.2, and 17-19-37.3 until the conclusion of said

recount.

     (h) The state board shall promulgate rules, regulations, and procedures in accordance

with chapter 45 of title 42 necessary to implement this section.


 

 

157)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-25-3

221 and 240

 

 

17-25-3. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter, unless a different meaning clearly appears from the context:

     (1) "Business entity" means any corporation, whether for profit or not for profit, domestic

corporation or foreign corporation, as defined in § 7-1.2-106, financial institution, cooperative,

association, receivership, trust, holding company, firm, joint stock company, public utility, sole

proprietorship, partnership, limited partnership, or any other entity recognized by the laws of the

United States and/or the state of Rhode Island for the purpose of doing business. The term

"business entity" shall not include a political action committee organized pursuant to this chapter

or a political party committee or an authorized campaign committee of a candidate or office

holder. The term "business entity" shall not include any exempt nonprofit as defined herein or any

organization described in § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or any subsequent

corresponding internal revenue code of the United States, as amended from time to time, for the

purposes of chapter 17-25.3 of the general laws chapter 25.3 of title 17 only.

     (2) "Candidate" means any individual who undertakes any action, whether preliminary or

final, which is necessary under the law to qualify for nomination for election or election to public

office, and/or any individual who receives a contribution or makes an expenditure, or gives his or

her consent for any other person to receive a contribution or make an expenditure, with a view to

bringing about his or her nomination or election to any public office, whether or not the specific

public office for which he or she will seek nomination or election is known at the time the

contribution is received or the expenditure is made and whether or not he or she has announced

his or her candidacy or filed a declaration of candidacy at that time.

     (3) "Conduit" or "intermediary" means any person who receives and forwards an

earmarked contribution to a candidate or a candidate's authorized committee, except as otherwise

limited in this chapter.

     (3)(4) "Contributions" and "expenditures" include all transfers of money, credit or debit

card transactions, on-line or electronic payment systems such as "pay pal,", paid personal

services, or other thing of value to or by any candidate, committee of a political party, or political

action committee or ballot question advocate. A loan shall be considered a contribution of money

until it is repaid.

     (5) "Earmarked" means a designation, instruction, or encumbrance, whether direct or

indirect, express or implied, oral or written, which that results in all or any part of a contribution

or expenditure being made to, or expended on behalf of, a clearly identified candidate or a

candidate's authorized committee.

     (4)(6) "Election" means any primary, general, or special election or town meeting for any

public office of the state, municipality, or district, or for the determination of any question

submitted to the voters of the state, municipality, or district.

     (5)(7) "Election cycle" means the twenty-four (24) month (24) period commencing on

January 1 of odd number years and ending on December 31 of even number years; provided, with

respect to the public financing of election campaigns of general officers under §§ 17-25-19, 17-

25-20, and 17-25-25, "election cycle" means the forty-eight (48) month (48) period commencing

on January 1 of odd numbered years and ending December 31 of even numbered years.

     (6)(8) "In-Kind Contributions" means the monetary value of other things of value or paid

personal services donated to, or benefiting, any person required to file reports with the board of

elections.

     (7)(9) "Other thing of value" means any item of tangible real or personal property of a

fair-market value in excess of one hundred dollars ($100).

     (8)(10) "Paid personal services" means personal services of every kind and nature, the

cost or consideration for which is paid or provided by someone other than the committee or

candidate for whom the services are rendered, but shall not include personal services provided

without compensation by persons volunteering their time.

     (9)(11) "Person" means an individual, partnership, committee, association, corporation,

union, charity, and/or any other organization. The term "person" shall not include any exempt

nonprofit as defined herein or any organization described in § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue

Code of 1986, or any subsequent corresponding internal revenue code of the United States, as

amended from time to time, for the purposes of chapter 17-25.3 of the general laws only.

     (10)(12) "Political action committee" means any group of two (2) or more persons that

accepts any contributions to be used for advocating the election or defeat of any candidate or

candidates. Only political action committees that have accepted contributions from fifteen (15) or

more persons in amounts of ten dollars ($10.00) or more within an election cycle shall be

permitted to make contributions, and those committees must make contributions to at least five

(5) candidates for state or local office within an election cycle.

     (11)(13) "Public office" means any state, municipal, school, or district office or other

position that is filled by popular election, except political party offices. "Political party offices"

means any state, city, town, ward, or representative or senatorial district committee office of a

political party or delegate to a political party convention, or any similar office.

     (12)(14) "State" means state of Rhode Island.

     (13)(15) "Testimonial affair" means an affair of any kind or nature including, but not

limited to,: cocktail parties, breakfasts, luncheons, dinners, dances, picnics, or similar affairs

expressly and directly intended to raise campaign funds in behalf of a candidate to be used for

nomination or election to a public office in this state, or expressly and directly intended to raise

funds in behalf of any state or municipal committee of a political party, or expressly and directly

intended to raise funds in behalf of any political action committee.

     (14)(16) "Electioneering communication" means any print, broadcast, cable, satellite, or

electronic media communication not coordinated, as set forth in § 17-25-23, with any candidate,

authorized candidate campaign committee, or political party committee and which that

unambiguously identifies a candidate or referendum and is made either within sixty (60) days

before a general or special election or town meeting for the office sought by the candidate or

referendum; or thirty (30) days before a primary election, for the office sought by the candidate;

and is targeted to the relevant electorate.

     (i) A communication which that refers to a clearly identified candidate or referendum is

"targeted to the relevant electorate" if the communication can be received by two thousand

(2,000) or more persons in the district the candidate seeks to represent or the constituency voting

on the referendum.

     (ii) Exceptions: The term "electioneering communication" does not include:

     (A) A communication appearing in a news story, commentary, or editorial distributed

through the facilities of any broadcasting station, unless such facilities are owned or controlled by

any political party, political committee, or candidate;

     (B) A communication which that constitutes a candidate debate or forum conducted

pursuant to regulations adopted by the board of elections or which that solely promotes such a

debate or forum and is made by or on behalf of the person sponsoring the debate or forum; or

     (C) A communication made by any business entity to its members, owners, stockholders,

or employees;

     (D) A communication over the Iinternet, except for (I) Communications placed for a fee

on the website of another person, business entity, or political action committee; and (II) Websites

formed primarily for the purpose, or whose primary purpose is, to expressly advocate the election

or defeat of a clearly identified candidate or the passage or defeat of a referendum; or

     (E) Any other communication exempted under such regulations as the board of elections

may promulgate (consistent with the requirements of this paragraph) to ensure the appropriate

implementation of this paragraph.

     (15)(17) "Independent expenditure" means an expenditure which that, when taken as a

whole, expressly advocates the election or defeat of a clearly identified candidate, or the passage

or defeat of a referendum, or amounts to the functional equivalent of such express advocacy, and

is in no way coordinated, as set forth in § 17-25-23, with any candidate's campaign, authorized

candidate committee, or political party committee. An expenditure amounts to the functional

equivalent of express advocacy if it can only be interpreted by a reasonable person as advocating

the election, passage, or defeat of a candidate or referendum, taking into account whether the

communication mentions a candidate or referendum and takes a position on a candidate's

character, qualifications, or fitness for office. An independent expenditure is not a contribution to

that candidate or committee.

     (i) Exceptions: The term "independent expenditure" does not include:

     (A) A communication appearing in a news story, commentary, or editorial distributed

through the facilities of any broadcasting station, unless such facilities are owned or controlled by

any political party, political committee, or candidate;

     (B) A communication which that constitutes a candidate debate or forum conducted

pursuant to regulations adopted by the board of elections or which that solely promotes such a

debate or forum and is made by or on behalf of the person sponsoring the debate or forum;

     (C) A communication made by any business entity to its members, owners, stockholders,

or employees;

     (D) A communication over the Iinternet, except for (I) Communications placed for a fee

on the website of another person, business entity, or political action committee; and (II) Websites

formed primarily for the purpose, or whose primary purpose is, to expressly advocate the election

or defeat of a clearly identified candidate or the passage or defeat of a referendum; or

     (E) Any other communication exempted under such regulations as the board of elections

may promulgate (consistent with the requirements of this paragraph) to ensure the appropriate

implementation of this paragraph.

     (16)(18) "Covered transfer" means any transfer or payment of funds by any person,

business entity, or political action committee to another person, business entity, or political action

committee if the person, business entity, or political action committee making the transfer: (i)

Designates, requests, or suggests that the amounts be used for independent expenditures or

electioneering communications or making a transfer to another person for the purpose of making

or paying for such independent expenditures or electioneering communications; (ii) Made such

transfer or payment in response to a solicitation or other request for a transfer or payment for the

making of or paying for independent expenditures or electioneering communications or making a

transfer to another person for the purpose of marking or paying for such independent expenditures

or electioneering communications; (iii) Engaged in discussions with the recipient of the transfer

or payment regarding independent expenditures or electioneering communications or making a

transfer to another person for the purpose of marking or paying for such independent expenditures

or electioneering communications; or (iv) Made independent expenditures or electioneering

communications in an aggregate amount of five thousand dollars ($5,000) or more during the

two-(2) year (2) period ending on the date of the transfer or payment, or knew or had reason to

know that the person receiving the transfer or payment made such independent expenditures or

electioneering communications in such an aggregate amount during that two-(2) year (2) period.

     (A) Exceptions: The term "covered transfer" does not include:

     (I) A transfer or payment made by a person, business entity, or political action committee

in the ordinary course of any trade or business conducted by the person, business entity, or

political action committee or in the form of investments made by the person, business entity, or

political action committee; or

     (II) A transfer or payment made by a person, business entity, or political action

committee if the person, business entity, or political action committee making the transfer

prohibited, in writing, the use of such transfer or payment for independent expenditures,

electioneering communications, or covered transfers and the recipient of the transfer or payment

agreed to follow the prohibition and deposited the transfer or payment in an account which that is

segregated from any account used to make independent expenditures, electioneering

communications, or covered transfers.

     (17)(19) For the purposes of chapter 25.3 of title 17 17-25.3 of the general laws,

"donation" means all transfers of money, credit or debit card transactions, on-line or electronic

payment systems such as "pay pal,", paid personal services, or other thing of value to or by any

person, business entity, or political action committee. A loan shall be considered a donation of

money until it is repaid.

     (18)(20) For the purposes of chapter 25.3 of title 17 17-25.3 of the general laws, "donor"

means a person, business entity, or political action committee that makes a donation.

     (19)(21) "Exempt nonprofit" means any organization described in § 501(c)(4) of the

Internal Revenue Code that spends an aggregate annual amount of no more than ten percent

(10%) of its annual expenses or no more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000), whichever is

less, on independent expenditures, electioneering communications, and covered transfers as

defined herein and certifies the same to the board of elections seven (7) days before and after a

primary election and seven (7) days before and after a general or special election.

     (20)(22) For purposes of chapter 17-25.3 of the general laws, "referendum" means the

same as the definition set forth in § 17-5-1 of the general laws.


 

 

158)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-25-7.2

441 and 443

 

 

17-25-7.2. Personal use of campaign funds prohibited.

     (a) The personal use by any elected public office holder or by any candidate for public

office, as defined in § 17-25-3, of campaign funds contributed after April 29, 1992, is prohibited.

For the purposes of this section, "personal use" is defined as any use other than expenditures

related to gaining or holding public office and for which the candidate for public office or elected

public official would be required to treat the amount of the expenditure as gross income under §

61 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. § 61, or any subsequent corresponding

Internal Revenue Code of the United States, as from time to time amended.

     (b) Expenditures that are specifically prohibited under this chapter include:

     (1) Any residential or household items, supplies, or expenditures, including mortgage,

rent, or utility payments for any part of any personal residence of a candidate or officeholder or a

member of the candidate's or officeholder's family;

     (2) Mortgage, rent, or utility payments for any part of any non-residential property that is

owned by a candidate or officeholder or a member of a candidate's or officeholder's family and

used for campaign purposes, to the extent the payments exceed the fair-market value of the

property usage;

     (3) Funeral, cremation, or burial expenses, including any expenses related to deaths

within a candidate's or officeholder's family;

     (4) Clothing, other than items of de minimis value that are used in the campaign;

     (5) Tuition payments;

     (6) Dues, fees, or gratuities at a country club, health club, recreational facility or other

nonpolitical organization, unless they are part of a specific fundraising event that takes place on

the organization's premises;

     (7) Salary payments to a member of a candidate's family, unless the family member is

providing bona fide services to the campaign. If a family member provides bona fide services to a

campaign, any salary payments in excess of the fair-market value of the services provided is

personal use;

     (8) Admission to a sporting event, concert, theater, or other form of entertainment, unless

part of a specific campaign or officeholder activity;

     (9) Payment of any fines, fees, or penalties assessed pursuant to this chapter.

     (c) Any expense that results from campaign or officeholder activity is permitted use of

campaign funds. Such expenditures may include:

     (1) The defrayal of ordinary and necessary expenses of a candidate or officeholder;

     (2) Office expenses and equipment, provided the expenditures and the use of the

equipment can be directly attributable to the campaign or the officeholder's duties and

responsibilities;

     (3) Donations to charitable organizations, provided the candidate or officeholder does not

personally benefit from the donation or receive compensation from the recipient organization;

     (4) Travel expenses for an officeholder, provided that the travel is undertaken as an

ordinary and necessary expense of seeking, holding, or maintaining public office, or seeking,

holding, or maintaining a position within the legislature or other publicly elected body. If a

candidate or officeholder uses campaign funds to pay expenses associated with travel that

involves both personal activities and campaign or officeholder activities, the incremental

expenses that result from the personal activities are personal use, unless the person(s) benefiting

from this use reimburse(s) the campaign account within thirty (30) days for the amount of the

incremental expenses;

     (5) Gifts of nominal value and donations of a nominal amount made on a special occasion

such as a holiday, graduation, marriage, retirement, or death, unless made to a member of the

candidate's or officeholder's family;

     (6) Meal expenses which that are incurred as part of a campaign activity or as a part of a

function that is related to the candidate's or officeholder's responsibilities, including meals

between and among candidates and/or officeholders that are incurred as an ordinary and

necessary expense of seeking, holding, or maintaining public office, or seeking, holding, or

maintaining a position within the legislature or other publicly elected body;

     (7) Food and beverages which that are purchased as part of a campaign or officeholder

activity;

     (8) Communication access expenses which that are incurred as part of a campaign

activity and operation to ensure that deaf and hard-of-hearing citizens are fully participating, are

volunteers, and/or are otherwise maintaining a position with the campaign committee. Examples

of communication access expenses include, but are not limited to, the following: captioning on

television advertisements; video clips; sign language interpreters; computer-aided real-time

(CART) services; and assistive listening devices.

     (d) Any campaign funds not used to pay for the expenses of gaining or holding public

office may:

     (1) Be maintained in a campaign account(s);

     (2) Be donated to a candidate for public office, to a political organization, or to a political

action committee, subject to the limitation on contributions in § 17-25-10.1;

     (3) Be transferred, in whole or in part, into a newly established political action committee

or ballot question advocate;

     (4) Be donated to a tax-exempt charitable organization as that term is used in § 501(c)(3)

of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. § 501, or any subsequent, corresponding

internal revenue code of the United States as from time to time amended;

     (5) Be donated to the state of Rhode Island; or

     (6) Be returned to the donor, provided,; however.:

     (e) Any funds remaining in a campaign account(s) of a candidate or officeholder, or

former candidate or former officeholder, who dies, after repayment of loans and accounts

payable, shall be disposed, in accordance with the instructions in writing, on a form prescribed by

the board of elections, which funds may:

     (1) Be donated to a candidate for public office, to a political organization, or to a political

action committee, subject to the limitation on contributions in §17-25-10.1;

     (2) Be transferred, in whole or in part, into a newly established political action committee

or ballot question advocate;

     (3) Be donated to a tax-exempt charitable organization as that term is used in §501(c)(3)

of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. §501, or any subsequent, corresponding internal

revenue code of the United States as from time to time amended; or

     (4) Be returned to the donor.

     (5) The candidate's or officeholder's, or former candidate's or former officeholder's,

campaign account(s) shall be dissolved by the board of elections;

     (6) Any penalties assessed to the candidate or officeholder, or former candidate or former

officeholder, that are outstanding at the time of their death shall be waived by the board of

elections.


 

 

 

 

 

159)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-25-10.1

221 and 240

 

 

17-25-10.1. Political contributions – Limitations.

     (a) (1) No person, other than the candidate to his or her own campaign, nor any political

action committee shall make a contribution or contributions to any candidate, as defined by § 17-

25-3, or political action committee or political party committee which that, in the aggregate,

exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) within a calendar year,; nor shall any person make

contributions to more than one state or local candidate, to more than one political action

committee, or to more than one political party committee, or to a combination of state and local

candidates and political action committees and political party committees which in the aggregate

exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000) within a calendar year, nor shall any political action

committee make such contributions which that in the aggregate, exceed twenty-five thousand

dollars ($25,000) within a calendar year,; nor shall any candidate or any political action

committee or any political party committee accept a contribution or contributions which that, in

the aggregate, exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) within a calendar year from any one person

or political action committee.

     (2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection, a person or

political action committee or political party committee may contribute an amount which that in

the aggregate, does not exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000) within a calendar year to a political

party committee, which funds can be utilized for organizational and party building activities, but

shall not be used for contributions to candidates state and local for public office.

     (b) Contributions to a named candidate made to any political committee authorized by

that candidate to accept contributions on the candidate's behalf shall be considered to be

contributions made to the candidate. Contributions to a candidate by a political committee for

another person shall be considered to be contributions by that person.

     (c) Expenditures made by any person in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at

the request or suggestion of, a candidate, the candidate's authorized political committees, or their

his or her agents shall be considered to be a contribution to the candidate.

     (d) The financing by any person of the dissemination, distribution, or republication, in

whole or in part, of any broadcast or any written, graphic, or other form of campaign materials

prepared by the candidate, the candidate's campaign committees, or their his or her authorized

agents shall be considered to be a contribution to a candidate.

     (e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to restrict political party committees

organized pursuant to this title from making contributions to the candidates of that political party;

provided, that these contributions, other than allowable "in-kind" contributions, shall not exceed,

in the aggregate, twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) to any one candidate within a calendar

year,; nor shall any candidate accept a contribution or contributions, other than allowable "in-

kind" contributions, which that, in the aggregate, exceed twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000)

within a calendar year from all committees of his or her political party. There shall be no

restriction on the amount of "in-kind" contributions that a political party committee may make to

a candidate of its political party; provided, that for the purposes of this subsection only, the cost

of any preparation and airing of television and/or radio advertisements and the cost of any print

advertisements shall not be considered an allowable "in-kind" contribution and shall be subject to

the aggregate limitation of twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000).

     (f) (1) A contribution from an individual's dependent children, as defined in § 36-14-2,

shall be deemed a contribution from the individual for the purpose of determining whether

aggregate contributions exceed either the one hundred dollar ($100) threshold for reporting

purposes or the one thousand dollar ($1,000) maximum for contributions to a single candidate or

political action committee or the ten thousand dollar ($10,000) maximum for contributing to all

candidates and political action committees within a calendar year.

     (2) No dependent child shall contribute an amount which that, when added to

contributions already made by that child's parent or legal guardian and by other dependent

children of that parent or legal guardian, exceed the one thousand dollar ($1,000) maximum for

contributions to a single candidate or political action committee or exceed the ten thousand dollar

($10,000) maximum for contributions to all state or local candidates and political action

committees within a calendar year.

     (g) Nothing in this section shall be construed to restrict the amount of money that a

candidate can borrow in his or her own name, and subsequently contribute or loan to his or her

own campaign.

     (h) (1) It shall be unlawful for any corporation, whether profit or non-profit, domestic

corporation or foreign corporation, as defined in § 7-1.2-106, or other business entity to make any

campaign contribution or expenditure, as defined in § 17-25-3, to or for any candidate, political

action committee, or political party committee, or for any candidate, political action committee,

or political party committee to accept any campaign contribution or expenditure from a

corporation or other business entity. Any contribution made in the personal name of any

employee of a corporation or other business entity, for which the employee received or will

receive reimbursement from the corporation or other business entity, shall be considered as a

contribution by the corporation or other business entity, in violation of this section.

     (2) Any voluntary payroll deduction and/or contribution made by employees of a

corporation or other business entity shall not be deemed a contribution of a corporation or other

business entity, notwithstanding that the contributions were sent to the recipient by the

corporation or other business entity.

     (i) All contributions of funds shall be by check, money order, or credit card and may be

made over the Iinternet, but in each case the source of the funds must be identified; provided, that

candidates, political action committees, and political party committees may accept contributions

in cash which that do not exceed twenty-five dollars ($25.00) in the aggregate from an individual

within a calendar year. The cash contribution must be delivered directly by the donor to the

candidate, his or her the campaign treasurer, or deputy treasurer. The treasurer or deputy treasurer

shall maintain a record of the name and address of all persons making these cash contributions.

     (j) Except as provided in subsection (h) of this section, no entity other than an individual,

a political action committee which is duly registered and qualified pursuant to the terms of this

chapter, political party committee authorized by this title, or an authorized committee of an

elected official or candidate established pursuant to this chapter shall make any contribution to or

any expenditure on behalf of or in opposition to any candidate, political action committee, or

political party.

     (k) For purposes of the limitations imposed by this section, all contributions made by a

person, either directly or indirectly, on behalf of a particular candidate, including contributions

which that are in any way earmarked or otherwise directed through an intermediary or conduit to

such candidate, shall be treated as contributions from such person to such candidate. The

intermediary or conduit shall report the original source and the intended recipient of such

contribution to the board of elections and to the intended recipient, in accordance with regulations

and reporting requirements promulgated by the board of elections.


 

 

160)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

19-5-18

8 and 22

 

 

19-5-18. Expulsion of members.

The board of directors Credit union management may expel from the credit union any

member who has not fulfilled his or her duties toward the credit union,; or who has been

convicted of a criminal offense,; or who neglects or refuses to comply with the provisions of this

chapter or of the credit union's by-laws bylaws,; or who habitually neglects to pay debts,; or who

shall become insolvent or bankrupt,; or who shall have deceived the credit union with regard to

the use of borrowed money, but no member shall be expelled until credit union management has

provided the member a notice that member has been informed in writing of the charges against

him or her, and an opportunity has been given to him or her, after reasonable notice, to be heard

by the board of directorsThe member shall have the right to file a written appeal to the board of

directors to reconsider the expulsion notice. The written appeal must be filed within ten (10)

business days of the receipt of expulsion notice. No such expulsion shall operate to relieve the

member from any remaining liability to the credit union.


 

 

161)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-1-21

191 and 242

 

 

20-1-21. General powers.

     (a) The following fees shall be established and paid to the department of environmental

management for issuance of the following special permits:

     Ferret Permit $10.00

     Scientific Collector's Permit $25.00

     (b) Any fees collected under authority of this section shall be deposited into restricted

receipt accounts established by this title, as appropriate to the type of special permit issued, and

shall be used only for the authorized purposes of the restricted receipt accounts. The accounts

include, but are not limited to: fishing license account, hunting license account, wildlife fund.

     (c) The division divisions of fish and wildlife and marine fisheries shall be authorized to

establish fees for reference, educational, and souvenir-type materials provided upon request to

interested parties. Those materials include, but are not limited to: surveys, guides, maps, posters,

reference and educational booklets and materials, and articles of clothing. No fee shall be

required for any materials describing or implementing any licensing or regulatory authority of the

division divisions. Any fees collected under authority of this section shall be deposited as general

revenues.


 

 

162)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-2-44

191 and 242

 

 

20-2-44. Shellfish transplant program.

In addition to any appropriation made pursuant to § 20-2-28.2, the general assembly shall

appropriate from the general fund to the division of fish and wildlife marine fisheries, the amount

it deems necessary for the purpose of maintaining a shellfish transplant program for the fiscal

year ending June 30, 2000, and thereafter, the division of fish and wildlife marine fisheries shall

develop a sustainable shellfish management plan.


 

 

163)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-2-45

191 and 242

 

 

20-2-45. Narragansett Bay Oyster Restoration Act.

     (a) Findings of fact. The general assembly hereby finds and declares the following:

     (1) Oyster fishery has historically been important to Rhode Island for economic and

ecosystem benefits;

     (2) The Rhode Island oyster fishery has been in deep decline and is a fraction of its

historical levels due to disease;

     (3) The development of indigenous disease-resistant oyster brood stock will assist in the

restoration of the oyster population in Narragansett Bay;

     (4) The plantings of indigenous disease-resistant oyster shellfish seed stock will increase

the Narragansett Bay's oyster population and annual harvest; and

     (5) An increase in oyster population will have a positive impact on the state's economy

and the overall health of Narragansett Bay and its ecosystem.

     (b) Authority to solicit federal funds for oyster restoration. The general assembly hereby

vests in the director of the department of environmental management, acting through the division

of agriculture marine fisheries, authority and responsibility to solicit annual federal funding,

including but not limited to, funding from the United States departments of interior, agriculture

and commerce for purposes of developing, restoring, and maintaining both the oyster population

and oyster habitats in and around Narragansett Bay.

     (c) Program to achieve oyster restoration in Narragansett Bay. The director of the

department of environmental management shall work in conjunction with the aquaculture

coordinator located in the coastal resources management council to develop programs that

address the declining oyster population in Narragansett Bay and which programs shall further

promote the development, restoration, and maintenance of the oyster population and oyster

habitats in and around Narragansett Bay, as set forth in this section.


 

 

 

164)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-3-1

191 and 242

 

 

20-3-1. Council created -- Membership – Compensation.

There is hereby created a marine fisheries council. The council shall be composed of the

director of the department of environmental management, or the director's designee, who shall

serve as chairperson and eight (8) private citizen members. The private citizen members shall be

chosen from among those with skill, knowledge, and experience in the commercial fishing

industry, the sport fishing industry, and in the conservation and management of fisheries

resources and shall be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate. Three

(3) of the private citizen members shall be representatives of the commercial fishing industry;

three (3) shall be representatives of the sport fishing industry; and the remaining two (2) shall

have skill, knowledge, and experience in the conservation and management of fisheries resources

and/or marine biology. The chairperson of the coastal resources management council and the

chiefs of the divisions of enforcement and fish and wildlife marine fisheries in the department of

environmental management shall serve in an advisory capacity to the council. Members of the

council shall serve for a term of four (4) years and may not succeed themselves more than once

after January 1, 2002. Initial appointments to the council shall be appointed as follows: three (3)

members for a term of two (2) years, three (3) members for a term of three (3) years, and two (2)

members for a term of four (4) years. All members of the council shall serve without

compensation and shall be reimbursed for their necessary expenses incurred in travel and in the

performance of their duties.


 

 

 

 

165)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-9-3

191 and 242

 

 

20-9-3. Assent to fish restoration and management projects.

The state of Rhode Island assents to the provisions of the act of congress, entitled "An

Act to Provide that the United States Shall Aid the States in Fish Restoration and Management

Projects, and for Other Purposes", 16 U.S.C. § 777 et seq., and the division of fish and wildlife

and/or marine fisheries, with the approval of the director of environmental management, is hereby

authorized, empowered, and directed to perform any acts as may be necessary to the conduct and

establishment of fish restoration and management projects, as defined in that act of congress, in

compliance with that act and with rules and regulations promulgated by the secretary of the

interior under that act, and no funds accruing to the state from license fees or interest from license

fee accounts paid by fishers shall be diverted for any other purpose than the administration of the

division of fish and wildlife and/or marine fisheries of the department of environmental

management.


 

 

166)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-10-1.1

191 and 242

 

 

20-10-1.1. Creation of the Biosecurity Board.

There shall be a biosecurity board within the coastal resources management council,

(hereinafter referred to as "CRMC"), which that shall meet, at minimum, on a quarterly basis and

shall be composed of seven (7) members to be designated by the executive director of the CRMC,

or his or her designee, with council approval. The council shall select a chair from among the

board members, one of whom shall be the executive director of the CRMC, or his or her designee,

one of whom shall be the state veterinarian or an individual certified in veterinary medicine, with

a specialty in aquatic diseases, or by the American Fisheries Society,; one of whom shall be a

certified medical doctor or a person with a Ph.D. in public health,; one of whom shall be a

representative of the division of fish and wildlife marine fisheries,; one of whom shall be a

representative of the marine fisheries council,; one of whom shall be a representative from the

aquaculture industry; and one of whom shall be a faculty member of the University of Rhode

Island, Department of Fisheries, Animals and Veterinary Science.


 

 

167)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-18-3

79 and 94

 

 

20-18-3. Hunting on public lands.

It is unlawful for any person to hunt, trap, pursue, take, or kill, or attempt so to do, or in

any manner molest or destroy any wild birds, or the nests or eggs of wild birds, or any wild

animal, within the exterior boundaries of any state management area, or park, or land held by any

entity in trust for public use, except that the authorities or persons having the control and charge

of the lands may in their discretion, with limitations they may deem advisable, and consistent

with the laws and rules and regulations of the state relating to seasons, bag and size limits, and

manner of taking, authorize persons to hunt, take, or kill within the boundaries any wild birds or

animals which that are not now protected by law. Authorization is given by written permit, and

the permit is revocable at the pleasure of the authorities or persons granting it. The provisions of

this section may be enforced by the officials and persons having charge of these lands, and by

park police and conservation officers environmental police officers of the department of

environmental management.


 

 

168)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-38-3

191 and 242

 

 

20-38-3. Definitions.

When used in this chapter, the following terms shall have the following meanings:

     (1) "Collaborative" means the Rhode Island seafood marketing collaborative established

under § 20-38-4;

     (2) "Rhode Island's local fishermen and aquaculturists" means commercial fishermen and

aquaculturists licensed in the state of Rhode Island.

     (3) "State agencies" means state entities responsible for the implementation of Rhode

Island's fishery management and economic development, including, but not be limited to:

     (i) The department of environmental management, which shall include:

     (A) The division of agriculture and

     (B) The division of fish and wildlife marine fisheries;

     (ii) The commerce corporation;

     (iii) The coastal resources management council;

     (iv) The department of health;

     (v) The department of administration.

     (4) "Aquaculture" means the farming of aquatic organisms such as fish, crustaceans,

mollusks, and aquatic plants.

     (5) "Sustainable food system" means one in which resources (including natural resources,

such as soil and water, as well as human resources, such as labor) are used at, or below, their rate

of recovery.

     (6) "Seafood dealers" means any person engaged in purchasing, raising, propagating,

breeding, or acquiring or possessing live fish or fish eggs to be sold or furnished to others for the

purpose of resale licensed in the State of Rhode Island.

     (7) [Deleted by P.L. 2015, ch. 100, § 1 and P.L. 2015, ch. 111, § 


 

 

169)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-38-4

191 and 242

 

 

20-38-4. Collaborative established.

     (a) There is hereby created a collaborative known as "The Rhode Island seafood

marketing collaborative" consisting of nineteen (19) members as follows:

     (1) The director of the department of environmental management, or his or her designee,

who shall serve as chairperson;

     (2) The executive director of the commerce corporation, or his or her designee;

     (3) The chief of the division of fish and wildlife marine fisheries of the department of

environmental management, or his or her designee;

     (4) The director of the department of health, or his or her designee;

     (5) The chief of the division of agriculture of the department of environmental

management, or his or her designee;

     (6) The executive director of the coastal resources management council, or his or her

designee;

     (7) The director of administration, or his or her designee;

     (8) The dean of the university of Rhode Island college of environment and life sciences,

or his or her designee;

     (9) The director of the Rhode Island sea grant program, or his or her designee; and

     (10) Ten (10) additional members, each of whom shall be appointed by the director of the

department of environmental management, in accordance with the following categories:

     (i) Two (2) Rhode Island-based dealers/wholesalers/processors who purchase and sell

finfish, shellfish, and/or crustaceans;

     (ii) Two (2) commercial aquaculturists;

     (iii) A Rhode Island-based retailer of seafood products associated with a restaurant or

restaurant organization;

     (iv) A Rhode Island-based retailer of seafood products associated with an independent or

franchised store;

     (v) Two (2) commercial fishermen licensed to harvest and/or land in Rhode Island;

     (vi) A member of an independent organization or association representing the Rhode

Island hospitality industry;

     (vii) An economist with expertise in seafood marketing.

     (b) Forthwith upon the passage of this chapter, the members of the collaborative shall

meet at the call of the chairperson and organize. Thereafter, the collaborative shall meet at the call

of the chairperson or three (3) members of the collaborative.

     (c) All departments and agencies of the state shall furnish such advice and information,

documentation, and otherwise to the collaborative and its agents as is deemed necessary or

desirable by the collaborative to facilitate the purposes of this chapter.

     (d) The members of the collaborative shall receive no compensation for their services.


 

 

170)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28-1.02

262 and 263

 

 

21-28-1.02. Definitions.

Unless the context otherwise requires, the words and phrases as defined in this section are

used in this chapter in the sense given them in the following definitions:

     (1) "Administer" refers to the direct application of controlled substances to the body of a

patient or research subject by:

     (i) A practitioner, or, in his or her presence by his or her authorized agent; or

     (ii) The patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner

whether the application is by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means.

     (2) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of, or at the direction of, a

manufacturer, wholesaler, distributor, or dispenser; except that these terms do not include a

common or contract carrier or warehouse operator, when acting in the usual and lawful course of

the carrier's or warehouse operator's business.

     (3) "Apothecary" means a registered pharmacist as defined by the laws of this state and,

where the context requires, the owner of a licensed pharmacy or other place of business where

controlled substances are compounded or dispensed by a registered pharmacist; and includes

registered assistant pharmacists as defined by existing law, but nothing in this chapter shall be

construed as conferring on a person who is not registered as a pharmacist any authority, right, or

privilege that is not granted to him or her by the pharmacy laws of the state.

     (4) "Automated data processing system" means a system utilizing computer software and

hardware for the purposes of record keeping.

     (5) "Certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigator" means a certified

law enforcement officer assigned by their his or her qualified law enforcement agency to

investigate prescription drug diversion.

     (5)(6) "Computer" means programmable electronic device capable of multi-functions,

including, but not limited to,: storage, retrieval, and processing of information.

     (6)(7) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance or immediate precursor to a

schedule under this chapter, whether by transfer from another schedule or otherwise.

     (7)(8) "Controlled substance" means a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic

drug in schedules I -- V of this chapter. The term shall not include distilled spirits, wine, or malt

beverages, as those terms are defined or used in chapter 1 of title 3, nor tobacco.

      (10) (8)(9) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance which that, or the container

or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying

mark, imprint, number, or device, or any likeness of them, of a manufacturer, distributor, or

dispenser, other than the person or persons who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed

the substance and which that thereby falsely purports or is represented to be the product of, or to

have been distributed by, the other manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser, or which substance is

falsely purported to be or represented to be one of the controlled substances by a manufacturer,

distributor, or dispenser.

    (9)(9)(10) "CRT" means cathode ray tube used to impose visual information on a screen.

     (10)(11) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of a

controlled substance or imitation controlled substance, whether or not there exists an agency

relationship.

     (11)(12) "Department" means the department of health of this state.

     (12)(13) "Depressant or stimulant drug" means:

     (i) A drug which that contains any quantity of:

     (A) Barbituric acid or derivatives, compounds, mixtures, or preparations of barbituric

acid; and

     (B) "Barbiturate" or "barbiturates" includes all hypnotic and/or somnifacient drugs,

whether or not derivatives of barbituric acid, except that this definition shall not include bromides

and narcotics.

     (ii) A drug which that contains any quantity of:

     (A) Amphetamine or any of its optical isomers;

     (B) Any salt of amphetamine and/or desoxyephedrine or any salt of an optical isomer of

amphetamine and/or desoxyephedrine, or any compound, mixture, or preparation of them.

     (iii) A drug which that contains any quantity of coca leaves. "Coca leaves" includes

cocaine, or any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of coca leaves,

except derivatives of coca leaves, which that do not contain cocaine, ecgonine, or substance from

which cocaine or ecgonine may be synthesized or made.

     (iv) Any other drug or substance which that contains any quantity of a substance which

that the attorney general of the United States, or the director of health, after investigation, has

found to have, or by regulation designates as having, a potential for abuse because of its

depressant or stimulant effect on the central nervous system.

     (13)(14) "Director" means the director of health.

     (14)(15) "Dispense" means to deliver, distribute, leave with, give away, or dispose of a

controlled substance to the ultimate user or human research subject by or pursuant to the lawful

order of a practitioner, including the packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare

the substance for that delivery.

     (15)(16) "Dispenser" is a practitioner who delivers a controlled substance to the ultimate

user or human research subject.

     (16)(17) "Distribute" means to deliver (other than by administering or dispensing) a

controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance and includes actual constructive, or

attempted transfer. "Distributor" means a person who so delivers a controlled substance or an

imitation controlled substance.

     (17)(18) "Downtime" means that period of time when a computer is not operable.

     (18)(19) "Drug addicted person" means a person who exhibits a maladaptive pattern of

behavior resulting from drug use, including one or more of the following: impaired control over

drug use; compulsive use; and/or continued use despite harm, and craving.

     (19)(20) "Drug Enforcement Administration" means the Drug Enforcement

Administration United States Department of Justice or its successor.

     (20)(21) "Federal law" means the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control

Act of 1970, (84 stat. 1236) (see generally 21 U.S.C. § 801 et seq.), and all regulations pertaining

to that federal act.

     (21)(22) "Hardware" means the fixed component parts of a computer.

     (22)(23) "Hospital" means an institution as defined in chapter 17 of title 23.

     (23)(24) "Imitation controlled substance" means a substance that is not a controlled

substance, which that by dosage unit, appearance (including color, shape, size, and markings), or

by representations made, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a

controlled substance and, which that which imitation controlled substances contain substances which if

ingested, could be injurious to the health of a person. In those cases when the appearance of the

dosage unit is not reasonably sufficient to establish that the substance is an "imitation controlled

substance" (for example in the case of powder or liquid), the court or authority concerned should

consider, in addition to all other logically relevant factors, the following factors as related to

"representations made" in determining whether the substance is an "imitation controlled

substance":

     (i) Statement made by an owner, possessor, transferor, recipient, or by anyone else in

control of the substance concerning the nature of the substance, or its use or effect.

     (ii) Statements made by the owner, possessor, or transferor, to the recipient that the

substance may be resold for substantial profit.

     (iii) Whether the substance is packaged in a manner reasonably similar to packaging of

illicit controlled substances.

     (iv) Whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or

demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the

consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable value of the non-controlled substance.

     (24)(25) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

     (i) Which That the director of health has found to be and by regulation designated as

being the principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a

controlled substance;

     (ii) Which That is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the

manufacture of those controlled substances; and

     (iii) The control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail, or limit the manufacture of that

controlled substance.

     (25)(26) "Laboratory" means a laboratory approved by the department of health as proper

to be entrusted with controlled substances and the use of controlled substances for scientific and

medical purposes and for the purposes of instruction.

   (29)  (26)(27) "Marijuana" means all parts of the plant cannabis sativa L., whether growing or

not; the seeds of the plant; the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and every compound,

manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds or resin, but shall not

include the mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the

seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of

mature stalks, (except the resin extracted from it), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seed from the

plant which is incapable of germination.

   (27)(27)(28) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, cultivation,

compounding, or processing of a drug or other substance, including an imitation controlled

substance, either directly or indirectly or by extraction from substances of natural origin, or

independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical

synthesis and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling or relabeling of

its container in conformity with the general laws of this state except by a practitioner as an

incident to his or her administration or dispensing of the drug or substance in the course of his or

her professional practice.

   (28(28)(29) "Manufacturer" means a person who manufactures but does not include an

apothecary who compounds controlled substances to be sold or dispensed on prescriptions.

     (29)(30) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or

indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of

chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

     (i) Opium and opiates.

     (ii) A compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiates.

     (iii) A substance (and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, or preparation of it)

which that is chemically identical with any of the substances referred to in paragraphs (i) and (ii)

of this subdivision.

     (iv) Any other substance which that the attorney general of the United States, or his or

her successor, or the director of health, after investigation, has found to have, and by regulation

designates as having, a potential for abuse similar to opium and opiates.

     (30)(31) "Official written order" means an order written on a form provided for that

purpose by the Drug Enforcement Administration under any laws of the United States making

provision for an official form, if order forms are authorized and required by federal law, and if no

order form is provided then on an official form provided for that purpose by the director of health.

     (31)(32) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction-forming or addiction-

sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having

addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability.

     (32)(33) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species papaver somniferum L., except

the seeds of the plant.

     (33)(34) "Ounce" means an avoirdupois ounce as applied to solids and semi-solids, and a

fluid ounce as applied to liquids.

     (34)(35) "Person" means any corporation, association, partnership, or one or more

individuals.

     (35)(36) "Physical dependence" means a state of adaptation that is manifested by a drug

class specific withdrawal syndrome that can be produced by abrupt cessation, rapid dose

reduction, decreasing blood level of the drug, and/or administration of an antagonist.

     (36)(37) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after

mowing.

     (37)(38) "Practitioner" means:

     (i) A physician, osteopath, dentist, chiropodist, veterinarian, scientific investigator, or

other person licensed, registered or permitted to distribute, dispense, conduct research with

respect to or to administer a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research

in this state.

     (ii) A pharmacy, hospital, or other institution licensed, registered or permitted to

distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, or to administer a controlled substance in

the course of professional practice or research in this state.

     (38)(39) "Printout" means a hard copy produced by computer that is readable without the

aid of any special device.

     (39)(40) "Production" includes the manufacture, planting, cultivation, growing, or

harvesting of a controlled substance.

     (41) "Qualified law enforcement agency" means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration,

Drug Enforcement Administration, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Office of Inspector General

of the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services, or the Medicaid Fraud and Patient Abuse

Unit in the Office of the Attorney General.

      (40)(42) "Researcher" means a person authorized by the director of health to conduct a

laboratory as defined in this chapter.

     (41)(43) "Sell" includes sale, barter, gift, transfer, or delivery in any manner to another,

or to offer or agree to do the same.

     (42)(44) "Software" means programs, procedures and storage of required information

data.

     (43)(45) "Synthetic drugs" means any synthetic cannabinoids or piperazines or any

synthetic cathinones as provided for in schedule I.

     (44)(46) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance

for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household, or for administering to

an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

     (45)(47) "Wholesaler" means a person who sells, vends, or distributes at wholesale, or as

a jobber, broker agent, or distributor, or for resale in any manner in this state any controlled

substance.


 

 

171)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28-2.08

53 and 59

 

 

21-28-2.08. Contents of schedules.

Schedule I

     (a) Schedule I shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name,

common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section.

     (b) Opiates. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the

following opiates, including its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and

ethers whenever the existence of the isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the

specific chemical designation:

     (1) Acetylmethadol

     (2) Allylprodine

     (3) Alphacetylmethadol

     (4) Alphameprodine

     (5) Alphamethadol

     (6) Benzethidine

     (7) Betacetylmethadol

     (8) Betameprodine

     (9) Betamethadol

     (10) Betaprodine

     (11) Clonitazene

     (12) Dextromoramide

     (13) Difenoxin

     (14) Diampromide

     (15) Diethylthiambutene

     (16) Dimenoxadol

     (17) Dimepheptanol

     (18) Dimethylthiambutene

     (19) Dioxaphetyl butyrate

     (20) Dipipanone

     (21) Ethylmethylthiambutene

     (22) Etonitazene

     (23) Extoxerdine

     (24) Furethidine

     (25) Hydroxypethidine

     (26) Ketobemidone

     (27) Levomoramide

     (28) Levophenacylmorphan

     (29) Morpheridine

     (30) Noracymethadol

     (31) Norlevorphanol

     (32) Normethadone

     (33) Norpipanone

     (34) Phenadoxone

     (35) Phenampromide

     (36) Phenomorphan

     (37) Phenoperidine

     (38) Piritramide

     (39) Proheptazine

     (40) Properidine

     (41) Propiram

     (42) Racemoramide

     (43) Trimeperidone

     (44) Tilidine

     (45) Alpha-methylfentanyl

     (46) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl other names:

     N-[1-(2hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4piperidingyl] Nphenylpropanamide

     (47) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl (N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-

phenylpropanamide)

     (48) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide, its optical, positional, and

geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other names: acetyl fentanyl)

     (49) N-[1-[2-hydroxy-2-(thiophen-2-yl)ethyl]piperidin-4-yl]-N-phenylpropionamide

(Other names: beta-hydroxythiofentanyl)

     (50) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutyramide (Other names: Butyryl fentanyl)

     (51) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylfuran-2-carboxamide (Other names: Furanyl

fentanyl)

     (52) 3,4-dichloro-N-[(1-dimethylamino) cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide (Other names:

AH-7921)

     (53) 3,4-Dichloro-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methylbenzamide (Other names:

U-47700)

     (54) 3-Methylbutyrfentanyl (Other names: 3-MBF)

     (55) 4-Fluorobutyrfentanyl (Other names: 4-FBF, p-FBF)

     (56) 4-Phenylfentanyl

     (57) 4-Methoxybutyrfentanyl (Other names: 4-MeO-BF)

     (58) Acrylfentanyl (Other names: acryloyfentanyl)

     (59) Lofentanyl

     (60) N-Methylcarfentanyl

     (61) Ocfentanyl (INN, A-3217)

     (63) 4-methoxymethylfentanyl (Other names: R-30490)

     (64) 1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2 diphenylethyl)piperazine) (Other names: MT-45, IC-6)

     (c) Opium Derivatives. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule,

any of the following opium derivatives, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the

existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical

designation:

     (1) Acetorphine

     (2) Acetyldihydrocodeine

     (3) Benzylmorphine

     (4) Codeine methylbromide

     (5) Codeine-N-Oxide

     (6) Cyprenorphine

     (7) Desomorphine

     (8) Dihydromorphine

     (9) Etorphine (Except hydrochloride salt)

     (10) Heroin

     (11) Hydromorphinol

     (12) Methyldesorphine

     (13) Methylihydromorphine

     (14) Morphine methylbromide

     (15) Morphine methylsulfonate

     (16) Morphine-N-Oxide

     (17) Myrophine

     (18) Nococodeine

     (19) Nicomorphine

     (20) Normorphine

     (21) Pholcodine

     (22) Thebacon

     (23) Drotebanol

     (d) Hallucinogenic Substances. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another

schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the

following hallucinogenic substances, or that contains any of its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers

whenever the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific

chemical designation (for purposes of this subsection only, the term "isomer" includes the optical,

position, and geometric isomers):

     (1) 3, 4-methylenedioxy amphetamine

     (2) 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxy amphetamine

     (3) 3, 4, 5-trimethoxy amphetamine

     (4) Bufotenine

     (5) Diethyltryptamine

     (6) Dimethyltryptamine

     (7) 4-methyl 2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine

     (8) Ibogaine

     (9) Lysergic acid diethylamide

     (10) Marihuana

     (11) Mescaline

     (12) Peyote. Meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora

Williamsii Lemair whether growing or not; the seeds of the plant; any extract from any part of the

plant; and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its

seeds or extracts.

     (13) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate

     (14) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate

     (15) Psilocybin

     (16) Psilocyn

     (17) Tetrahydrocannabinols. Synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the

plant, or in the resinous extractives of Cannabis, sp. and/or synthetic substances, derivatives, and

their isomers with similar chemical structure and pharmacological activity such as the following:

delta 1 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers. Delta 6 cis or trans

tetrahydrocannabinol and their optical isomers. Delta 3, 4 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol and

their optical isomer. (Since nomenclature of these substances is not internationally standardized,

compounds of these structures, regardless of numerical designation of atomic positions covered).

     (18) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine. 1-(1-(2 thienyl) cyclo-hexyl) pipiridine: 2-

Thienyl analog of phencyclidine: TPCP

     (19) 2,5 dimethoxyamphetamine

     (20) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine, 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-

methylphenethyamine: 4-bromo-2,5-DMA

     (21) 4-methoxyamphetamine-4-methoxy-alpha-methylphenethylaimine:

paramethoxyamphetamine: PMA

     (22) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine. N-ethyl-1- phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-

phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclophexyl) ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE

     (23) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine. 1-(1-phencyclohexyl)- pyrrolidine PCPy, PHP

     (24) Parahexyl; some trade or other names: 3-Hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-

trimethyl-6H-dibenz o (b,d) pyran: Synhexyl.

     (25) Salvia Divinorum (Salvinorin A or Divinorin A), meaning any extract from any part

of the plant, and any compound, salt derivative, or mixture of the plant or its extracts. This shall

not mean the unaltered plant.

     (26) Datura stamonium (jimsom weed or datura), meaning any extract from any part of

the plant, and any compound, salt derivative, or mixture of the plant or its extracts. This shall not

mean the unaltered plant.

     (e) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any

material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following

substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers,

and salts of isomers whenever the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible

within the specific chemical designation:

     (1) Mecloqualone.

     (2) Methaqualone.

     (3) 3-methyl fentanyl (n-(3methyl-1(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl)-N-phenylpropanamide.

     (4) 3,4-methyl-enedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA), its optical, positional, and

geometric isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

     (5) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine (MPPP), its optical isomers, salts, and

salts of isomers.

     (6) 1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetyloxypiperidine (PEPAP), its optical isomers, salts,

and salts of isomers.

     (7) N-(1-(1-methyl-2-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl)-N-phenyl-acetamide (acetyl-alpha-

methylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

     (8) N-(1-(1-methyl-2(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl)-N-phenylpropanami de (alpha-

methylthiofentanyl), its optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

     (9) N-(1-benzyl-piperidyl)-N-phenylpropanamide (benzyl-fentanyl), its optical isomers,

salts, and salts of isomers.

     (10) N-(1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl)-N-phenyl-propanamid e (beta-

hydroxyfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

     (11) N-(3-methyl-1(2-hydroxy-2-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl)-N-phenylpro panamide (beta-

hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl), its optical and geometric isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

     (12) N-(3-methyl)-1-(2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl)-N-phenylpro- panamide (3-

methylthiofentanyl), its optical and geometric isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

     (13) N-(1-2-thienyl)methyl-4-piperidyl)-N-phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl), its

optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

     (14) N-(1-(2(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl-N-phenylpropanamide (thiofentanyl), its optical

isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

     (15) N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl] N-(4-fluorophenyl)-propanamid e (para-

fluorofentanyl), its optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

     (16) Gamma hydroxybutyrate, HOOC-CH2-CH2-CH2OH, its optical, position, or

geometric isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

     (f) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any

material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following

substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers,

and salts of isomers:

     (1) Fenethylline

     (2) N-ethylamphetamine

     (3) 4-methyl-N-methylcathinone (Other name: mephedrone)

     (4) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-methlycathinone (Other name: methylone)

     (5) 3,4-methylenedioxypyrovalerone (Other name: MDPV)

     (g) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the

following substances:

     (1) 5-(1,1-Dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl] phenol (CP-47,497)

     (2) 5-(1,1-Dimethyloctyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl] phenol

(cannabicyclohexanol and CP-47,497 c8 homologue)

     (3) 1-Butyl-3-(1 naphthoyl)indole, (JWH-073)

     (4) 1-[2-(4-Morpholinyl)ethyl] 3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-200)

     (5) 1-Pentyl-3-(1-napthoyl)indole, (JWH-018 and AM678)

     (h) Synthetic cannabinoids or piperazines. Unless specifically excepted, any chemical

compound which is not approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration or, if

approved, which is not dispensed or possessed in accordance with state and federal law, that

contains Benzylpiperazine (BZP); Trifluoromethylphenylpiperazine (TFMPP); 1,1-

Dimethylheptyl-11-hydroxytetrahydrocannabinol (HU-210); 1-Butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl) indole; 1-

Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl) indole; dexanabinol (HU-211); or any compound in the following

structural classes:

     (1) Naphthoylindoles: Any compound containing a 3-(1-naphthoyl)indole structure with

substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl

group, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not

substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited, to JWH-015, JWH-018, JWH-019, JWH-073, JWH-081, JWH-122, JWH-200, and

AM-200

     (2) Phenylacetylindoles: Any compound containing a 3-phenylacetylindole structure with

substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl

group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not

substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not

limited to, JWH-167, JWH-250, JWH-251, and RCS-8;

     (3) Benzoylindoles: Any compound containing a 3-(benzoyl) indole structure with

substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl

group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not

substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not

limited, to AM-630, AM-2233, AM-694, Pravadoline (WIN 48,098), and RCS-4;

     (4) Cyclohexylphenols: Any compound containing a 2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol

structure with substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl

group whether or not substituted in the cyclohexyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural

class include, but are not limited to, CP 47,497 and its C8 homologue (cannabicyclohexanol);

     (5) Naphthylmethylindoles: Any compound containing a 1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)

methane structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl,

alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-

morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent and

whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class

include, but are not limited to, JWH-175, JWH-184, and JWH-185;

     (6) Naphthoylpyrroles: Any compound containing a 3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole structure

with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl

group whether or not further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent and whether or not

substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited, to JWH-030, JWH-145, JWH-146, JWH-307, and JWH-368;

     (7) Naphthylmethylindenes: Any compound containing a 1-(1-naphthylmethyl)indene

structure with substitution at the 3-position of the indene ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl

group whether or not further substituted in the indene ring to any extent and whether or not

substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, JWH-176; or

     (8) Any other synthetic cannabinoid or piperazine which is not approved by the United

States Food and Drug Administration or, if approved, which is not dispensed or possessed in

accordance with state and federal law;

     (i) Synthetic cathinones. Unless specifically excepted, any chemical compound which is

not approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration or, if approved, which is not

dispensed or possessed in accordance with state and federal law, not including bupropion,

structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution at the 1-position with either

phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the compound is further modified in

one or more of the following ways:

     (1) By substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy,

haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substituents, whether or not further substituted in the ring system

by one or more other univalent substituents. Examples of this class include, but are not limited to,

3,4-Methylenedioxycathinone (bk-MDA);

     (2) By substitution at the 3-position with an acyclic alkyl substituent. Examples of this

class include, but are not limited to, 2-methylamino-1-phenylbutan-1-one (buphedrone);

     (3) By substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or

methoxybenzyl groups, or by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure.

Examples of this class include, but are not limited to, Dimethylcathinone, Ethcathinone, and a-

Pyrrolidinopropiophenone (a-PPP); or

     (4) Any other synthetic cathinone which is not approved by the United States Food and

Drug Administration or, if approved, is not dispensed or possessed in accordance with state or

federal law;

     Schedule II

     (a) Schedule II shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name,

common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section.

     (b) Substances, vegetable origin, or chemical synthesis. Unless specifically excepted or

unless listed in another schedule, any of the following substances whether produced directly or

indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of

chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

     (1) Opium and opiate, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or

opiate excluding naloxone and its salts, and excluding naltrexone and its salts, but including the

following:

     (i) Raw opium

     (ii) Opium extracts

     (iii) Opium fluid extracts

     (iv) Powdered opium

     (v) Granulated opium

     (vi) Tincture of opium

     (vii) Etorphine hydrochloride

     (viii) Codeine

     (ix) Ethylmorphine

     (x) Hydrocodone

     (xi) Hydromorphone

     (xii) Metopon

     (xiii) Morphine

     (xiv) Oxycodone

     (xv) Oxymorphone

     (xvi) Thebaine

     (2) Any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation that is chemically equivalent or

identical with any of the substances referred to in subdivision (1) of this subsection, except that

these substances shall not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium.

     (3) Opium poppy and poppy straw.

     (4) Coca leaves and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves, and

any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation that is chemically equivalent or identical with any

of these substances, except that the substances shall not include decocainized coca leaves or

extraction of coca leaves, which extractions do not contain cocaine or ecgonine.

     (5) Concentrate of poppy straw (the crude extract of poppy straw in liquid, solid, or

powder form that contains the phenanthrine alkaloids of the opium poppy).

     (c) Opiates. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the

following opiates, including its isomers, esters, ethers, salts; and salts of isomers, esters, and

ethers whenever the existence of the isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the

specific chemical designation:

     (1) Alphaprodine

     (2) Anileridine

     (3) Bezitramide

     (4) Dihydrocodeine

     (5) Diphenoxylate

     (6) Fentanyl

     (7) Isomethadone

     (8) Levomethorphan

     (9) Levorphanol

     (10) Metazocine

     (11) Methadone

     (12) Methadone-Intermediate, 4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4, 4-diphenyl butane

     (13) Moramide-Intermediate, 2-methyl-3-morpholino-1, 1-diphenylpropane-carboxylic

acid

     (14) Pethidine

     (15) Pethidine-Intermediate-A, 4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine

     (16) Pethidine-Intermediate-B, ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate

     (17) Pethidine-Intermediate-C, 1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid

     (18) Phenaxocine

     (19) Piminodine

     (20) Racemethorphan

     (21) Racemorphan

     (22) Bulk Dextropropoxyphene (non-dosage forms)

     (23) Suffentanil

     (24) Alfentanil

     (25) Levoalphacetylmethadol

     (26) Carfentanil

     (27) Remifentanil

     (d) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any

material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following

substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system:

     (1) Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers.

     (2) Methamphetamine, its salts, and salts of its isomers.

     (3) Phenmetrazine and its salts.

     (4) Methylphenidate.

     (e) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any

material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following

substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers,

and salts of isomers whenever the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible

within the specific chemical designation:

     (1) Amobarbital

     (2) Glutethimide

     (3) Methyprylon

     (4) Pentobarbital

     (5) Phencyclidine

     (6) Secobarbital

     (7) Phencyclidine immediate precursors:

     (i) 1-phencyclohexylamine

     (ii) 1-piperidinocyclohexane-carbonitrile (PCC)

     (8) Immediate precursor to amphetamine and methamphetamine: Phenylacetone. Some

other names: phenyl-2-propanone; P2P; benzyl methyl ketone; methyl benzone ketone.

     Schedule III

     (a) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material,

compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having

a depressant effect on the central nervous system:

     (1) Any substance that contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid or any salt

of a derivative of barbituric acid.

     (2) Chlorhexadol

     (3) Lysergic acid

     (4) Lysergic acid amide

     (5) Sulfondiethylmethane

     (6) Sulfonethylmethane

     (7) Sylfonmethane

     (8) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing amobarbital, secobarbital,

pentobarbital, or any salt of them and one or more other active medicinal ingredients that are not

listed in any schedule.

     (9) Any suppository dosage form containing amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital, or

any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the Food and Drug Administration for marketing

only as a suppository.

     (10) Ketamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers. (Some other names for ketamine:

(+)-2-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)-cyclohexanone).

     (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material,

compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic

drugs, or any salts of them:

     (1) Not more than one and eight tenths grams (1.8 gms.) of codeine per one hundred

milliliters (100 mls.) or not more than ninety milligrams (90 mgs.) per dosage unit, with an equal

or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium.

     (2) Not more than one and eight tenths grams (1.8 gms.) of codeine per one hundred

milliliters (100 mls.) or not more than ninety milligrams (90 mgs.) per dosage unit, with one or

more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

     (3) Not more than three hundred milligrams (300 mgs.) of dihydrocodeinone per one

hundred milliliters (100 mls.) or not more than fifteen milligrams (15 mgs.) per dosage unit, with

a fourfold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium.

     (4) Not more than three hundred milligrams (300 mgs.) of dihydrocodeinone per one

hundred milliliters (100 mls.) or not more than fifteen milligrams (15 mgs.) per dosage unit, with

one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

     (5) Not more than one and eight tenths grams (1.8 gms.) of dihydrocodeine per one

hundred milliliters (100 mls.) or not more than ninety milligrams (90 mgs.) per dosage unit, with

one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

     (6) Not more than three hundred milligrams (300 mgs.) of ethylmorphine per one

hundred milliliters (100 mls.) or not more than fifteen milligrams (15 mgs.) per dosage unit, with

one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

     (7) Not more than five hundred milligrams (500 mgs.) of opium per one hundred

milliliters (100 mls.) or per one hundred grams (100 gms.) or not more than twenty-five

milligrams (25 mgs.) per dosage unit, with one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in

recognized therapeutic amounts.

     (8) Not more than fifty milligrams (50 mgs.) of morphine per one hundred milliliters (100

mls.) per one hundred grams (100 gms.) with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in

recognized therapeutic amounts.

     (c) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or listed in another schedule, any material,

compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having

a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of the

isomers whenever the existence of the salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical

designation:

     (1) Benzphetamine

     (2) Chlorphentermine

     (3) Clortermine

     (4) Mazindol

     (5) Phendimetrazine

     (d) Steroids and hormones. Anabolic steroids (AS) or human growth hormone (HGH),

excluding those compounds, mixtures, or preparations containing an anabolic steroid that because

of its concentration, preparation, mixture, or delivery system, has no significant potential for

abuse, as published in 21 CFR 1308.34, including, but not limited to, the following:

     (1) Chlorionic gonadotropin

     (2) Clostebol

     (3) Dehydrochlormethyltestosterone

     (4) Ethylestrenol

     (5) Fluoxymesterone

     (6) Mesterolone

     (7) Metenolone

     (8) Methandienone

     (9) Methandrostenolone

     (10) Methyltestosterone

     (11) Nandrolone decanoate

     (12) Nandrolone phenpropionate

     (13) Norethandrolone

     (14) Oxandrolone

     (15) Oxymesterone

     (16) Oxymetholone

     (17) Stanozolol

     (18) Testosterone propionate

     (19) Testosterone-like related compounds

     (20) Human Growth Hormone (HGH)

     (e) Hallucinogenic substances.

     (1) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in U.S.

Food and Drug Administration-approved drug product. (Some other names for dronabinol: (6aR-

trans)-6a, 7, 8, 10a- tetrahydro-6, 6, 9- trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H- dibenzo[b,d] yra n-1-ol,or(-)-delta-

9(trans)-tetrahydrocannabinol.)

     Schedule IV

     (1) Barbital.

     (2) Chloral betaine

     (3) Chloral hydrate

     (4) Ethchrovynol

     (5) Ethinamate

     (6) Methohexital

     (7) Meprobamate

     (8) Methylphenobarbital

     (9) Paraldehyde

     (10) Petrichloral

     (11) Phenobarbital

     (12) Fenfluramine

     (13) Diethylpropion

     (14) Phentermine

     (15) Pemoline (including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof).

     (16) Chlordiazepoxide

     (17) Clonazepam

     (18) Clorazepate

     (19) Diazepam

     (20) Flurazepam

     (21) Mebutamate

     (22) Oxazepam

     (23) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material,

compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances,

including its salts:

     Dextropropoxyphene(alpha-(+)-4-dimethylamino-1,2-diphenyl-3- methyl-2-

propronoxybutane).

     (24) Prazepam

     (25) Lorazepam

     (26) Not more than one milligram (1 mg.) of difenoxin and not less than twenty-five (25)

micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.

     (27) Pentazocine

     (28) Pipradrol

     (29) SPA (-)-1-dimethylamino-1, 2-diphenylethane

     (30) Temazepam

     (31) Halazepam

     (32) Alprazolam

     (33) Bromazepam

     (34) Camazepam

     (35) Clobazam

     (36) Clotiazepam

     (37) Cloxazolam

     (38) Delorazepam

     (39) Estazolam

     (40) Ethyl Ioflazepate

     (41) Fludizaepam

     (42) Flunitrazepam

     (43) Haloxazolam

     (44) Ketazolam

     (45) Loprazolam

     (46) Lormetazepam

     (47) Medazepam

     (48) Nimetazepam

     (49) Nitrazepam

     (50) Nordiazepam

     (51) Oxazolam

     (52) Pinazepam

     (53) Tetrazepam

     (54) Mazindol

     (55) Triazolam

     (56) Midazolam

     (57) Quazepam

     (58) Butorphanol

     (59) Sibutramine

     Schedule V

     (a) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following limited

quantities of narcotic drugs, which shall include one or more non-narcotic active medicinal

ingredients in sufficient proportion to confer upon the compound, mixture, or preparation

valuable medicinal qualities other than those possessed by the narcotic drug alone:

     (1) Not more than two hundred milligrams (200 mgs.) of codeine per 100 milliliters (100

mls.) or per one hundred grams (100 gms.).

     (2) Not more than one hundred milligrams (100 mgs.) of dihydrocodeine per 100

milliliters (100 mls.) or per one hundred grams (100 gms.).

     (3) Not more than one hundred milligrams (100 mgs.) of ethylmorphine per 100

milliliters (100 mls.) or per one hundred grams (100 gms.).

     (4) Not more than two and five tenths milligrams (2.5 mgs.) of diphenixylate and not less

than twenty-five (25) micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.

     (5) Not more than one hundred milligrams (100 mgs.) of opium per one hundred

milliliters (100 mls.) or per one hundred grams (100 gms.).

     (b) Not more than five tenths milligrams (0.5 mgs.) of difenoxin and not less than twenty-

five (25) micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.

     (c) Buprenorphine

     (d) Unless specifically exempted or excluded or unless listed in another schedule, any

material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following

substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers,

and salts of isomers:

     (1) Propylhexedrine (except as benzedrex inhaler)

     (2) Pyrovalerone.


 

 

172)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28-3.18

198 and 247, 207and 250

 

 

21-28-3.18. Prescriptions.

     (a) An apothecary in good faith may sell and dispense controlled substances in schedules

II, III, IV, and V to any person upon a valid prescription by a practitioner licensed by law to

prescribe or administer those substances, dated and signed by the person prescribing on the day

when issued and bearing the full name and address of the patient to whom, or of the owner of the

animal for which, the substance is dispensed and the full name, address, and registration number

under the federal law of the person prescribing, if he or she is required by that law to be

registered. If the prescription is for an animal, it shall state the species of the animal for which the

substance is prescribed.

     (b) When filling a hard-copy prescription for a schedule II controlled substance, the

apothecary filling the prescription shall sign his or her full name and shall write the date of filling

on the face of the prescription.

     (c) The prescription shall be retained on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy in which it

was filled for a period of two (2) years so as to be readily accessible for inspection by any public

officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this chapter.

     (d) (1) Hard-copy prescriptions for controlled substances in schedule II shall be filed

separately and shall not be refilled.

     (2) The director of health shall, after appropriate notice and hearing pursuant to § 42-35-

3, promulgate rules and regulations for the purpose of adopting a system for electronic data

transmission, including by facsimile, of prescriptions for controlled substances in schedules II, III,

IV, and V. Opioid antagonists, including, but not limited to, naloxone, as may be further

determined by rules and regulations, shall be transmitted with controlled substances in schedule

II, III, IV, and V. Provided, information collected regarding dispensing of opioid antagonists shall

be for statistical, research, or educational purposes only. The department's rules and regulations

shall require the removal of patient, recipient, or prescriber information that could be used to

identify individual patients or recipients of opioid antagonists.

     (3) A practitioner may shall sign and transmit electronic prescriptions for controlled

substances in schedules II, III, IV, and V to a pharmacy in accordance with rules and regulations

as shall be promulgated by the department and which shall require electronic transmission no

sooner than January 1, 2020, and a pharmacy may dispense an electronically transmitted

prescription for these controlled substances in accordance with the code of federal regulations, 21

C.F.R., pt. 1300, et seq.

     (e) Subject to the rules and regulations promulgated by the department pursuant to §21-

28-3.18 subsection (d)(3) of this section, A a prescription for a schedule II narcotic substance to

be compounded for the direct administration to a patient by parenteral, intravenous,

intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion may be transmitted by the practitioner, or

practitioner's agent, to the pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile will serve as the original

prescription.

     (f) Subject to the rules and regulations promulgated by the department pursuant to §21-

28-3.18 subsection (d)(3) of this section, A a prescription for a schedule II substance for a

resident of a long-term-care facility may be transmitted by the practitioner, or the practitioner's

agent, to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile serves as the original prescription.

     (g) Subject to the rules and regulations promulgated by the department pursuant to §21-

28-3.18 subsection (d)(3) of this section, A a prescription for a schedule II narcotic substance for

a patient residing in a hospice certified by Medicare under title XVIII of the Social Security Act,

42 U.S.C. § 1395 et seq., or licensed by the state, may be transmitted by the practitioner, or

practitioner's agent, to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The practitioner, or the

practitioner's agent, will note on the prescription that the patient is a hospice patient. The

facsimile serves as the original, written prescription.

     (h) An apothecary, in lieu of a written prescription, may sell and dispense controlled

substances in schedules III, IV, and V to any person upon an oral prescription of a practitioner. In

issuing an oral prescription, the prescriber shall furnish the apothecary with the same information

as is required by subsection (a) of this section and the apothecary who fills the prescription shall

immediately reduce the oral prescription to writing and shall inscribe the information on the

written record of the prescription made. This record shall be filed and preserved by the proprietor

of the pharmacy in which it is filled in accordance with the provisions of subsection (c) of this

section. In no case may a prescription for a controlled substance listed in schedules III, IV, or V

be filled or refilled more than six (6) months after the date on which the prescription was issued

and no prescription shall be authorized to be refilled more than five (5) times. Each refilling shall

be entered on the face or back of the prescription and note the date and amount of controlled

substance dispensed and the initials or identity of the dispensing apothecary.

     (i) In the case of an emergency situation as defined in federal law, an apothecary may

dispense a controlled substance listed in schedule II upon receiving an oral authorization of a

prescribing practitioner provided that:

     (1) The quantity prescribed and dispensed is limited to the amount adequate to treat the

patient during the emergency period and dispensing beyond the emergency period must be

pursuant to a written prescription signed by the prescribing practitioner.

     (2) The prescription shall be immediately reduced to writing and shall contain all the

information required in subsection (a).

     (3) The prescription must be dispensed in good faith in the normal course of professional

practice.

     (4) Within seven (7) days after authorizing an emergency oral prescription, the

prescribing practitioner shall cause a prescription for the emergency quantity prescribed to be

delivered to the dispensing apothecary. The prescription shall have written on its face

"Aauthorization for emergency dispensing" and the date of the oral order. The prescription, upon

receipt by the apothecary, shall be attached to the oral emergency prescription that had earlier

been reduced to writing.

     (j) (1) The partial filling of a prescription for a controlled substance listed in schedule II

is permissible, if the apothecary is unable to supply the full quantity called for in a prescription or

emergency oral prescription and he or she makes a notation of the quantity supplied on the face of

the prescription or oral emergency prescription that has been reduced to writing. The remaining

portion of the prescription may be filled within seventy-two (72) hours of the first partial filling,

however, if the remaining portion is not, or cannot be, filled within seventy-two (72) hours, the

apothecary shall notify the prescribing practitioner. No further quantity may be supplied beyond

seventy-two (72) hours without a new prescription.

     (2) (i) A prescription for a schedule II controlled substance written for a patient in a long-

term-care facility (LTCF), or for a patient with a medical diagnosis documenting a terminal

illness, may be filled in partial quantities to include individual dosage units. If there is a question

whether a patient may be classified as having a terminal illness, the pharmacist must contact the

practitioner prior to partially filling the prescription. Both the pharmacist and the prescribing

practitioner have a corresponding responsibility to assure that the controlled substance is for a

terminally ill patient.

     (ii) The pharmacist must record on the prescription whether the patient is "terminally ill"

or an "LTCF patient." A prescription that is partially filled, and does not contain the notation

"terminally ill" or "LTCF patient", shall be deemed to have been filled in violation of this chapter.

     (iii) For each partial filling, the dispensing pharmacist shall record on the back of the

prescription (or on another appropriate record, uniformly maintained, and readily retrievable),

the:

     (A) Date of the partial filling;

     (B) Quantity dispensed;

     (C) Remaining quantity authorized to be dispensed; and

     (D) Identification of the dispensing pharmacist.

     (iv) The total quantity of schedule II controlled substances dispensed in all partial fillings

must not exceed the total quantity prescribed.

     (v) Schedule II prescriptions for patients in a LTCF, or patients with a medical diagnosis

documenting a terminal illness, are valid for a period not to exceed sixty (60) days from the issue

date, unless sooner terminated by the discontinuance of medication.

     (k) Automated, data-processing systems. As an alternative to the prescription record

keeping provision of subsection (h) of this section, an automated, data-processing system may be

employed for the record-keeping system if the following conditions have been met:

     (1) The system shall have the capability of producing sight-readable documents of all

original and refilled prescription information. The term "sight readable" means that an authorized

agent shall be able to examine the record and read the information. During the course of an on-

site inspection, the record may be read from the CRT, microfiche, microfilm, printout, or other

method acceptable to the director. In the case of administrative proceedings, records must be

provided in a paper printout form.

     (2) The information shall include, but not be limited to, the prescription requirements and

records of dispensing as indicated in subsection (h) of this section.

     (3) The individual pharmacist responsible for completeness and accuracy of the entries to

the system must provide documentation of the fact that prescription information entered into the

computer is correct. In documenting this information, the pharmacy shall have the option to

either:

     (i) Maintain a bound logbook, or separate file, in which each individual pharmacist

involved in the dispensing shall sign a statement each day attesting to the fact that the prescription

information entered into the computer that day has been reviewed and is correct

as shown. The book or file must be maintained at the pharmacy employing that system for a

period of at least two (2) years after the date of last dispensing; or

     (ii) Provide a printout of each day's prescription information. That printout shall be

verified, dated, and signed by the individual pharmacist verifying that the information indicated is

correct. The printout must be maintained at least two (2) years from the date of last dispensing.

     (4) An auxiliary, record-keeping system shall be established for the documentation of

refills if the automated, data-processing system is inoperative for any reason. The auxiliary

system shall ensure that all refills are authorized by the original prescription and that the

maximum number of refills is not exceeded. When this automated, data-processing system is

restored to operation, the information regarding prescriptions filled and refilled during the

inoperative period shall be entered into the automated, data-processing system within ninety-six

(96) hours.

     (5) Any pharmacy using an automated, data-processing system must comply with all

applicable state and federal laws and regulations.

     (6) A pharmacy shall make arrangements with the supplier of data-processing services or

materials to ensure that the pharmacy continues to have adequate and complete prescription and

dispensing records if the relationship with the supplier terminates for any reason. A pharmacy

shall ensure continuity in the maintenance of records.

     (7) The automated, data-processing system shall contain adequate safeguards for security

of the records to maintain the confidentiality and accuracy of the prescription information.

Safeguards against unauthorized changes in data after the information has been entered and

verified by the registered pharmacist shall be provided by the system.

     (l) Prescriptions for controlled substances as found in schedule II will become void unless

dispensed within ninety (90) days of the original date of the prescription and in no event shall

more than a thirty-day (30) supply be dispensed at any one time.

     (1) In prescribing controlled substances in schedule II, practitioners may write up to three

(3) separate prescriptions, each for up to a one-month supply, each signed and dated on the date

written. For those prescriptions for the second and/or third month, the practitioner must write the

earliest date each of those subsequent prescriptions may be filled, with directions to the pharmacist

to fill no earlier than the date specified on the face of the prescription.

     (m) The prescriptions in schedules III, IV, and V will become void unless dispensed

within one hundred eighty (180) days of the original date of the prescription. For purposes of this

section, a "dosage unit" shall be defined as a single capsule, tablet, or suppository, or not more

than one five (5) ml. of an oral liquid.

     (1) Prescriptions in Schedule III cannot be written for more than one hundred (100)

dosage units and not more than one hundred (100) dosage units may be dispensed at one time.

     (2) Prescriptions in sSchedules IV and V may be written for up to a ninety-day (90) supply

based on directions. No more than three hundred and sixty (360) dosage units may be dispensed

at one time.

     (n) A pharmacy shall transmit prescription information to the prescription-monitoring

database at the department of health within one business day following the dispensing of an

opioid prescription.

     (o) The pharmacist shall inform patients verbally or in writing about the proper disposal

of expired, unused, or unwanted medications, including the location of local disposal sites as

listed on the department of health website.

     (p) The pharmacist shall inform patients verbally or in writing in the proper use of any

devices necessary for the administration of controlled substances.

21-28-3.18. Prescriptions.

     (a) An apothecary in good faith may sell and dispense controlled substances in schedule

II, III, IV, and V to any person upon a valid prescription by a practitioner licensed by law to

prescribe or administer those substances, dated and signed by the person prescribing on the day

when issued and bearing the full name and address of the patient to whom, or of the owner of the

animal for which, the substance is dispensed and the full name, address, and registration number

under the federal law of the person prescribing, if he or she is required by that law to be

registered. If the prescription is for an animal, it shall state the species of the animal for which the

substance is prescribed.

     (b) When filling a hard-copy prescription for a schedule II controlled substance, the

apothecary filling the prescription shall sign his or her full name and shall write the date of filling

on the face of the prescription.

     (c) The prescription shall be retained on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy in which it

was filled for a period of two (2) years so as to be readily accessible for inspection by any public

officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this chapter.

     (d) (1) Hard-copy prescriptions for controlled substances in schedule II shall be filed

separately and shall not be refilled.

     (2) The director of health shall, after appropriate notice and hearing pursuant to § 42-35-

3, promulgate rules and regulations for the purpose of adopting a system for electronic data

transmission, including by facsimile, of prescriptions for controlled substances in schedules II, III,

IV, and V.

     (3) A practitioner may sign and transmit electronic prescriptions for controlled substances

and a pharmacy may dispense an electronically transmitted prescription in accordance with the

code of federal regulations, 21 C.F.R., pt. 1300, et seq.

     (e) A prescription for a schedule II narcotic substance to be compounded for the direct

administration to a patient by parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal

infusion may be transmitted by the practitioner, or practitioner's agent, to the pharmacy by

facsimile. The facsimile will serve as the original prescription.

     (f) A prescription for a schedule II substance for a resident of a long-term-care facility

may be transmitted by the practitioner, or the practitioner's agent, to the dispensing pharmacy by

facsimile. The facsimile serves as the original prescription.

     (g) A prescription for a schedule II narcotic substance for a patient residing in a hospice

certified by Medicare under title XVIII of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. § 1395 et seq., or

licensed by the state, may be transmitted by the practitioner, or practitioner's agent, to the

dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The practitioner, or the practitioner's agent, will note on the

prescription that the patient is a hospice patient. The facsimile serves as the original, written

prescription.

     (h) An apothecary, in lieu of a written prescription, may sell and dispense controlled

substances in schedules III, IV, and V to any person upon an oral prescription of a practitioner. In

issuing an oral prescription, the prescriber shall furnish the apothecary with the same information

as is required by subsection (a) of this section and the apothecary who fills the prescription shall

immediately reduce the oral prescription to writing and shall inscribe the information on the

written record of the prescription made. This record shall be filed and preserved by the proprietor

of the pharmacy in which it is filled in accordance with the provisions of subsection (c) of this

section. In no case may a prescription for a controlled substance listed in schedules III, IV, or V

be filled or refilled more than six (6) months after the date on which the prescription was issued

and no prescription shall be authorized to be refilled more than five (5) times. Each refilling shall

be entered on the face or back of the prescription and note the date and amount of controlled

substance dispensed and the initials or identity of the dispensing apothecary.

     (i) In the case of an emergency situation as defined in federal law, an apothecary may

dispense a controlled substance listed in schedule II upon receiving an oral authorization of a

prescribing practitioner provided that:

     (1) The quantity prescribed and dispensed is limited to the amount adequate to treat the

patient during the emergency period and dispensing beyond the emergency period must be

pursuant to a written prescription signed by the prescribing practitioner.

     (2) The prescription shall be immediately reduced to writing and shall contain all the

information required in subsection (a).

     (3) The prescription must be dispensed in good faith in the normal course of professional

practice.

     (4) Within seven (7) days after authorizing an emergency oral prescription, the

prescribing practitioner shall cause a prescription for the emergency quantity prescribed to be

delivered to the dispensing apothecary. The prescription shall have written on its face

"Aauthorization for emergency dispensing" and the date of the oral order. The prescription, upon

receipt by the apothecary, shall be attached to the oral emergency prescription that had earlier

been reduced to writing.

     (j) (1) The partial filling of a prescription for a controlled substance listed in schedule II

is permissible, if the apothecary is unable to supply the full quantity called for in a prescription or

emergency oral prescription and he or she makes a notation of the quantity supplied on the face of

the prescription or oral emergency prescription that has been reduced to writing. The remaining

portion of the prescription may be filled within seventy-two (72) hours of the first partial filling,

however, if the remaining portion is not, or cannot be, filled within seventy-two (72) hours, the

apothecary shall notify the prescribing practitioner. No further quantity may be supplied beyond

seventy-two (72) hours without a new prescription.

     (2) (i) A prescription for a schedule II controlled substance written for a patient in a long-

term-care facility (LTCF), or for a patient with a medical diagnosis documenting a terminal

illness, may be filled in partial quantities to include individual dosage units. If there is a question

whether a patient may be classified as having a terminal illness, the pharmacist must contact the

practitioner prior to partially filling the prescription. Both the pharmacist and the prescribing

practitioner have a corresponding responsibility to assure that the controlled substance is for a

terminally ill patient.

     (ii) The pharmacist must record on the prescription whether the patient is "terminally ill"

or an "LTCF patient." A prescription that is partially filled, and does not contain the notation

"terminally ill" or "LTCF patient", shall be deemed to have been filled in violation of this chapter.

     (iii) For each partial filling, the dispensing pharmacist shall record on the back of the

prescription (or on another appropriate record, uniformly maintained, and readily retrievable),

the:

     (A) Date of the partial filling;

     (B) Quantity dispensed;

     (C) Remaining quantity authorized to be dispensed; and

     (D) Identification of the dispensing pharmacist.

     (iv) The total quantity of schedule II controlled substances dispensed in all partial fillings

must not exceed the total quantity prescribed.

     (v) Schedule II prescriptions for patients in a LTCF, or patients with a medical diagnosis

documenting a terminal illness, are valid for a period not to exceed sixty (60) days from the issue

date, unless sooner terminated by the discontinuance of medication.

     (k) Automated, data-processing systems. As an alternative to the prescription record

keeping provision of subsection (h) of this section, an automated, data-processing system may be

employed for the record-keeping system if the following conditions have been met:

     (1) The system shall have the capability of producing sight-readable documents of all

original and refilled prescription information. The term "sight readable" means that an authorized

agent shall be able to examine the record and read the information. During the course of an on-

site inspection, the record may be read from the CRT, microfiche, microfilm, printout, or other

method acceptable to the director. In the case of administrative proceedings, records must be

provided in a paper printout form.

     (2) The information shall include, but not be limited to, the prescription requirements and

records of dispensing as indicated in subsection (h) of this section.

     (3) The individual pharmacist responsible for completeness and accuracy of the entries to

the system must provide documentation of the fact that prescription information entered into the

computer is correct. In documenting this information, the pharmacy shall have the option to

either:

     (i) Maintain a bound logbook, or separate file, in which each individual pharmacist

involved in the dispensing shall sign a statement each day attesting to the fact that the prescription

information entered into the computer that day has been reviewed and is correct as shown. The

book or file must be maintained at the pharmacy employing that system for a period of at least

two (2) years after the date of last dispensing; or

     (ii) Provide a printout of each day's prescription information. That printout shall be

verified, dated, and signed by the individual pharmacist verifying that the information indicated is

correct. The printout must be maintained at least two (2) years from the date of last dispensing.

     (4) An auxiliary, record-keeping system shall be established for the documentation of

refills if the automated, data-processing system is inoperative for any reason. The auxiliary

system shall ensure that all refills are authorized by the original prescription and that the

maximum number of refills is not exceeded. When this automated, data-processing system is

restored to operation, the information regarding prescriptions filled and refilled during the

inoperative period shall be entered into the automated, data-processing system within ninety-six

(96) hours.

     (5) Any pharmacy using an automated, data-processing system must comply with all

applicable state and federal laws and regulations.

     (6) A pharmacy shall make arrangements with the supplier of data-processing services or

materials to ensure that the pharmacy continues to have adequate and complete prescription and

dispensing records if the relationship with the supplier terminates for any reason. A pharmacy

shall ensure continuity in the maintenance of records.

     (7) The automated, data-processing system shall contain adequate safeguards for security

of the records to maintain the confidentiality and accuracy of the prescription information.

Safeguards against unauthorized changes in data after the information has been entered and

verified by the registered pharmacist shall be provided by the system.

     (l) Prescriptions for controlled substances as found in schedule II will become void unless

dispensed within ninety (90) days of the original date of the prescription and in no event shall

more than a thirty-day (30) supply be dispensed at any one time.

     (1) In prescribing controlled substances in schedule II, practitioners may write up to three

(3) separate prescriptions, each for up to a one-month supply, each signed and dated on the date

written. For those prescriptions for the second and/or third month, the practitioner must write the

earliest date each of those subsequent prescription may be filled, with directions to the pharmacist

to fill no earlier than the date specified on the face of the prescription.

     (m) The prescriptions in schedules III, IV, and V will become void unless dispensed

within one hundred eighty (180) days of the original date of the prescription. For purposes of this

section, a "dosage unit" shall be defined as a single capsule, tablet, or suppository, or not more

than one five (5) ml. of an oral liquid.

     (1) Prescriptions in Schedule III cannot be written for more than one hundred (100)

dosage units and not more than one hundred (100) dosage units may be dispensed at one time.

     (2) Prescriptions in Schedule IV and V may be written for up to a ninety-day (90) supply

based on directions. No more than three hundred and sixty (360) dosage units may be dispensed

at one time.

     (n) A pharmacy shall transmit prescription information to the prescription-monitoring

database at the department of health within one business day following the dispensing of an

opioid prescription.

     (o) The pharmacist shall inform patients verbally or in writing about the proper disposal

of expired, unused, or unwanted medications, including the location of local disposal sites as

listed on the department of health website.

     (p) The pharmacist shall inform patients verbally or in writing in the proper use of any

devices necessary for the administration of controlled substances.

     (q)(1) A health care professional authorized to issue prescriptions shall, prior to issuing

an initial prescription for an opioid drug, specifically discuss with the patient who is eighteen (18)

years of age or older, or the patient's parent or guardian if the patient is under eighteen (18) years

of age, the risks of developing a dependence or addiction to the prescription opioid drug and

potential of overdose or death,; the adverse risks of concurrent use of alcohol or other

psychoactive medications and the patient's or the minor patient's parent or guardian's

responsibility to safeguard all medications,; and, if the prescriber deems it appropriate, discuss

such alternative treatments as may be available. For patients in recovery from substance

dependence, education shall be focused on relapse risk factors. This discussion shall be noted in

the patient's record.

     (2) The director of the department of health shall develop and make available to

prescribers guidelines for the discussion required pursuant to this subsection.

     (3) The discussion required under this subsection shall not be required prior to issuing a

prescription to any patient who is currently receiving hospice care from a licensed hospice.


 

 

173)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28-3.32

262 and 263

 

 

21-28-3.32. Electronic prescription database.

     (a) The information contained in any prescription-drug-monitoring database maintained

by the department of health pursuant to § 21-28-3.18 of this chapter shall be disclosed only:

     (1) To a practitioner who certifies that the requested information is for the purpose of

evaluating the need for, or providing medical treatment to, a current patient to whom the

practitioner is prescribing or considering prescribing a controlled substance;

     (2) To a pharmacist who certifies that the requested information is for a current client to

whom the pharmacist is dispensing, or considering dispensing, a controlled substance;

     (3) To an authorized designee of the practitioner and/or pharmacist to consult the

prescription-drug-monitoring database on the practitioner's and/or pharmacist's behalf, provided

that:

     (i) The designee so authorized is employed by the same professional practice or

pharmacy;

     (ii) The practitioner or pharmacist takes reasonable steps to ensure that such designee is

sufficiently competent in the use of the database;

     (iii) The practitioner or pharmacist remains responsible for ensuring that access to the

database by the designee is limited to authorized purposes as provided for in subsections (a)(1)

and (a)(2);

     (iv) The practitioner or pharmacist remains responsible for ensuring access to the

database by the designee occurs in a manner that protects the confidentiality of information

obtained from the database and remains responsible for any breach of confidentiality;

     (v) The practitioner or pharmacist terminates the designee's access to the database at the

termination of the designee's employment; and

     (vi) The ultimate decision as to whether or not to prescribe or dispense a controlled

substance remains with the practitioner or pharmacist and is reasonably informed by the relevant,

controlled-substance-history information obtained from the database.

     (4) Pursuant to a valid search warrant based on probable cause to believe a violation of

federal or state criminal law has occurred and that specified information contained in the database

would assist in the investigation of the crime;

     (5) By a department employee to a certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion

investigator of a qualified law enforcement agency for use in an investigation.

     (i) A certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigator shall provide to

the department the following information in order to receive information from the database:

     (A) The identification credentials assigned by the department; and

     (B) The case number of the investigation.

     (ii) A qualified law enforcement agency shall submit to the department quarterly reports

of the data received by all certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigators in

the qualified law enforcement agency, including, without limitation:

     (A) Written verification that the inquiries were part of a lawful prescription drug

diversion investigation as provided to the department through the case number of the

investigation; and

     (B) A brief description of each case closed during that quarter for which the qualified law

enforcement agency used information from the database; and

     (C) The disposition of the investigation.

     (iii) The department shall:

     (A) Create a verification form for use under subsection (5)(ii)(A) of this section; and

     (B) Make the verification form available annually to the qualified law enforcement

agency.

     (iv) The verification form under subsection (5)(ii)(A) of this section shall be submitted to

the department within thirty (30) days of receipt of the form by the qualified law enforcement

agency.

     (v) Failure to submit a verification form under subsection (5)(iv) of this section shall

result in the immediate suspension of disclosure of information from the database by the

department to the qualified law enforcement agency and its certified law enforcement prescription

drug diversion investigators until a determination is made by the department to allow continued

disclosure.

     (vi) The director shall, beginning January 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, review

disclosure of information pursuant to subsection (a)(5) of this section. Thereafter, the disclosure

of information pursuant to subsection (a)(5) of this section shall automatically renew for

successive one-year terms unless the director provides written notice to:

     (A) The qualified law enforcement agencies; and

     (B) The speaker of the house and the president of the senate, at least sixty (60) days in

advance of the then existing term's end, that the department wishes to discontinue providing

information from the database pursuant to this subsection. tThe director may reinstitute disclosure

by providing written notice to the same parties.

     (5)(6) To a patient who requests his or her own prescription information, or the parent or

legal guardian of a minor child who requests the minor child's prescription information;

     (6)(7) To a health professional regulatory board that documents, in writing, that the

requested information is necessary for an investigation related to licensure, renewal, or

disciplinary action involving the applicant, licensee, or registrant to whom the requested

information pertains;

     (7)(8) To any vendor or contractor with whom the department has contracted, pursuant to

state purchasing law and regulations in the contracting of vendors, to establish or maintain the

electronic system of the prescription-drug-monitoring database;

     (8)(9) To public or private entities for statistical, research, or educational purposes, after

removing the patient and prescriber information that could be used to identify individual patients.

This shall not include entities receiving a waiver from the institutional review board; or

     (9)(10) To any vendor, agent, contractor, or designee who operates an electronic health

record or clinical-management system for the purpose of sharing data with practitioners,

pharmacists, or licensed health care facilities or designees.

     (b) Information stored in the prescription-drug-monitoring database shall include only the

following:

     (1) Patient's first and last name and/or patient identification number; provided, however,

the patient's social security number shall not be recorded in whole or in part, patient sex, patient

date of birth, and patient address;

     (2) Prescribing practitioner's name and Drug Enforcement Administration prescriber-

information number;

     (3) Prescribing practitioner's office or hospital contact information;

     (4) Prescription name, prescription number, prescription species code, national drug code

number, prescription dosage, prescription quantity, days' supply, new-refill code, number of

refills authorized, date the prescription was written, date the prescription was filled, payment

type; provided, however, no credit card number shall be recorded in whole or in part; and

     (5) The Drug Enforcement Administration pharmacy number of the pharmacy filling the

prescription.

     (c) The department shall disclose any information relating to a patient maintained in the

prescription-drug-monitoring database to that patient, at no cost to the patient, within thirty (30)

business days after the department receives a written request from the patient for the information.

This information shall include the records maintained by the department pursuant to subsection

(e). Notwithstanding the above, the department may, at the request of the law-enforcement

agency, withhold, for up to sixty (60) days following the conclusion of a law-enforcement

investigation that has been confirmed by the department, the disclosure to the patient that

information has been obtained pursuant to subdivision subsections (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this

section.

     (d) A patient may request, from the dispensing pharmacy, correction of any inaccurate

information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database in accordance with the

procedure specified by § 5-37.3-5(c).

     (e) The department shall, for the period of time that prescription information is

maintained, maintain records of the information disclosed through the prescription-drug-

monitoring database, including, but not limited to:

     (1) The identity of each person who requests or receives information from the

prescription-drug-monitoring database and the organization, if any, the person represents;

     (2) The information released to each person or organization and the basis for its release

under subsection (a); and

     (3) The dates the information was requested and provided.

     (f) Prescription information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database

shall be removed no later than five (5) years from the date the information is entered into the

database. Records in existence prior to the enactment of this section shall be removed no later

than ten (10) years from the date the information is entered into the database.

     (g) The department shall promptly notify any affected individual of an improper

disclosure of information from the prescription-drug-monitoring database or a breach in the

security of the prescription-drug-monitoring database that poses a significant risk of disclosure of

patient information to an unauthorized individual.

     (h) At the time of signing a prescription that is required by the department to be entered

into the prescription-drug-monitoring database, the prescribing practitioner shall inform the

patient in writing of the existence of the prescription-drug-monitoring database; the patient's right

to access his or her own prescription information; and the name and contact information of the

agency operating the program.

     (i) No person shall access information in the prescription-monitoring-database except to

the extent and for the purposes authorized by subsection (a).

     (j) In any civil action allowing a violation of this chapter, the court may award damages,

including punitive damages, and reasonable attorneys' fees and costs to a prevailing plaintiff, and

injunctive and any other appropriate relief.

     (k) Any pharmacist who, in his or her professional judgment, refuses to fill a prescription

based on information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database shall inform the

prescribing physician within twenty-four (24) hours.

     (l) All practitioners shall, as a condition of the initial registration or renewal of the

practitioner's authority to prescribe controlled substances, register with the prescription-drug-

monitoring database maintained by the department of health.

     (m) The prescription-monitoring program shall be reviewed prior to starting any opioid.

A prescribing practitioner, or designee as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of this section, shall

review the prescription-monitoring program prior to refilling or initiating opioid therapy with an

intrathecal pump. For patients the prescribing practitioner is maintaining on continuous opioid

therapy for pain for three (3) months or longer, the prescribing practitioner shall review

information from the prescription-monitoring program at least every three (3) months.

Documentation of that review shall be noted in the patient's medical record.

     (n) The department shall improve the usefulness and value of the prescription-drug-

monitoring database program by increasing its analytical functionality, timeliness, and scope,

such as by:

     (1) Utilizing data from additional data sources as permissible under state and federal

statutes;

     (2) Analyzing information submitted to the prescription-drug-monitoring database to

ensure that prescription data collected from dispensing pharmacists is readily accessible for a

given patient; to identify unusual or aberrant patterns of prescribing, dispensing, or receiving

controlled substances; and to generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise to automate

standard reports; and to provide ad hoc reports on a real-time basis on this data as well as other

data feeds. These reports shall comply with the patient confidentiality requirements of federal and

state law;

     (3) Developing regulations to ensure that prescription-drug-monitoring analyses are

updated and disseminated regularly to appropriate officials and that summary reports are provided

to the general assembly on or before February 1st of each year. Given the intent to decrease the

number of Rhode Island citizens affected by opioid use, the department shall provide an interim

report on the status of the directives included herein and any progress made as of October 1,

2016. In the development of said regulations, the department may include any of the following

analytical functions, within the boundaries of patient confidentiality rights under state and federal

law:

     (i) Consolidate raw prescription data collected from dispensing pharmacists into a single

view of all prescriptions filled for a given patient;

     (ii) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of prescribing controlled substances, by relevant

prescriber attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise;

     (iii) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of receiving prescriptions for controlled

substances, by relevant patient attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns

arise;

     (iv) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of dispensing controlled substances, by relevant

dispenser attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise;

     (v) Identify and visually display linkages among prescribers, patients, and dispensers that

can be used to detect any collusive behaviors; and

     (vi) The department shall apply for federal funding in support of the goals and objectives

contained in this subsection.


 

 

174)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28-4.01.1

103 and 114

 

 

21-28-4.01.1. Minimum sentence -- Certain quantities of controlled substances.

     (a) Except as authorized by this chapter, it shall be unlawful for any person to

manufacture, sell, or possess with intent to manufacture, or sell, a controlled substance classified

in schedules I or II (excluding marijuana) or to possess or deliver the following enumerated

quantities of certain controlled substances:

     (1) One ounce (1 oz.) to one kilogram (1 kg.) of a mixture or substance containing a

detectable amount of heroin;

     (2) One ounce (1 oz.) to one kilogram (1 kg.) of a mixture or substance containing a

detectable amount of:

     (i) Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine,

ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;

     (ii) Cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

     (iii) Ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or

     (iv) Any compound, mixture, or preparation which that contains any quantity of any of

the substances referred to in paragraphs (i) -- (iii) of this subdivision;

     (3) One gram (1 g.) to ten grams (10 gs.) of phencyclidine (PCP) or one hundred (100) to

one thousand (1,000) tablets of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of

phencyclidine (PCP);

     (4) One-tenth of a gram (0.1 g.) to one gram (1 g.) of lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) or

one hundred (100) to one thousand (1,000) tablets of a mixture or substance containing a

detectable amount of lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD);

     (5) One kilogram (1 kg.) to five (5 kgs.) kilograms of a mixture containing a detectable

amount of marijuana; or

     (6) One ounce (1 oz.) to one kilogram (1 kg.) of a mixture or substance containing a

detectable amount of synthetic drugs. ; or

     (7) One ounce (1 oz.) to one kilogram (1 kg.) of a mixture or substance containing a

detectable amount of fentanyl.

     (b) Any person who violates this section shall be guilty of a crime, and upon conviction,

may be imprisoned for a term up to fifty (50) years and fined not more than five hundred

thousand dollars ($500,000).


 

 

175)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28-4.01.2

103 and 114

 

 

21-28-4.01.2. Minimum sentence -- Certain quantities of controlled substances.

     (a) Except as authorized by the chapter, it shall be unlawful for any person to possess,

manufacture, sell, or deliver the following enumerated quantities of certain controlled substances:

     (1) More than one kilogram (1 kg.) of a mixture or substance containing a detectable

amount of heroin;

     (2) More than one kilogram (1 kg.) of a mixture or substance containing a detectable

amount of:

     (i) Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine,

ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;

     (ii) Cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

     (iii) Ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or

     (iv) Any compound, mixture, or preparation which that contains any quantity of any of

the substances referred to in paragraphs (i) -- (iii) of this subdivision;

     (3) More than ten grams (10 gs.) of phencyclidine (PCP) or more than one thousand

(1,000) tablets of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of phencyclidine (PCP);

     (4) More than one gram (1 g.) of lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD); or more than one

thousand (1,000) tablets of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of lysergic acid

diethylamide (LSD);

     (5) More than five kilograms (5 kgs.) of a mixture containing a detectable amount of

marijuana; or

     (6) More than one kilogram (1 kg.) of a mixture or substance containing a detectable

amount of synthetic drugs. ; or

     (7) More than one kilogram (1 kg.) of a mixture or substance containing a detectable

amount of fentanyl.

     (b) Any person who violates this section shall be guilty of a crime, and upon conviction,

may be imprisoned for a term up to life and fined not more than one million dollars ($1,000,000).


 

 

176)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

22-7.4-133

95 and 96

 

 

22-7.4-133. Paramaz Avedisian '54 Hall.

The College of Pharmacy building on Greenhouse Road at the University of Rhode

Island in Kingston, shall hereafter be named and known as "Paramaz Avedisian '54 Hall."


 

 

177)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

22-7.4-134

211 and 235

 

 

22-7.4-134. S. Michael Minutelli Memorial Conference Room.

One of the two (2) conference rooms in the new Rhode Island Veterans’ Home in Bristol

shall be named and known as the "S. Michael Minutelli Memorial Conference Room".


 

 

178)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

22-7.4-135

212 and 236

 

 

22-7.4-135. 1st Sergeant P. Andrew McKenna US Army 7th Special Forces Group

Memorial Conference Room.

One of the two (2) conference rooms in the new Rhode Island Veterans’ Home shall be

named and known as the "1st Sergeant P. Andrew McKenna US Army 7th Special Forces Group

Memorial Conference Room."


 

 

 

 

 

179)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

22-7.4-136

285 and 295

 

 

22-7.4-136. Michael B. Isaacs Roundabout.

The roundabout at the intersection of Division Road and New England Tech Boulevard in

the town of East Greenwich shall hereafter be named and known as the "Michael B. Isaacs

Roundabout".


 

 

180)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-1-48

120 and 140

 

 

23-1-48. Reimbursement for medical record copies.

     (a) The director shall promulgate rules and regulations which that establish reasonable

charges for expenses incurred in responding to requests for copies of medical records by

physicians pursuant to § 5-37-22(c) and (d), and by any health care provider as defined in §5-

37.3-3 ("health care provider"). The director may utilize data provided by the Rhode Island health

information management association or other similar local professional organization in his or her

determination as to the amount of the charges permitted by this section.

     (b) A patient or a patient's authorized representative, as defined in §5-37.3-3 ("patient or

a patient's authorized representative"), or a third-party requestor, also as defined in §5-37.3-3

("third-party requestor"), shall have the right to request a patient's medical records.

     (c) If the health care provider, utilizes patient's medical records, an electronic health

records system, or database:

     (1) Any patient or any patient's authorized representative or any third-party requestor

shall have a right to obtain from any health care provider a copy of their the patient’s records in

an electronic format;

     (2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, the charges for

responding to requests for copies of medical records in electronic format shall not exceed a fee

for clerical services, research, and handling of twenty-five dollars ($25.00), inclusive of shipping

costs and the costs of data retrieval and/or the data storage device used to transport the medical

records. Provided, however, that fifty cents ($.50) per page for the first one hundred (100) pages

and twenty-five cents ($.25) per page for all pages thereafter may be charged. In no event shall

the charge for pages exceed one hundred dollars ($100).

     (d) If the health care provider does not utilize an electronic health records system or

database, the charges for responding to requests for copies of medical records shall not exceed a

fee for clerical services, research, and handling of twenty-five dollars ($25.00), inclusive of

retrieval costs, plus actual shipping costs; provided, however, that fifty cents ($.50) per page for

the first one hundred (100) pages and twenty-five cents ($.25) per page for all pages thereafter

may be charged. In addition, the requestor shall pay for the actual shipping costs incurred.

     (e) Copies of X-rays or films not reproducible by photocopy shall be provided at the

health care provider's actual cost for materials and supplies. In addition, the requestor shall pay

reasonable fees for clerical services, research, and handling, not to exceed twenty-five dollars

($25.00), plus actual shipping costs incurred.

     (f) A special handling fee of ten dollars ($10.00) may be charged if the records must be

delivered to the patient or authorized representative or third-party requestor within forty-eight

(48) hours of the request.


 

 

 

 

 

181)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

23-6.5

358 and 433

 

 

CHAPTER 6.5

AUTOMATED EXTERNAL DEFIBRILLATORS REQUIRED AT PUBLIC PLACES


 

 

182)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

23-11-9

13 and 25

 

 

23-11-9. [Repeal]


 

 

183)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-13.7-2

208 and 252

 

 

23-13.7-2. Home-visiting system components.

     (a) The Rhode Island department of health shall coordinate the system of early childhood

home-visiting services in Rhode Island and shall work with the department of human services and

department of children, youth and families to identify effective, evidence-based, home-visiting

models that meet the needs of vulnerable families with young children.

     (b) The Rhode Island department of health shall implement a statewide home-visiting

system which that uses evidence-based models proven to improve child and family outcomes.

Evidence-based, home-visiting programs must follow with fidelity a program model with

comprehensive standards that ensure high-quality service delivery, use research-based curricula,

and have demonstrated significant positive outcomes in at least two (2) of the following areas:

     (1) Improved prenatal, maternal, infant, or child health outcomes;

     (2) Improved safety and reduced child maltreatment and injury;

     (3) Improved family economic security and self-sufficiency;

     (4) Enhanced early childhood development (social-emotional, language, cognitive,

physical) to improve children's readiness to succeed in school.

     (c) The Rhode Island department of health shall implement a system to identify and refer

families prenatally, or as early after the birth of a child as possible, to voluntary, evidence-based,

home-visiting programs. The referral system shall prioritize families for services based on risk

factors known to impair child development, including:

     (1) Adolescent parent(s);

     (2) History of prenatal drug or alcohol abuse;

     (3) History of child maltreatment, domestic abuse, or other types of violence;

     (4) Incarcerated parent(s);

     (5) Reduced parental cognitive functioning or significant disability;

     (6) Insufficient financial resources to meet family needs;

     (7) History of homelessness; or

     (8) Other risk factors as determined by the department.

     (d) Beginning on or before October 1, 2016, and annually thereafter, the Rhode Island

department of health shall issue a state home-visiting report that outlines the components of the

state's family home-visiting system which that shall be made publicly available on the

department's website. The report shall include:

     (1) The number of families served by each evidence-based model; and

     (2) Demographic data on families served; and

     (3) Duration of participation of families; and

     (4) Cross-departmental coordination; and

     (5) Outcomes related to prenatal, maternal, infant and child health, child maltreatment,

family economic security, and child development and school readiness.; and

     (6) An annual estimate of the number of children born to Rhode Island families who face

significant risk factors known to impair child development, and a plan including the fiscal costs

and benefits to gradually expand access to the existing evidence-based, family home-visiting

programs in Rhode Island to all vulnerable families.

     (e) State appropriations for this purpose shall be combined with federal dollars to fund

the expansion of evidence-based, home-visiting programs, with the goal of offering the program

to all the state's pregnant and parenting teens,; families with a history of involvement with the

child welfare system,; and other vulnerable families.


 

 

184)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17-2

194 and 246

 

 

23-17-2. Definitions.

As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Affiliate" means a legal entity that is in control of, is controlled by, or is in common

control with another legal entity.

     (1) (2) "Alzheimer's dementia special-care unit or program" means a distinct living

environment within a nursing facility that has been physically adapted to accommodate the

particular needs and behaviors of those with dementia. The unit provides increased staffing;

therapeutic activities designed specifically for those with dementia; and trains its staff on an

ongoing basis on the effective management of the physical and behavioral problems of those with

dementia. The residents of the unit/program have had a standard, medical-diagnostic evaluation

and have been determined to have a diagnosis of Alzheimer's dementia or another dementia.

     (2) (3) (i) "Change in operator" means a transfer by the governing body or operator of a

health-care facility to any other person (excluding delegations of authority to the medical or

administrative staff of the facility) of the governing body's authority to:

     (A) Hire or fire the chief executive officer of the health-care facility;

     (B) Maintain and control the books and records of the health-care facility;

     (C) Dispose of assets and incur liabilities on behalf of the health-care facility; or

     (D) Adopt and enforce policies regarding operation of the health-care facility.

     (ii) This definition is not applicable to circumstances wherein the governing body of a

health-care facility retains the immediate authority and jurisdiction over the activities enumerated

in subdivisions (2)(i)(A) -- (2)(i)(D) (3)(i)(A) – (3)(i)(D).

     (3) (4) "Change in owner" means:

     (i) In the case of a health-care facility that is a partnership, the removal, addition, or

substitution of a partner that results in a new partner acquiring a controlling interest in the

partnership;

     (ii) In the case of a health-care facility that is an unincorporated, solo proprietorship, the

transfer of the title and property to another person;

     (iii) In the case of a health-care facility that is a corporation:

     (A) A sale, lease exchange, or other disposition of all, or substantially all, of the property

and assets of the corporation; or

     (B) A merger of the corporation into another corporation; or

     (C) The consolidation or two (2) or more corporations, resulting in the creation of a new

corporation; or

     (D) In the case of a health-care facility that is a business corporation, any transfer of

corporate stock that results in a new person acquiring a controlling interest in the corporation; or

     (E) In the case of a health-care facility that is a nonbusiness corporation, any change in

membership that results in a new person acquiring a controlling vote in the corporation.

     (4) (5) "Clinician" means a physician licensed under chapter 37 of title 5; a nurse licensed

under chapter 34 of title 5; a psychologist licensed under chapter 44 of title 5; a social worker

licensed under chapter 39.1 of title 5; a physical therapist licensed under chapter 40 of title 5; and

a speech language pathologist or audiologist licensed under chapter 48 of title 5.

     (5) (6) "Director" means the director of the Rhode Island state department of health.

     (6) (7) "Freestanding, emergency-care facility" means an establishment, place, or facility

that may be a public or private organization, structurally distinct and separate from a hospital;

staffed, equipped, and operated to provide prompt, emergency medical care. For the purposes of

this chapter, "emergency medical care" means services provided for a medical condition or

behavioral-health condition that is manifested by symptoms of sufficient severity that, in the

absence of immediate medical attention, could result in harm to the person or others; serious

impairment to bodily functions; serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part; or development

or continuance of severe pain.

     (7) (8) "Health-care facility" means any institutional health-service provider, facility, or

institution, place, building, agency, or portion thereof, whether a partnership or corporation,

whether public or private, whether organized for profit or not, used, operated, or engaged in

providing health-care services, including, but not limited to: hospitals; nursing facilities; home

nursing-care provider (which shall include skilled nursing services and may also include activities

allowed as a home-care provider or as a nursing service agency); home-care provider (which may

include services such as personal care or homemaker services); rehabilitation centers; kidney

disease treatment centers; health maintenance organizations; freestanding, emergency-care

facilities as defined in this section, and facilities providing surgical treatment to patients not

requiring hospitalization (surgi-centers); hospice care, and physician ambulatory-surgery centers

and podiatry ambulatory-surgery centers providing surgical treatment. The term "health-care

facility" also includes organized ambulatory-care facilities that are not part of a hospital but that

are organized and operated to provide health-care services to outpatients, such as: central-services

facilities serving more than one health-care facility or health-care provider; treatment centers;

diagnostic centers; outpatient clinics; infirmaries and health centers; school-based health centers,

and neighborhood health centers. The term "health-care facility" also includes a mobile, health-

screening vehicle as defined in this section. The term "health-care facility" shall not apply to

organized, ambulatory-care facilities owned and operated by professional service corporations as

defined in chapter 5.1 of title 7, as amended (the "professional service corporation law"), or to a

private practitioner's (physician, dentist, or other health-care provider) office or group of the

practitioners' offices (whether owned and/or operated by a hospital or an affiliate of a hospital or

an individual practitioner, alone or as a member of a partnership, professional service corporation,

organization, or association); provided, however, notwithstanding any other provision herein or in

the general laws, any hospital or any affiliate of a hospital that owns and/or operates a

practitioner's office shall ensure that such practitioner's office complies with licensing or

accreditation requirements that may be applicable to the practitioner's office. Individual

categories of health-care facilities shall be defined in rules and regulations promulgated by the

licensing agency with the advice of the health services council. Rules and regulations concerning

hospice care shall be promulgated with regard to the "Standards of a Hospice Program of Care",

promulgated by the National Hospice Organization. Any provider of hospice care who provides

hospice care without charge shall be exempt from the licensing provisions of this chapter but

shall meet the "Standards of a Hospice Program of Care." Facilities licensed by the department of

behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities, and hospitals and the department of human

services, and clinical laboratories licensed in accordance with chapter 16.2 of this title, as well as

Christian Science institutions (also known as Christian Science Nursing Facilities) listed and

certified by the Commission for Accreditation of Christian Science Nursing

Organizations/Facilities, Inc. shall not be considered health-care facilities for purposes of this

chapter.

     (8) (9) "Homemaker", or however else called, means a trained, non-professional worker

who performs related housekeeping services in the home for the sick, disabled, dependent, or

infirm, and as further defined by regulation; the director shall establish criteria for training.

     (9) (10) "Hospital" means a person or governmental entity licensed in accordance with

this chapter to establish, maintain, and operate a hospital.

     (10) (11) "Licensing agency" means the Rhode Island state department of health.

     (11) (12) "Medical services" means any professional services and supplies rendered by,

or under the direction of, persons duly licensed under the laws of this state to practice medicine,

surgery, or podiatry that may be specified by any medical service plan. Medical service shall not

be construed to include hospital services.

     (12) (13) "Mobile, health-screening vehicle" means a mobile vehicle, van, or trailer that

delivers primary and preventive health-care screening services, and:

     (i) Does not maintain active contracts or arrangements with any health insurer subject to

regulation under chapters 20 or 42 of title 27;

     (ii) Does not maintain active contracts or arrangements with another licensed health care

facility as that term is defined within this section; and

     (iii) Does not provide medical services free of charge.

     (13) (14) "Non-English speaker" means a person who cannot speak or understand, or has

difficulty in speaking or understanding, the English language, because he/she uses only, or

primarily, a spoken language other than English, and/or a person who uses a sign language and

requires the use of a sign-language interpreter to facilitate communication.

     (14) (15) "Person" means any individual, trust or estate, partnership, corporation,

(including associations, joint stock companies, and insurance companies) state, or political

subdivision or instrumentality of a state.

     (15) (16) "Physician ambulatory-surgery center" means an office, or portion of an office,

that is utilized for the purpose of furnishing surgical services to the owner and/or operator's own

patients on an ambulatory basis, and shall include both single-practice, physician ambulatory-

surgery centers and multi-practice, physician ambulatory-surgery centers. A "single-practice,

physician ambulatory-surgery center" is a physician ambulatory center owned and/or operated by

a physician-controlled professional service corporation as defined in chapter 5.1 of title 7 (the

"professional service corporation law"), or a physician-controlled limited liability company (as

defined in chapter 16 of title 7 (the "limited liability company act")) in which no physician is an

officer, shareholder, director, or employee of any other corporation engaged in the practice of the

same profession, or a private physician's office (whether owned and/or operated by an individual

practitioner, alone or as a member of a partnership, professional service corporation, limited

liability company, organization, or association). A "multi-practice, physician ambulatory-surgery

center" is a physician ambulatory-surgery center owned and/or operated by a physician-controlled

professional service corporation (as defined in the professional service corporation law) or a

physician-controlled limited, liability company (as defined in the limited liability company act) in

which a physician is also an officer, shareholder, director, or employee of another corporation

engaged in the practice of the same profession, or a group of physicians' offices (whether owned

and/or operated by an individual practitioner, alone or as a member of a partnership, professional

service corporation, limited liability company, organization, or association).

     (16) (17) "Podiatry ambulatory-surgery center" means an office or portion of an office

that is utilized for the purpose of furnishing surgical services to the owner and/or operator's own

patients on an ambulatory basis, and shall include both single-practice, podiatry ambulatory-

surgery centers and multi-practice podiatry ambulatory-surgery centers. A "single-practice

podiatry ambulatory-surgery center" is a podiatry ambulatory center owned and/or operated by a

podiatrist-controlled professional service corporation (as defined in chapter 5.1 of title 7 (the

"professional service corporation law")), or a podiatrist-controlled limited liability company (as

defined in chapter 16 of title 7 (the "limited liability company act")) in which no podiatrist is an

officer, shareholder, director, or employee of any other corporation engaged in the practice of

the same profession, or a private podiatrist's office (whether owned and/or operated by an

individual practitioner, alone or as a member of a partnership, professional service corporation,

limited liability company, organization, or association). A "multi-practice, podiatry ambulatory-

surgery center" is a podiatry ambulatory-surgery center owned and/or operated by a podiatry-

controlled professional service corporation (as defined in the professional service corporation

law) or a podiatry-controlled, limited liability company (as defined in the limited liability

company act) in which a podiatrist is also an officer, shareholder, director, or employee of

another corporation engaged in the practice of the same profession, or a group of podiatrists'

offices (whether owned and/or operated by a an individual practitioner, alone or as a member of a

partnership, professional service corporation, limited liability company, organization, or

association).

     (17) (18) "Qualified interpreter" means a person who, through experience and/or training,

is able to translate a particular foreign language into English, with the exception of sign-language

interpreters who must be licensed in accordance with chapter 71 of title 5.

     (18) (19) "Qualified, sign-language interpreter" means one who has been licensed in

accordance with the provisions of chapter 71 of title 5.

     (19) (20) "School-based health center" means a facility located in an elementary or

secondary school that delivers primary and preventive health-care services to students on site.


 

 

185)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17-44

282 and 296

 

 

23-17-44. Moratorium on new initial nursing-facility licensed beds and on increases

to the licensed capacity of existing nursing-facility licenses.

     (a) The licensing agency shall issue no new initial licenses for nursing facilities prior to

July 1, 2019; provided, however, that any person holding a nursing facility license may undertake

activities to construct and operate a replacement nursing facility with the same or lower bed

capacity as is presently licensed, provided that the replacement facility may only be licensed upon

the otherwise unconditional cessation of operation of the previously licensed nursing facility;

     (b) Prior to July 1, 2019, and with the exception of the culture initiative pursuant to

subsection (d), the licensing agency shall not increase the licensed bed capacity of any existing

licensed nursing facility, including any nursing facility approved for change in ownership

pursuant to §§ 23-17-14.3 and 23-17-14.4, to greater than the level of the facility's licensed bed

capacity as of August 21, 1996, plus the greater of ten (10) beds or ten percent (10%) of the

licensed bed capacity. Any person holding a previously issued and valid certificate of need as of

the date of passage of this section, or who shall subsequently be granted a certificate of need

pursuant to subsection (a), shall be permitted to effect a prior certificate from the licensing agency

consistent with any other statutory and regulatory provisions that may further apply.

Notwithstanding any other provision of the law to the contrary, including any moratorium on

increasing bed capacity in nursing facilities that may otherwise apply, the licensing agency shall

be permitted to increase the licensed bed capacity of an existing nursing facility by no more than

the number of beds previously licensed to one or more other licensed nursing facilities provided

that:

     (1) All nursing facilities involved in any such transaction must be located within the same

municipality;

     (2) The owner of a licensed nursing care facility seeking to increase its licensed bed

capacity must receive approval, following review by the health services council from the

licensing agency for change in owner of the nursing facility or facilities;

     (3) The nursing facility's licensed bed capacity may only be increased upon the otherwise

unconditional cessation of operation of the previously licensed other nursing facility or facilities

and the return of the license of the nursing facility or nursing facilities to the licensing agency;

and

     (4) The licensed nursing care facility seeking to increase its licensed bed complement

must comply with any requirements of the health care certificate of need act, chapter 15 of title

23.

     (c) Notwithstanding any other provision of the law to the contrary, including any

moratorium on increasing bed capacity in nursing facilities that may otherwise apply, a nursing

facility may take out of service any or all beds of its licensed capacity without impediment to its

right to place back into service those beds at a future date under the same terms and conditions as

applied at the time of taking them out of service.

     (d) Culture-change initiative. Notwithstanding any other provision of the law to the

contrary, including any moratorium on increasing bed capacity in nursing facilities that may

otherwise apply, the licensing agency may increase the licensed bed capacity of any existing

licensed nursing facility, including any nursing facility approved for change in ownership

pursuant to §§ 23-17-14.3 and 23-17-14.4, for the purposes of nursing facility culture change, in

accordance with the following criteria and procedures:

     (i) Culture-change definitions and criteria shall be established through regulation, to

restrict beds added under this initiative only to beds that are designed to provide enhanced quality

of life to nursing facility residents through the adoption of principles and building designs

established by the "Eden Alternative,","Green House,", or "Small House" programs or other like

means;

     (ii) Only beds taken out-of-service due to facility closure after January 1, 2010, shall be

available for facility expansion under this culture-change initiative subsection. The total number

of beds that may be licensed to increase capacity under this culture-change initiative shall be

limited to ninety percent (90%) of the first fifty (50) beds that are taken out-of-service, to seventy

percent (70%) of the next fifty (50) beds that are taken out-of-service, and to fifty percent (50%)

of any additional beds taken out-of-service;

     (iii) Only nursing facilities licensed in the state are eligible to expand under the culture-

change initiative;

     (iv) The department shall promulgate regulations to govern an open and competitive

process to determine the licensure of expansion beds under this culture-change initiative, and

shall consider the impact on the regional distribution of, and access to, nursing facility beds in the

state; and

     (v) Any facility seeking to expand its licensed bed capacity under this initiative, that will

result in an expenditure that meets or exceeds the criteria for determination of need review under

chapter 23-15, shall be required to receive approval under chapter 23-15.


 

 

186)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17-61

366 and 379

 

 

23-17-61. Written estimates for hospital medical services.

     Upon the request of any person without health coverage or with an insurance deductible

of five thousand dollars ($5,000) or higher, a hospital shall, within five (5) calendar days, provide

that person with a written estimate based upon the best medical information known at the time, of the amount the hospital will require the person to pay for the health care services, procedures,

and supplies that are reasonably expected to be provided to the person by the hospital, based upon

an average length of stay and services provided for the person's diagnosis and including the

amount for any facility fees required. The estimate may also indicate that it does not reflect any

unanticipated services that become apparent at the time of treatment. The hospital may provide

this estimate during normal business office hours. In addition to the estimate, the hospital shall

provide information about its financial assistance and charity care policies and contact

information for a hospital employee or office from which the person may obtain further

information about these policies. If requested, the hospital shall also provide the person with an

application for financial assistance or charity care. This section shall not apply to emergency

services.


 

               

187)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17.3-2

67 and 73

 

 

23-17.3-2. Membership.

The council shall be comprised of forty-one (41) thirty-three (33) members, as follows:

the lieutenant governor or designee; the secretary of state or designee; the director of the

department of health or designee; the director secretary of the department executive office of

health and human services or designee; the director of the department of behavioral healthcare,

developmental disabilities and hospitals or designee; the attorney general or designee; the director

of the department division of elderly affairs or designee; the chair of the Rhode Island advisory

commission on aging or designee; the president director of the Rhode Island Chapter of the

American Association of Retired Persons (AARP) or designee; the director of the Alliance for

Long-term Care state long-term care ombudsman or designee; the president of the Rhode Island

Senior Center Directors Association or designee; the executive director of the Rhode Island

chapter of the Alzheimer's Association or designee; a representative of a not-for-profit long-term-

care provider organization other than a nursing home owner, and a representative of a long-term-

care service provider that primarily serves persons with mental retardation or developmental

disabilities, both to be appointed by the governor; and a representative of an assisted living

residence other than a nursing home, to be appointed by the lieutenant governor; a representative

of a not-for-profit nursing home to be appointed by the lieutenant governor; five (5) citizens of

the state with no direct or indirect interest in nursing home ownership who have demonstrated

concern for the care of the elderly, two (2) of whom shall be appointed by the lieutenant

governor, two (2) of whom shall be appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and

one of whom shall be appointed by the President of the senate; a public member with no direct

interest in long-term-care ownership representing a senior advocacy organization, to be appointed

by the speaker; a representative of an adult day care center the state program of all inclusive care

of the elderly, to be appointed by the speaker lieutenant governor; a representative of senior

housing, to be appointed by the lieutenant governor; a representative of a not-for-profit home

health care agency hospice provider organization, to be appointed by the speaker senate president;

a licensed home-care provider or a licensed home nursing care provider, to be appointed by the

speakera representative of a for profit home health care agency to be appointed by the speaker;

and a representative of a community mental health center, to be appointed by the president of the

senate; a registered nurse experienced in the care of the elderly, to be appointed by the governor;

a representative of nonmanagerial nursing home employees, to be appointed by the lieutenant

governor president of the senatethree (3) two (2) members of the house, not more than two (2)

one from the same political party, to be appointed by the speaker; a nursing home owner, to be

appointed by the speaker; two (2) members of the senate, not more than one from the same

political party, to be appointed by the president of the senate; one consumer of home-and

community-based care or a caregiver of a consumer of home-and community-based care, to be

appointed by the speaker from a list of three (3) submitted by the chairperson of the independent

living council lieutenant governor; one consumer of home and community based care to be

appointed by the president of the senate from a list of three (3) submitted by the chairperson of

the Governor's Council on Mental Health behavioral health services or a caregiver of a consumer

of behavioral health services, to be appointed by the speaker; a member of the public representing

the interests of parents of children with special care needs, to be appointed by the president of the

senate governora family member of a person with developmental disabilities to be appointed by

the speaker of the house; a person with developmental disabilities or a representative of an

organization that advocates for the rights of persons with developmental disabilities, to be

appointed by the lieutenant governor; a general physician or advanced practice nurse with

experience in serving persons with long-term care and behavioral health needs, to be appointed

by the president of the senate; and a psychiatrist specializing in the medical problems of the

elderly, to be appointed by the lieutenant governor. Members of the general public may be

appointed in lieu of legislators, provided that at least one member shall be appointed from the

house and one from the senate, and the appointments shall be made by the same authority as for

the legislators supplanted and a representative of a managed care health insurer providing long-

term support and services, to be appointed by the governor. The members of the council shall

serve two (2) year (2) terms, expiring on the second anniversary of each individual's appointment

or on the date that their respective successors are appointed and qualified, whichever is later.


 

 

188)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17.4-7

203 and 267

 

 

23-17.4-7. Expiration and renewal of license.

A license, unless sooner suspended or revoked, shall expire by limitation on the thirty-

first (31st) day of December following its issuance and may be renewed from year to year after

completion of an annual unannounced on-site inspection, report, and approval by the licensing

agency and the division of fire safetyThe annual inspection shall be made any time prior to the

date of expiration of the license. The report shall contain information in any form that the

licensing agency shall prescribe by regulation. The licensing agency shall, on an annual basis,

cause no less than ten percent (10%) of all assisted living annual inspections to be conducted, in

whole or in part, on nights and/or on weekends.


 

 

189)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17.4-10

203 and 267

 

 

23-17.4-10. Regulations, inspections, and investigations.

     (a) The licensing agency shall after public hearing pursuant to reasonable notice, adopt,

amend, promulgate, and enforce any rules, regulations, and standards with respect to assisted-

living residences for adults licensed under this chapter as may be designed to further the

accomplishment of the purposes of this chapter in promoting safe and adequate living

environments for individuals in assisted-living residences in the interest of public safety and

welfare. These regulations may provide for the establishment of levels of service provided by the

residence.

     (b) In addition to the annual inspection required by § 23-17.4-7, the The licensing agency

shall make or cause to be made any inspections and investigations that it deems necessary by duly

authorized agents of the director at any time and frequency determined by the licensing agency.

The licensing agency shall establish regulations to determine the frequency of inspections that

shall include, but not be limited to, the residence's past compliance with regulations, complaint

investigations, quality of care issues and license type. However, the licensing agency shall, on a

biennial basis, conduct an unannounced, on-site inspection of all licensed assisted-living

residences. The licensing agency shall, on an annual basis, cause no less than ten percent (10%)

of all assisted-living inspections to be conducted, in whole or in part, on nights and/or weekends.

     (c) Upon request of the licensing agency, health agencies and professionals may share

resident health status information with the department of health for the purpose of determining

each resident's capability of self preservation.

     (d) Each assisted-living residence licensed under this chapter shall have a plan for

preventing the hazards of resident wandering from the facility. This plan shall be submitted to the

licensing agency in a format determined by the director.


 

 

190)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17.14-12.1

202 and 238

 

 

23-17.14-12.1.Expedited review for unaffiliated community hospitals or not-for-profit hospitals.

     (a) Notwithstanding subsection §§ 23-17.14-6(a) and § 23-17.14-10 of this chapter, if a

proposed conversion involves: (1) Two (2) or more hospitals that are not in common control with

another hospital; or (2) One hospital not under common control with another hospital and a

hospital system parent corporation; or (3) Two (2) affiliated hospitals the conversion of which

was previously approved in accordance with chapter 23-17.14 of title 23 and another hospital or

hospital system parent corporation, or (4) One or more hospital(s) that are determined to be

distressed as under subsection  (a)(2) of this section, including hospitals that are part of a not-for-profit

hospital system parent corporation, as acquiree, such conversion will be reviewed under an

expedited review process conducted solely by the department of health (without derogation of the

authority of the attorney general in accordance with § 23-17.14-21), only if the acquiree and

acquiror are both nonprofit corporations exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the United

States Internal Revenue Service Code as organizations described in section 501(c)(3) of such

code, or any successor provisions, and:

     (1) The acquiree and acquiror are both nonprofit corporations that have directly or

indirectly continuously operated at least one licensed hospital for at least the preceding three (3)

years either in Rhode Island or in another jurisdiction either on its own or it is part of a health

care system that has operated for at least the preceding three (3) years; and

     (2) The acquiree operates a one or more distressed Rhode Island hospital hospitals facing

significant financial hardship that may impair its or their ability to continue to operate effectively

without the proposed conversion and has have been determined to be distressed by the director of

health based upon whether the hospital hospital(s) meets one or more of the following criteria:

     (i) Operating loss for the two (2) most recently completed fiscal years;

     (ii) Less than fifty (50) days cash-on-hand;

     (iii) Current asset to liability ratio of less than one point five (1.5);

     (iv) Long-term debt to capitalization greater than seventy-five percent (75%);

     (v) Inpatient occupancy rate of less than fifty percent (50%);

     (vi) Would be classified as below investment grade by a major rating agency.

     (b) The transacting parties shall file an initial application pursuant to this section which

that shall include the following information with respect to each transacting party and the

proposed conversion:

     (1) A detailed summary of the proposed conversion;

     (2) Charter, articles of incorporation, or certificate of incorporation for the transacting

parties and their affiliated hospitals, including amendments thereto;

     (3) Bylaws and organizational charts for the transacting parties and their affiliated

hospitals;

     (4) Organizational structure for the transacting parties and each partner, affiliate, parent,

subsidiary, or related legal entity in which either transacting party has a twenty percent (20%) or

greater ownership interest or control;

     (5) All documents, reports, meeting minutes, and presentations relevant to the transacting

parties' board of directors' decision to propose the conversion;

     (6) Conflict of interest policies and procedures;

     (7) Copies of audited income statements, balance sheets, and other financial statements

for the past three (3) years for the transacting parties and their affiliated hospitals where

appropriate and to the extent they have been made public, audited interim financial statements

and income statements together with detailed descriptions of the financing structure of the

proposed conversion including equity contribution, debt restructuring, stock issuance, and

partnership interests;

     (8) Copies of reports analyzing the proposed conversion during the past three (3) years

including, but not limited to, reports by appraisers, accountants, investment bankers, actuaries and

other experts;

     (9) Copies of current conflict of interest forms from all incumbent or recently incumbent

officers, members of the board of directors or trustees and senior managers of the transacting

parties; "incumbent or recently incumbent" means those individuals holding the position at the

time the application is submitted and any individual who held a similar position within one year

prior to the application's acceptance;

     (10) Copies of all documents related to: (i) Identification of all current charitable assets;

(ii) Accounting of all charitable assets for the past three (3) years; and (iii) Distribution of

charitable assets for the past three (3) years including, but not limited to, endowments, restricted,

unrestricted, and specific purpose funds as each relates to the proposed conversion;

     (11) A description of the plan as to how the affiliated hospitals will provide consolidated

healthcare services during the first three (3) years following the conversion;

     (12) Copies of plans for all hospital departments and services that will be eliminated or

significantly reduced during the first three (3) years following the conversion; and

     (13) Copies of plans relative to staffing levels for all categories of employees during the

first three (3) years following the conversion.

     (c) In reviewing an application under an expedited review process, the department shall

consider the criteria in § 23-17.14-11.

     (d) Within twenty (20) working days of receipt by the department of an application

satisfying the requirements of subsection (b) above, the department will notify and afford the

public an opportunity to comment on the application.

     (e) The decision of the department shall be rendered within ninety (90) days of

acceptance of the application under this section.

     (f) Costs payable by the transacting parties under § 23-17.14-13 in connection with an

expedited review by the department under this section shall not exceed twenty-five thousand

dollars ($25,000) per one hundred million dollars ($100,000,000) of total net patient service

revenue of the acquiree and acquiror in the most recent fiscal year for which audited financial

statements are available.

     (g) Following a conversion, the new hospital shall provide on or before March 1 of each

calendar year a report in a form acceptable to the director containing all updated financial

information required to be disclosed pursuant to subdivision 23-17.14-12.1 subsection (b)(7) of

this section.

     (h) If an expedited review is performed by the department pursuant to this section, the

department of attorney general shall perform a review of the proposed transaction pursuant to

§23-17.14-10(b) and the criteria for conversions limited to not-for-profits as it deems necessary,

including, at a minimum, its impact upon the charitable assets of the transacting parties. The

attorney general's review shall be done concurrently with the department of health review and

shall not extend the length of the review process. For this review, the department of attorney

general shall be entitled to costs in accordance with § 23-17.14-13 and subsection 23-17.14-

12.1(f).


 

 

191)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17.20-7

138 and 154

 

 

23-17.20-7. Use of non-Rhode Island licensed nurses.

     (a) Health care facilities shall report to the department of health the name and state of

licensure of any registered nurse performing work duties at the facility who is not licensed in

Rhode Island. This information shall be reported to the department within fourteen (14) business

days from when the registered nurse not licensed in Rhode Island begins performing work duties

at the health care facility. Health care facilities shall also report to the department the name and

state of licensure of registered nurses not licensed in Rhode Island, within fourteen (14) business

days of when those nurses no longer perform work duties at the facility. The department shall

make the above-prescribed information, with the exception of the names of the nurses, available

to the public.

     (b) The department of health shall promulgate regulations to further define the terms,

conditions, and requirements of this section.


 

 

192)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17.21-4

178 and 383

 

 

23-17.21-4. Definitions.

     For the purposes of this chapter, the following terms shall have the following meanings:

     (a) "Department" means the Rhode Island department of health.

     (b) "Director" means the director of the Rhode Island department of health.

     (c) "Health care facility" means any corporation, limited liability company, facility, or

institution licensed by this state to provide health care or professional services, or an officer,

employee, or agent thereof acting in the course and scope of his or her employment.

     (d) "Near misses" means circumstances in which a patient safety event is narrowly

averted.

     (e) "Patient safety activities" means: (1) eEfforts to improve patient safety and the quality

of health care delivery; (2) tThe collection and analysis of patient safety work product; (3) tThe

development and dissemination of information with respect to improving patient safety, such as

recommendations, protocols, or information regarding best practices; (4) tThe utilization of

patient safety work product for the purposes of encouraging a culture of safety and of providing

feedback and assistance to effectively minimize patient risk; (5) tThe maintenance of procedures

to preserve confidentiality with respect to patient safety work product; and (6) tThe provision of

appropriate security measures with respect to patient safety work product.

     (f) "Patient safety event" means those events as defined by the nNational qQuality

fForum, iInstitute of mMedicine, cCenter for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), and as

further defined by the quality of care advisory committee, as established herein, and shall include

near misses.

     (g) "Patient safety organization (PSO)" means any public or private organization certified

by the director, or component of any such organization, whose activity is to improve patient

safety and the quality of health care delivery for patients receiving care through the collection,

aggregation, analysis, investigation, and/or processing of medical or health care related

information submitted to it by reporting entities. A PSO shall not mean any agency or public

body as defined in subsection 38-2-2(i).(1).

     (h) "Patient safety work product" means all reports, records, memoranda, analyses,

statements, root cause analyses, or and written or oral statements, that: (1) a A health care facility

or provider prepares for the purpose of disclosing a patient safety event, or and is are disclosed,

to a patient safety organization; (2) is Are received from a reporting entity, or and is are created

or and analyzed by a patient safety organization; or (3) dDirectly or indirectly contains

deliberations, analytical process, recommendations, conclusions, or other communications of a

patient safety organization or and between a patient safety organization and health care providers

or facilities.

     (i) "Identifiable patient safety work product" means patient safety work product that: (1)

iIs presented in a form and manner that allows the identification of any provider or reporting

entity that is a subject of the work product, or any providers or reporting entities that participate

in activities that are a subject of the work product; (2) cConstitutes individually identifiable

health information as that term is defined in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability

Act of 1996 and its implementing regulations (45 C.F.R. Parts 160-164); or (3) iIs presented in a

form and manner that allows the identification of an individual.

     (j) "Nonidentifiable patient safety work product" means patient safety work product that

is not identifiable patient safety work product as defined in subsection (h) herein.

     (k) "Reporting entities" means all hospitals, nursing facilities, and freestanding

ambulatory surgical centers licensed under chapter 23-17 17 of title 23.


 

 

193)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17.26-3

206 and 330

 

 

23-17.26-3. Comprehensive discharge planning.

     (a) On or before January 1, 2017, each hospital and freestanding, emergency-care facility

operating in the state of Rhode Island shall submit to the director a comprehensive discharge plan

that includes:

     (1) Evidence of participation in a high-quality, comprehensive discharge-planning and

transitions-improvement project operated by a nonprofit organization in this state; or

     (2) A plan for the provision of comprehensive discharge planning and information to be

shared with patients transitioning from the hospital's or freestanding, emergency-care facility's

care. Such plan shall contain the adoption of evidence-based practices including, but not limited

to:

     (i) Providing education in the hospital or freestanding, emergency-care facility prior to

discharge;

     (ii) Ensuring patient involvement such that, at discharge, patients and caregivers

understand the patient's conditions and medications and have a point of contact for follow-up

questions;

     (iii) With patient consent, attempting to notify the person(s) listed as the patient's

emergency contacts and recovery coach before discharge. If the patient refuses to consent to the

notification of emergency contacts, such refusal shall be noted in the patient's medical record;

     (iv) Attempting to identify patients' primary care providers and assisting with scheduling

post-discharge follow-up appointments prior to patient discharge;

     (v) Expanding the transmission of the department of health's continuity-of-care form, or

successor program, to include primary care providers' receipt of information at patient discharge

when the primary care provider is identified by the patient; and

     (vi) Coordinating and improving communication with outpatient providers.

     (3) The discharge plan and transition process shall include recovery planning tools for

patients with substance-use disorders, opioid overdoses, and chronic addiction, which plan and

transition process shall include the elements contained in subsections (a)(1) or (a)(2), as

applicable. In addition, such discharge plan and transition process shall also include:

     (i) That, with patient consent, each patient presenting to a hospital or freestanding,

emergency-care facility with indication of a substance-use disorder, opioid overdose, or chronic

addiction shall receive a substance-abuse evaluation, in accordance with the standards in

subsection (a)(4)(ii), before discharge. Prior to the dissemination of the standards in subsection

(a)(4)(ii), with patient consent, each patient presenting to a hospital or freestanding, emergency-

care facility with indication of a substance-use disorder, opioid overdose, or chronic addiction

shall receive a substance-abuse evaluation, in accordance with best practices standards, before

discharge;

     (ii) That if, after the completion of a substance-abuse evaluation, in accordance with the

standards in subsection (a)(4)(ii), the clinically appropriate inpatient and outpatient services for

the treatment of substance-use disorders, opioid overdose, or chronic addiction contained in

subsection (a)(3)(iv) are not immediately available, the hospital or freestanding, emergency-care

facility shall provide medically necessary and appropriate services with patient consent, until the

appropriate transfer of care is completed;

     (iii) That, with patient consent, pursuant to 21 C.F.R. § 1306.07, a physician in a hospital

or freestanding, emergency-care facility, who is not specifically registered to conduct a narcotic

treatment program, may administer narcotic drugs, including buprenorphine, to a person for the

purpose of relieving acute, opioid-withdrawal symptoms, when necessary, while arrangements

are being made for referral for treatment. Not more than one day's medication may be

administered to the person or for the person's use at one time. Such emergency treatment may be

carried out for not more than three (3) days and may not be renewed or extended;

     (iv) That each patient presenting to a hospital or freestanding, emergency-care facility

with indication of a substance-use disorder, opioid overdose, or chronic addiction, shall receive

information, made available to the hospital or freestanding, emergency-care facility in accordance

with subsection (a)(4)(v), about the availability of clinically appropriate inpatient and outpatient

services for the treatment of substance-use disorders, opioid overdose, or chronic addiction,

including:

     (A) Detoxification;

     (B) Stabilization;

     (C) Medication-assisted treatment or medication-assisted maintenance services, including

methadone, buprenorphine, naltrexone, or other clinically appropriate medications;

     (D) Inpatient and residential treatment;

     (E) Licensed clinicians with expertise in the treatment of substance-use disorders, opioid

overdoses, and chronic addiction;

     (F) Certified recovery coaches; and

     (v) That, when the real-time patient-services database outlined in subsection (a)(4)(vi)

becomes available, each patient shall receive real-time information from the hospital or

freestanding, emergency-care facility about the availability of clinically appropriate inpatient and

outpatient services.

     (4) On or before January 1, 2017, the director of the department of health, with the

director of the department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals,

shall:

     (i) Develop and disseminate, to all hospitals and freestanding, emergency-care facilities, a

regulatory standard for the early introduction of a recovery coach during the pre-admission and/or

admission process for patients with substance-use disorders, opioid overdose, or chronic

addiction;

     (ii) Develop and disseminate, to all hospitals and freestanding, emergency-care facilities,

substance-abuse evaluation standards for patients with substance-use disorders, opioid overdose,

or chronic addiction;

     (iii) Develop and disseminate, to all hospitals and freestanding, emergency-care facilities,

pre-admission, admission, and discharge regulatory standards, a recovery plan, and voluntary

transition process for patients with substance-use disorders, opioid overdose, or chronic addiction.

Recommendations from the 2015 Rhode Island governor's overdose prevention and intervention

task force strategic plan may be incorporated into the standards as a guide, but may be amended

and modified to meet the specific needs of each hospital and freestanding, emergency-care

facility;

     (iv) Develop and disseminate best practices standards for health care clinics, urgent-care

centers, and emergency-diversion facilities regarding protocols for patient screening, transfer, and

referral to clinically appropriate inpatient and outpatient services contained in subsection

(a)(3)(iv);

     (v) Develop regulations for patients presenting to hospitals and freestanding, emergency-

care facilities with indication of a substance-use disorder, opioid overdose, or chronic addiction to

ensure prompt, voluntary access to clinically appropriate inpatient and outpatient services

contained in subsection (a)(3)(iv);

     (vi) Develop a strategy to assess, create, implement, and maintain a database of real-time

availability of clinically appropriate inpatient and outpatient services contained in subsection

(a)(3)(iv) of this section on or before January 1, 2018.

     (5) On or before September 1, 2017, each hospital and freestanding, emergency-care

facility operating in the state of Rhode Island shall submit to the director a discharge plan and

transition process that shall include provisions for patients with a primary diagnosis of a mental

health disorder without a co-occurring substance use disorder.

     (6) On or before January 1, 2018, the director of the department of health, with the

director of the department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities, and hospitals,

shall develop and disseminate mental health best practices standards for health care clinics, urgent

care centers, and emergency diversion facilities regarding protocols for patient screening,

transfer, and referral to clinically appropriate inpatient and outpatient services. The best practice

standards shall include information and strategies to facilitate clinically appropriate prompt

transfers and referrals from hospitals and freestanding, emergency-care facilities to less intensive

settings.


 

 

194)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-20.9-4

409 and 426

 

 

23-20.9-4. Definitions.

As used in this chapter:

     (1)(3) "Person" means any person or persons including but not limited to contract or other

workers on school property, school students, school administrators, school employees, school

faculty, and school visitors.

     (2)(4) "School or schools" means any non-residential school building, public or private, of

any city or town or community educational system regulated, directly or secondarily, by the board

of regents for council on elementary and secondary education or the department of elementary and

secondary education or any other state education board or local city or town school board or

school committee or other legal educational subdivision acting under it. As used in this chapter,

the term "school or schools" includes, but is not limited to: school playgrounds,; school

administration buildings,; indoor school athletic facilities,; school gymnasiums,; school locker

rooms,; school buses,; other school vehicles,; other school buildings whose use is not primarily

residential,; and outside areas within twenty-five (25') feet of any school building.

     (3)(2) "Governing body" means the body, board, committee or individual, or its designated

agent(s) or designee(s), responsible for, or which who or that has control over, the administration

of any elementary or secondary school, public or private, in the state.

     (4)(5) "Tobacco product usage" means the smoking or use of any substance or item which

that contains tobacco, including, but not limited to: cigarettes, cigars, pipes, or other smoking

tobacco, or the use of snuff or smokeless tobacco, or having in one's possession a lighted

cigarette, cigar, pipe, or other substance or item containing tobacco.

     (5)(1) "Electronic nicotine-delivery system usage" means any vaping, inhaling, or use of any

device defined in §11-9-13.4.


 

 

195)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-20.9-5

409 and 426

 

 

23-20.9-5. Regulation of smoking in schools.

     (a) The governing body of each school in Rhode Island shall be responsible for the

development of enforcement procedures to prohibit tobacco product usage and electronic

nicotine-delivery system usage by any person utilizing school facilities. All facilities used by a

school, whether owned, leased, or rented, shall be subject to the provisions of this chapter.

Enforcement procedures shall be promulgated and conspicuously posted in each building.

     (b) This chapter shall not modify, or be used as a basis for modifying, school policies or

regulations in effect prior to the passage of this chapter if the existing policies or regulations

prohibit tobacco product usage and electronic nicotine-delivery system usage in the school.

     (c) All school areas where tobacco product usage is prohibited shall be clearly marked

with "nonsmoking area" signs with bold block lettering at least three inches (3") high stating

"Tobacco-Free School -- Tobacco Use Prohibited". All school areas where electronic nicotine-

delivery system usage is prohibited shall be clearly marked with "nonsmoking area" signs with

bold block lettering at least three inches (3") high stating "E-Cigarettes and Vapor Devices

Prohibited". There shall be at least one "nonsmoking area" sign, in conformance with the above,

at every building entrance and in other areas as designated by the governing body. Signs shall

also be posted in every school bus and every school vehicle. Signs as detailed above shall be

provided, without charge, by the department of health.


 

 

196)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-24.10-3

391 and 430

 

 

23-24.10-3. Definitions.

     For the purposes of this chapter:

     (1) "Department" means the department of environmental management.

     (2) "Covered electronic products" means:

     (i) Computers (including central processing unit or CPU) as defined herein;

     (ii) Computer monitors, including CRT monitors and flat panel monitors;

     (iii) Combination units (CPUs with monitors);

     (iv) Portable computers, such as tablets; and

     (v) Printers as defined in this section shall only be included as a "covered electronic

product" if/once the total amount of printers exceed twenty percent (20%) by weight of the total

returns of covered electronics as determined in by  §23-24.10-11 (a) 5 after January 1, 2020.

     (iv)(vi) Televisions including CRT-based and non-CRT-based televisions, plasma, and

LCD, or any similar video-display device with a screen greater than nine (9) inches diagonally

and that contains a circuit board; and

     (v)(vii) "Covered electronic products" does not mean a computer, television, or video-

display device that is: (a) aA part of a motor vehicle or any component part of a motor vehicle

assembled by, or for, a vehicle manufacturer or franchised dealer, including replacement parts for

use in a motor vehicle; or (b) fFunctionally or physically a part of, connected to, or integrated

within a larger piece of equipment designed and intended for use in an industrial, governmental,

commercial, research and development, or medical setting, (including diagnostic, monitoring, or

other medical products as that term is defined under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act)

or equipment used for security, sensing, monitoring, or anti-terrorism purposes; or (c) cContained

within a home appliance, clothes washer, clothes dryer, refrigerator, refrigerator and freezer,

microwave oven, conventional oven or range, dishwasher, room air conditioner, dehumidifier, or

air purifier; or (d) aA handheld device used to access commercial mobile radio service and/or

commercial mobile data service, as such service is defined in 47 CFR 20.3, or (e) a printer as

defined in subsection (ii) herein 47 C.F.R. §20.3.

     (3) "Person" means an individual, trust, firm, joint stock company, corporation (including

a government corporation), partnership, association, the federal government or any agency or

subdivision thereof, a state, municipality, commission, political subdivision of a state, or any

interstate body.

     (4) "Computer" often referred to as a "personal computer" or "PC", means a desktop or

notebook computer as further defined below, but does not mean an automated typewriter,

electronic printer, mobile telephone, portable hand-held calculator, portable digital assistant

(PDA), MP3 player, or other similar device. "Computer" does not include computer peripherals,

commonly known as cables, mouse, or keyboard; computer servers marketed to professional

users; or retail store terminals or cash registers, used at customer checkout in the retail industry.

"Computer" is further defined to include:

     (i) "Desktop computer" means an electronic, magnetic, optical, electrochemical, or other

high-speed data- processing device performing logical, arithmetic, or storage functions for general

purpose needs which that are met through interaction with a number of software programs

contained therein, and which that is not designed to exclusively perform a specific type of

logical, arithmetic, or storage function or other limited or specialized application. Human

interface with a desktop computer is achieved through a standalone keyboard, standalone monitor

or other display unit, and a standalone mouse or other pointing device, and is designed for a

single user. A desktop computer has a main unit that is intended to be persistently located in a

single location, often on a desk or on the floor. A desktop computer is not designed for portability

and generally utilizes an external monitor, keyboard, and mouse with an external or internal

power supply for a power source. Desktop computer does not include an automated typewriter or

typesetter; or

     (ii) "Notebook computer" means an electronic, magnetic, optical, electrochemical, or

other high-speed data-processing device performing logical, arithmetic, or storage functions for

general purpose needs which that are met through interaction with a number of software

programs contained therein, and which that is not designed to exclusively perform a specific type

of logical, arithmetic, or storage function or other limited or specialized application. Human

interface with a notebook computer is achieved through a keyboard, video display greater than

nine inches (9") in size, and mouse or other pointing device, all of which are contained within the

construction of the unit which that comprises the notebook computer; supplemental standalone

interface devices typically can also be attached to the notebook computer. Notebook computers

can use external, internal, or batteries for a power source. Notebook computer does not include a

portable handheld hand-held calculator, or a portable digital assistant or similar specialized

device. A notebook computer has an incorporated video display greater than nine inches (9") in

size and can be carried as one unit by an individual. A notebook computer is sometimes referred

to as a laptop and/or tablet computer.

     (5) "Corporation" means the Rhode Island resource recovery corporation created and

established pursuant to chapter 23-19 of the Rhode Island general laws 19 of title 23.

     (6) "Manufacturer" means a person or entity who or that:

     (i) Has a physical presence and legal assets in the United States of America; and

     (A) Manufactures or manufactured a covered electronic product under a brand it owns; or

is or was licensed to use;

     (B) Sells or sold under a brand or label it owns or is or was licensed to use a covered

electronic product produced by other suppliers; or

     (C) Assumes the financial responsibility of manufacturer collection, transportation, or

recycling as further defined herein; or

     (D) Imports or imported a covered electronic product into the United States that is

manufactured by a person without a presence in the United States; or

     (E) Sells at retail a covered electronic product acquired from an importer that is the

manufacturer as described in subsection (b) herein, and elects to register in lieu of the importer.

     (7) "Market share" means a television or printer manufacturer’s national sales of

televisions or printers, respectively, expressed as a percentage of the total of all television or

printer manufacturer’s national sales based on the best available public data.

     (8) "Market share by weight" means the minimum total weight of covered electronic

products, i.e. televisions and/or printers, that an individual manufacturer is responsible for

collecting, transporting, and recycling.

     (8)(9) "Monitor" means a video-display device without a tuner that can display pictures

and sound and is used with a computer.

     (9)(10) "Orphan waste" means a covered electronic product, except a television, products

for which no manufacturer can be identified or the manufacturer is no longer a in business and no

successor business can be identified or a de minimis quantity of brands with no greater than one

percent (1%) market share or return share to be determined annually by the corporation.

     (10)(11) "Premium service" means services such as at-location system upgrade services

and at-home pickup services, including curbside pickup service.

     (11)(12) "Printer" means desktop printers, multifunction printer copiers, and printer/fax

combinations taken out of service that are designed to reside on a work surface, and include

various print technologies, including, without limitation, laser and LED (electrographic), ink jet,

dot matrix, thermal, and digital sublimation, and "multi-function" or "all-in-one" devices that

perform different tasks, including, without limitation, copying, scanning, faxing, and printing.

Printers do not include floor-standing printers, printers with optional floor stand, point-of-sale

(POS) receipt printers, household printers such as a calculator with printing capabilities or label

makers, or non-standalone printers that are embedded into products that are not covered

electronic products.

     (12)(13) "Retailer" means a person or entity who or that sells a covered electronic

product in the state to a consumer, ."Retailer" includes, but is not limited to, a manufacturer of a

covered electronic product who sells directly to a consumer through any means, including, but not

limited to, transactions conducted through sales outlets, catalogs, or the Iinternet, or any similar

electronic means, but not including leasing, commercial financing, or wholesale transactions with

a distributor or other retailer.

     (13)(14) "Return share" means the minimum percentage share of covered electronic

products, except televisions and printers, that an individual manufacturer is responsible for

collecting, transporting, and recycling.

     (14)(15) "Return share by weight" means the minimum total weight of covered electronic

products, except televisions and printers, that an individual manufacturer is responsible for

collecting, transporting, and recycling.

     (15)(16) "Television" means any telecommunication system device that can broadcast or

receive moving pictures and sound over a distance and includes a television tuner or a display

device peripheral to a computer that contains a television tuner.

     (16)(17) "Video-display devices" means and includes units capable of presenting images

electronically on a screen, with a viewable area greater than nine inches (9") when measured

diagonally, viewed by the user and may include cathode ray tubes, flat-panel computer monitors,

plasma displays, liquid crystal displays, rear-and front-enclosed projection devices, and other

similar displays that exist or may be developed.

     (17)(18) "State program" means a statewide program for collecting, transporting, and

recycling covered electronic products that is provided by the resource recovery corporation for

manufacturers who pay a recycling fee.

     (18)(19) "Manufacturer program" means a statewide program for collecting, transporting,

and recycling covered electronic products that is provided by the manufacturer, either

individually or as a group.

     (19)(20) "Program year" means January 1 through December 31, also referred to as

"calendar year".

     (20)(21) "Collector" means a public or private entity that receives covered electronic

devices and arranges for the delivery of the devices to a recycler.

     (21)(22) "Recycler" means a public or private individual or entity who accepts covered

electronic devices directly from the public or from collectors for the purpose of recycling. A

manufacturer who takes products solely for refurbishment or repair is not a recycler. A recycler

may also be a collector if it the recycler meets the definition of a collector.


 

 

197)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-24.10-6

391 and 430

 

 

23-24.10-6. Manufacturer individual financial responsibility.

     (a) On the effective date of this section, for covered electronic products other than

televisions and printers, manufacturers have individual financial responsibility for the collection,

transportation, and recycling of their covered electronic products and adjusted share of orphan

waste which that have been discarded by households or public and private elementary and

secondary schools in Rhode Island, including their return share of orphan waste.

     (b) On the effective date of this section, for televisions and printers, each television and

printer manufacturer has financial responsibility for the collection, transportation, and recycling

of televisions and printers, respectively, and an adjusted share of orphan wastewhich that have

been discarded by households or public and private elementary and secondary schools in Rhode

Island, based on the television or printer manufacturer's market share.


 

 

198)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-24.10-8

391 and 430

 

 

23-24.10-8. Labeling and registration requirements.

     (a) On and after the effective date of this section, a manufacturer or retailer may not sell

or offer for sale a covered electronic product in the state unless it is labeled with the

manufacturer's brand, and the label is permanently affixed and readily visible.

     (b) Registration. Before January 1 October 15 of each year, a manufacturer of covered

electronic products sold or offered for sale in this state shall register with the department for a

period to cover the upcoming calendar year, on a form provided by the department and pay a fee

of five thousand dollars ($5,000) to the department. The registration shall include:

     (1) A list of all the brands manufactured, sold, or imported by the manufacturer,

including those brands being offered for sale in this state by the manufacturer;

     (2) A statement of whether the manufacturer will be implementing a manufacturer

program or utilizing the state program for recycling covered electronic products; and

     (3) Any other information required by the department to implement this chapter.

     (c) By January 1, 2009, each manufacturer, as defined in §23-24.10-3, of new covered

electronic products offered for sale for delivery in this state shall register with the department and

pay to the department a registration fee of five thousand dollars ($5,000). Thereafter, if a

manufacturer has not previously filed a registration, the manufacturer shall file a registration with

the department prior to any offer for sale for delivery in this state of the manufacturer's new

covered electronic products and shall pay to the department a registration fee of five thousand

dollars ($5,000). Any manufacturer to whom or to which the department provides notification of

a return share, return share in by weight, or market share or market share by weight pursuant to

subsections§§ 23-24.10-12(d) and (e) and who has not previously filed a registration shall, within

thirty (30) days of receiving such notification, file a registration with the department and shall pay

to the department a registration fee of five thousand dollars ($5,000).

     (d) If a manufacturer has a return share or market share but has not sold units in the state

for three (3) years or more, the manufacturer is still required to register but is not required to pay

the five thousand dollar ($5,000) registration fee.

     (1) Each registered manufacturer shall submit an annual renewal of its registration to the

department by October 15 of each year and pay to the department a registration fee of five

thousand dollars ($5,000) by December 15 prior to the start of each program year.

     (2) The registration and each annual renewal shall include a list of all of the

manufacturer's brands of covered electronic products and shall be effective upon receipt by the

department.

     (3) All registration fees collected by the department shall be deposited in the

environmental response fund established pursuant to Rhode Island general laws § 23-19.1-23.

     (4) Manufacturers who or that no longer sell or deliver covered electronic products in the

state via POS or Iinternet but still have a return or market share must register with the department

but shall not be required to pay the five thousand dollar ($5,000) registration fee but shall be

required to bear manufacturer responsibility pursuant to §23-24.10-9.


 

 

199)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-24.10-9

391 and 430

 

 

23-24.10-9. Manufacturer responsibility.

     (a) A manufacturer choosing to implement a manufacturer program shall submit a plan to

the department by October 15 each year, by way of a template created by the department, with

two (2) years of possible renewal at the time of payment of the annual registration fee required

under subsection§ 23-24.10-8(c).

     (b) The manufacturer's plan must describe how the manufacturer will:

     (1) Finance, manage, and conduct a statewide program to collect covered electronic

products from households and public and private elementary and secondary schools in this state;

     (2) Provide for environmentally sound management practices to collect, transport, and

recycle covered electronic products;

     (3) Provide for advertising and promotion of collection opportunities statewide and on a

regular basis; and

     (4) Include convenient service statewide. Collection sites shall be staffed and open to the

public at a frequency adequate to meet the needs of the area being served. A program may

provide collection service jointly with another program and may include, but not be limited to,

mail-back programs and collection events.

     (c) The plan shall include a statement disclosing whether: (1) aAny video display devices

sold in Rhode Island exceed the maximum concentration values established for lead, mercury,

cadmium, hexavalent chromium, polybrominated diphenyls (PBBs), and polybrominated

diphenyl ethers (PBDEs) under the RoHS (restricting the use of certain hazardous substances in

electrical and electronic equipment) dDirective 2002/95/EC of the European pParliament and of

the cCouncil and any amendments there to thereto enacted as of the date; or (2) tThe

manufacturer has received an exemption from one or more of those maximum concentration

values under the RoHS directive that has been approved and published by the European

commission.

     (d) A manufacturer choosing to implement a manufacturer program shall:

     (1) Provide for collection, transportation, and recycling of covered electronic products

from households and public and private elementary and secondary schools free of charge and a

manufacturer that provides premium service for a person may charge for the additional cost of

that premium service.

     (2) Implement the plan and provide a report quarterly reports to the department no later

than April 30, July 31, October 31 each year showing the progress of the plan to date, and a final

report shall be due February 1 of each year that details how the plan required under this section

was implemented during the previous calendar year on a reporting template as provided by the

departmentThis report shall include operating hours and quantities collected from each

collection location or collection event during the reporting period.

     (3) Conduct a statistically significant sampling or actual count of the covered electronic

products collected and recycled by the manufacturer each calendar year using a methodology

approved by the department. The manufacturer shall report the results of the sampling or count to

the department no later than January 1 of the following calendar year. For all manufacturers,

excluding televisions manufactured, the report must include:

     (i) A list of all brands identified during the sampling or count by the manufacturer;

     (ii) The weight of covered electronic products identified for each brand during the

sampling or count; and

     (iii) The total weight of covered electronic products, including orphan waste if applicable,

collected from households and public and private elementary and secondary schools in the state

by the manufacturer during the previous calendar year.

     (e) A group of manufacturers, except television manufacturers, may choose to implement

a manufacturer program as one entity, if in doing so the manufacturers meet the sum of their

individual return shares by weight under subsection§ 23-24.10-12(d) and that sum is at least five

percent (5%). A group of television manufacturers may choose to implement a manufacturer

program as one entity, if in doing so the manufacturers meet the sum of their individual market

shares under subsection§ 23-24.10-12(d) and that share is at least five percent (5%).

     (f) By February 1 of each year, a manufacturer who or that does not meet ninety percent

(90%) of its share for the previous calendar year the manufacturer shall pay the corporation for

the amount under ninety percent (90%) not achieved at a rate determined and enforceable by the

department to be equivalent to the amount the manufacturer would have paid as defined under

subsection §23-24.10-11(d) plus ten percent (10%) to be paid to the department, and which shall

be the per-ton pound fee for the prior year multiplied by the manufacturer's return share as

established prior to the start of the program year. The remaining variance shall be addressed and

reconciled in the plan's final report (pursuant to subsection (d) of this section) and an amended

plan shall also be submitted. Manufacturers are allowed a ten percent (10%) variance (over or

under collected) to be carried forward to the new plan year. Collections of greater than one

hundred ten percent (110%) will not be allowed to carry forward. The purchase of extra weight

between plans is allowed with prior approval of the department.

     (g) A manufacturer, except a television manufacturer, with less than a five percent (5%)

return share or market share is required to participate in the state program under § 23-24.10-11. A

television manufacturer who or that does not have an approved manufacturer's plan shall

participate in the state program under § 23-24.10-11.

     (h) A manufacturer participating in the state program under § 23-24.10-11 shall notify the

department at the time of its registration each year.

     (i) By February April 1 of each year, a manufacturer who or that participates in the state

program shall pay a recycling fee to the corporation in an amount adopted by the department

under § 23-24.10-12 to cover the costs of collecting, transporting, and recycling the

manufacturer's annual share of covered electronic products for the following year.

     (j) (1) A manufacturer program, the state program, or a collector participating in a

manufacturer program or the state program may not charge a fee to households or public and

private elementary and secondary schools for the collection, transportation, or recycling of those

any covered electronic products defined in §23-24.10-3.

     (2) A collector who or that provides a premium service to a person may charge for the

additional cost of providing the premium service.


 

 

 

200)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-24.10.1

391 and 430

 

 

23-24.10-10.1. Collector and recycler responsibility.

     (a) Collector's registration. After July 31, 2010, no person or entity may operate as a

collector of covered electronic devices unless that person or entity has submitted a registration

with the department on a form prescribed by the director. Registration information must include

the name, address, telephone number, and location of the business, and a certification that the

collector has complied, and will continue to comply, with the requirements of this chapter and

with all program rules and regulations promulgated by the department and the corporation. A

registration is effective upon receipt by the department and is valid until December 31 of each

year. Collectors must register annually with the department.

     (b) Recycler's registration. After July 31, 2010, no person or entity may recycle covered

electronic devices unless that person has submitted a registration with the department on a form

prescribed by the director. Registration information must include the name, address, telephone

number, and location of all recycling facilities under the direct control of the recycler who or that

that may receive covered electronic devices, and a certification that the recycler has complied,

and will continue to comply, with the requirements of this chapter and with all program rules and

regulations promulgated by the department and the corporation. A registered recycler may

conduct recycling activities that are consistent with this chapter. A registration is effective upon

receipt by the agency and is valid until December 31 of each year. Recyclers must register

annually with the department.

     (c) E-waste collected out of state shall be strictly prohibited from inclusion in programs

pursuant to this chapter.

     (c)(d) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to circumvent the department's existing

authority under Rhode Island general laws chapter 23-19.1 19.1 of title 23 or regulations promulgated thereto.


 

 

201)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-24.10-11

391 and 430

 

 

23-24.10-11. Rhode Island resource recovery corporation responsibility.

     (a) The corporation shall establish a state program for the collection, transportation, and

recycling of covered electronic products from households and public and private elementary and

secondary schools in this state. The state program shall be fully funded through the recycling fees

as defined in subsection (d) herein of this section. The corporation shall annually by November

15 submit a plan to the department for review and approval that will:

     (1) To the extent practicable, use existing local collection, transportation and recycling

infrastructure;

     (2) Use environmentally sound management practices as defined under subsection§ 23-

24.10-12(i) to collect, transport, and recycle covered electronic products;

     (3) Provide for households and public and private elementary and secondary schools

convenient and available collection services and sites for covered electronic products in each

county of this state and collection services shall be free of charge for households and public and

private elementary and secondary schools;

     (4) Advertise and promote collection opportunities statewide and on a regular basis; and

     (5) Conduct a statistically significant sampling or actual count of the covered electronic

products collected and recycled by the state program during each calendar year using a

methodology approved by the department and prepare a report no later than March 1 of the

following calendar year that includes, but is not limited to:

     (i) A list of all brands identified during the count;

     (ii) The weight of covered electronic products, except televisions, identified for each

brand during the count; and

     (iii) The total weight of covered electronic products, including orphan waste if applicable,

collected from households and public and private elementary and secondary schools in the state

by the state program during the previous calendar year.

     (6) Maintain on its website information on collection opportunities for covered electronic

products, including collection site locations and hours. The information must be made available

in a printable format for retailers.

     (b) Covered electronic products account fund. The corporation shall create the covered

electronic products account fund ("the fund"). Interest earned by the account shall be credited to

the account. Fees collected by the corporation under subsection (c) below of this section shall be

deposited in the covered electronic products account fund. Moneys in the account are to be used

only to pay the costs of implementing this chapter, operating the state program and enforcing the

disposal ban in § 23-24.10-5. The corporation shall include this account fund in its annual audit.

the fund each year, and surpluses Surpluses are to be credited on a pro rata basis to those

manufacturers paying fees into and for the program year in which a surplus is generated, while

deficits in the fund shall be applied to the adjusted recycling fee in the second program year

following the audited program year.

     (c) The corporation shall determine the return share and return share by weight

responsibility for each calendar year for each manufacturer, except television and printer

manufacturers. The return share shall be determined by dividing the total weight of covered

electronic products of that manufacturer's return-share brands by the total weight of covered

electronic products for all manufacturers' brands. The return share by weight shall be determined

by multiplying the return share for each such manufacturer by the total weight in of return-share

pounds of covered electronic products as calculated by the corporation, except televisions and

printers, including orphan waste, collected from households and public and private elementary

and secondary schools the previous calendar year as determined by the department.

     (1) For 2009 and 2010, determine the return share and return share by weight for each

manufacturer, except television manufacturers, based on the best available public return-share

data and public weight data from within the United States for covered electronic products from

households and public and private elementary and secondary schools. For subsequent years, the

return share and return-share weight of covered electronic products for each manufacturer shall

be based on the most recent annual sampling or count of covered electronic products. For

subsequent years, the total weight in pounds of covered electronic products shall be based on the

total weight of covered electronic products, including orphan waste, determined by the

department.

     (2) Determine the market share and market-share weight responsibility for each television

and printer manufacturer in accordance with subsection §23-24.10-3(7).

     (3) The corporation shall present the proposed return or market shares and weight

responsibility for each manufacturer to the department for review and approval on an annual basis

by November 1 August 15 of each year.

     (d) Determine the recycling fee to be paid by each manufacturer who or that participates

in the state program established pursuant to this section. The corporation shall determine the

recycling fees as follows:

     (1) For each manufacturer, except television manufacturers, the corporation shall

determine the recycling fee based on the manufacturer's annual return market share and return

market share by weight as determined under subsection (c) of this section. The fee shall be

calculated on a per-pound basis and shall not exceed fifty cents ($.50) per pound must be

approved by the department.

     (2) By November 1 August 15 of each year, the corporation shall set the cost per pound

for collection, transportation, and recycling of covered electronic products, except televisions, in

order to reasonably approximate market costs for these services, which cost per pound is used to

calculate the fee. The corporation may adjust such cost per pound in order to reasonably

approximate market costs for the collection, transportation, and recycling of covered electronic

products. Any deficits generated by the state program shall may be applied to the recycling fee

calculation for and in the second subsequent program year following the audited program year.

     (3) By November 1 of each year, for each television manufacturer that participates in the

state program the corporation shall determine, by regulation, the recycling fee based on a

television manufacturer's market share.

     (4) The corporation shall present the proposed recycling fees and any adjusted recycling

fees for each manufacturer to the department for review and approval.

     (e) Regulatory authority. The corporation may adopt such regulations as shall be

necessary to implement the provisions of this chapter.


 

 

202)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-24.10-12

391 and 430

 

 

23-24.10-12. Department responsibility.

     The department shall:

     (a) By January 1, 2009, maintain Maintain and make available on its website the

following lists, which must be updated by the first day of each month:

     (1) A list of registered manufacturers and their brands;

     (2) A list of brands for which no manufacturer has registered; and

     (3) A list that identifies which manufacturers are in compliance with this chapter.

     (b) Review and approve manufacturer plans that comply with this chapter and are

submitted annually by manufacturers choosing to implement a manufacturer program for

recycling covered electronic products.

     (c) Review and approve the corporation's plan as established by § 23-24.10-11.

     (d) Review and adopt the return share and return share by weight for all manufacturers,

except television and printer manufacturers, for the following year as determined by the

corporation pursuant to § 23-24.10-11. The department shall review and adopt the market share

and market share by weight for all television and printer manufacturers for the following year as

determined by the corporation pursuant to § 23-24.10-11.

     (e) By January 1 September 15 of each year, notify each manufacturer that had a return

share determined under § 23-24.10-11 its return share and its return share by weight for the

following year. By January 1 September 15 of each year, notify each television and printer

manufacturer that had a market share determined under § 23-24.10-11 its market share and its

market share by weight for the following year.

     (f) Review and adopt the recycling fee for all manufacturers as determined by the

corporation pursuant to § 23-24.10-11.

     (g) By November 1 September 15 prior to the program year for which a revised cost per

pound is to be used in accordance with the provisions of § 23-24.10-11 the department shall

notify all registered manufacturers of the revised cost per pound.

     (h) Report biennially to the general assembly on the operation of the statewide system for

collection, transportation, and recycling of covered electronic products.

     (i) Environmentally sound recycling and reuse. The department shall develop and adopt

regulations no later than January 30, 2009, to define environmentally sound recycling and reuse

practices for the manufacturers' plans and the state program. These regulations will apply to

collectors, transporters, and processors, and should ensure that all their downstream vendors

comply with all local, state, and federal regulations, and must not violate laws in importing and

transit countries when exporting environmentally sensitive materials throughout final disposition.

     (j) Regulatory authority. The department may adopt such regulations as shall be

necessary to implement the provisions of this chapter and may include exemptions from

provisions of this chapter as deemed appropriate by the department.


 

 

203)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-25-6

218 and 335

 

 

23-25-6. Registration.

     (a) Every pesticide which that is distributed in the state shall be registered with the

director subject to the provisions of this chapter and shall be categorized for registration purposes.

These categories shall be: "consumer protection and health benefits products", which means all

disinfectants, sanitizers, germicides, biocides and other pesticides labeled for use directly on

humans or pets or in or around household premises, and "agricultural and other pesticides,",

which means restricted-use pesticides and other pesticides that are not consumer protection and

health benefits products. That registration shall be renewed annually prior to January 31;

provided, that registration is not required if a pesticide is shipped from one plant or warehouse to

another plant or warehouse operated by the same person and used solely at the plant or warehouse

as a constituent part to make a pesticide which that is registered under the provisions of this

chapter or if the pesticide is distributed under the provisions of an experimental use permit issued

under § 23-25-7 or an experimental use permit issued by the EPA.

     (b) The applicant for registration shall file a statement with the director which that shall

include:

     (1) The name and address of the applicant and the name and address of the person whose

name will appear on the label, other than the applicant's;

     (2) The name of the pesticide;

     (3) Other necessary information required for completion of the department of

environmental management's application for registration form; . The director may, upon receipt

of an application, designate a pesticide product as a "statewide minor use" product. Such products

will be those which, due to limited distribution within the state, do not, in the opinion of the

director, warrant payment of the registration fee and surcharge required to register a product

within Rhode Island. Upon designating a product as a "statewide minor use" the director shall

register the product for sale or distribution while waiving both the registration fee and surcharge.

The applicant wishing to have a product so designated shall submit a completed application

containing the following information:

     (i) The product name;

     (ii) EPA registration number, if applicable;

     (iii) Description of pest to be controlled, and applicable sites;

     (iv) Documentation that the product is not registered due to limited market; and

     (v) Explanation as to why they there are not effective, reasonable alternative products currently

registered.

     (4) A complete copy of the labeling accompanying the pesticide and a statement of all

claims to be made for it, including the directions for use and the use classification as provided for

in FIFRA the  Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act, 7 U.S.C. § 136a, et seq.

     (c) The director, when he or she deems it necessary in the administration of this chapter,

may require the submission of the complete formula of any pesticide, including the active and

inert ingredients.

     (d) The director may require a full description of the tests made and the results of the

tests upon which the claims are based on any pesticide not registered pursuant to § 3 of FIFRA, 7

U.S.C. § 136a, or on any pesticide on which restrictions are being considered. In the case of

renewal of registration, a statement shall be required only with respect to information which that

is different from that furnished when the pesticide was registered or last reregistered.

     (e) The director may prescribe other necessary information by regulation.

     (f) The applicant desiring to register a pesticide shall, unless the director has determined

the subject product is a "statewide minor use" product pursuant to §23-25-6(3) subsection (b)(3),

pay an annual registration fee of fifty dollars ($50.00) to the general treasurer for each pesticide

registered for the applicant which shall be credited by the general treasurer to the pesticide relief

fund. Annually, on November 1, the general treasurer shall notify the director of the amount of

funds contained in the pesticide relief fund. If the pesticide relief fund shall exceed one million

dollars ($1,000,000) on that date, the annual registration fee for the next following year

commencing December 1 shall be twenty-five dollars ($25.00), which shall become part of the

general fund. All registrations shall expire on November 30, of any one year, unless sooner

cancelled; provided, that a registration for a special local need pursuant to this section which that

is disapproved by the administrator, EPA, shall expire on the effective date of the administrator's

disapproval.

     (g) Any registration approved by the director and in effect on the 31st day of January, for

which a renewal application has been made and the proper fee paid, shall continue in full force

and effect until any time that the director notifies the applicant that the registration has been

renewed, or denied, in accord with the provisions of § 23-25-8. Forms for re-registration shall be

mailed to registrants at least thirty (30) days prior to the due date.

     (h) (1) Provided the state of Rhode Island is certified by the administrator of EPA to

register pesticides pursuant to § 24(c) of FIFRA, 7 U.S.C. § 136v(c), the director shall require the

information set forth under subsections (b), (c), (d), and (e) and shall, subject to the terms and

conditions of the EPA certification, register the pesticide if he or she determines that:

     (i) Its composition is such as to warrant the proposed claims for it;

     (ii) Its labeling and other material required to be submitted comply with the requirements

of this chapter;

     (iii) It will perform its intended function without unreasonable adverse effects on the

environment;

     (iv) When used in accordance with widespread and commonly recognized practice, it will

not generally cause unreasonable adverse effects on the environment; and

     (v) A special local need for the pesticide exists.

     (2) Prior to registering a pesticide for a special local need, the director shall classify the

use of the pesticide for general or restricted use in conformity with § 3(d), 7 U.S.C. § 136a(d), of

FIFRA; provided, that the director shall not make any lack of essentiality a criterion for denying

registration of any pesticide. Where two (2) pesticides meet the requirements of this subdivision,

one should not be registered in preference to the other.

     (3) The director may develop and promulgate any other requirements by regulation that

are necessary for the state plan to receive certification from EPA.


 

 

204)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-25-6.1

218 and 335

 

 

23-25-6.1. Registration fee -- Surcharge.

In addition to the annual registration fee of fifty dollars ($50.00) as required by § 23-25-

6, an additional one hundred fifty dollar ($150) registration surcharge fee shall be imposed upon

each pesticide to be sold or used within the state, unless the director has determined the subject

product is a "statewide minor use" product pursuant to §23-25-6(3) 23-25-6(b)(3). The

registration surcharge fee shall be deposited as general revenues.


 

 

205)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

23-26-3.1

380 and 381

 

 

23-26-3.1. Sale prohibition.

     (a) Beginning on July 1, 2019, no manufacturer, wholesaler, or retailer may manufacture,

knowingly sell, offer for sale, or distribute for use in this state any residential upholstered bedding

or furniture, which contains one hundred parts per million (100 ppm), or greater of any

organohalogen flame retardant chemical. This class includes any chemical containing the element

bromine or chlorine bonded to carbon that is added to a plastic, foam, or textile.

     (b) A manufacturer of products that are banned from sale under this section, must notify

persons or entities that sell the manufactured products in this state about the provisions of this

section no less than ninety (90) days prior to the effective date of the ban.

     SECTION 2. Sections 23-26-25 and 23-26-27 of the General Laws in Chapter 23-26

entitled "Bedding and Upholstered Furniture" are hereby amended to read as follows:


 

 

206)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-26-25

380  and 381

 

 

23-26-25. Rules, regulations, and findings -- Suspension or revocation of permits.

     (a) The director is hereby authorized and empowered to make general rules and

regulations and specific rulings, demands, and findings for the enforcement of this chapter, in

addition hereto and not inconsistent herewith. The director may suspend or revoke any permit or

registration for violation of any provision of this chapter, or any rule, regulation, ruling, or

demand made pursuant to the authority granted by this chapter.

     (b) The director of the department of health shall investigate and enforce the provisions

of §23-26-3.1, and promulgate rules and regulations deemed necessary to enforce it.


 

 

207)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-26-27

380 and 381

 

 

23-26-27. Penalty for violations.

Any person who:

     (1) Makes, remakes, renovates, sterilizes, prepares, sells, or offers for sale, exchange, or

lease any article of bedding as defined by § 23-26-1, not properly tagged as required by this

chapter; or

     (2) Uses in the making, remaking, renovating, or preparing of the article of bedding or in

preparing cotton or other material therefor which that has been used as a mattress, pillow, or

bedding in any public or private hospital, or which that has been used by or about any person

having an infectious or contagious disease, and which that after such use has not been sterilized

and approved for use, by the director of business regulation; or

     (3) Counterfeits or imitates any stamp or permit issued under this chapter shall be guilty

of a misdemeanor, punishable by a fine of not more than five hundred dollars ($500) or by

imprisonment for not more than six (6) months or both.

     (4) Any person or entity who or that violates the provisions of §23-26-3.1 shall be civilly

fined not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for the first violation, and up to ten thousand

dollars ($10,000) for each subsequent violation.


               

 

208)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-27.3-100.1.4

85 and 89

 

 

23-27.3-100.1.4. Appointment and qualifications of the committee.

     (a) The building code standards committee shall be composed of twenty-three (23)

twenty-five (25) members, residents of the state who shall be appointed by the governor with the

advice and consent of the senate. Eight (8) members are to be appointed for terms of one year

each, seven (7) for a term of two (2) years each, and eight (8) ten (10) for terms of three (3) years

each. Annually, thereafter, the governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint

members to the committee to succeed those whose terms expired; the members to serve for terms

of three (3) years each and until their successors are appointed and qualified. Two (2) members

shall be architects registered in the state; three (3) shall be professional engineers registered in the

state, one specializing in mechanical, one specializing in structural, and one specializing in

electrical engineering; one landscape architect, registered in the state,; one full-time certified

electrical inspector; two (2) shall be builders or superintendents of building construction; one

shall be a public health official; one shall be a qualified fire code official; two (2) shall be from

the Rhode Island building trades council; two (2) shall be from the Rhode Island bBuilders

aAssociation; one shall be a holder of Class "A" electrician's license; one shall be a master

plumber; two (2) shall be from the general public; three (3) shall be building officials in office,

one from a municipality with a population of sixty thousand (60,000) persons or more, one from a

municipality with a population of over twenty thousand (20,000) persons but less than sixty

thousand (60,000), and one from a municipality with a population of less than twenty thousand

(20,000) persons; one shall be a minimum housing official in office from one of the local

municipalities; and two (2) residents of the state who shall be persons with disabilities as defined

in § 42-87-1.

     (b) All members shall have no less than five (5) years practical experience in his or her

their profession or business. The committee shall elect its own chairperson and may elect from

among its members such other officers as it deems necessary. Twelve (12) Thirteen (13) members

of the board shall constitute a quorum and the vote of a majority vote of those present shall be

required for action. The committee shall adopt rules and regulations for procedure. The state

building commissioner shall serve as the executive secretary to the committee. The committee

shall have the power, within the limits of appropriations provided therefor, to employ such

assistance as may be necessary to conduct business.

     (c) Members of the commission shall be removable by the governor pursuant to § 36-1-7

of the general laws and for cause only, and removal solely for partisan or personal reasons

unrelated to capacity or fitness for the office shall be unlawful.

     (d) The state housing and property maintenance code subcommittee shall be composed of

nine (9) members, residents of the state. Five (5) of these members are to be current members of

the state building code standards committee and are to be appointed by that committee. The four

(4) remaining members are to be appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of the

senate. The four (4) appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, shall

initially be appointed on a staggered term basis, one for one year, one for two (2) years, and two

(2) for three (3) years. Annually thereafter, the building code standards committee, and the

governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint the subcommittee members, for

which they are respectively responsible, to succeed those whose terms have expired; the members

to serve for terms of three (3) years each and until their successors are appointed and qualified. Of

the members appointed by the committee, one shall be a full-time certified electrical inspector;

one shall be a master plumber and mechanical equipment expert,; one shall be a builder or

superintendent of building construction,; one member shall be a qualified state fire code official,;

one shall be a property manager,; and one shall be a current minimum housing official from a

local municipality. The four (4) members to be appointed by the governor, with the advice and

consent of the senate, shall all be current minimum housing officials from local municipalities.

One shall be from a municipality with a population of sixty thousand (60,000) persons or more,

two (2) from municipalities with a population of over twenty thousand (20,000) persons but less

than sixty thousand (60,000), and one from a municipality with a population of less than twenty

thousand (20,000) persons.


 

 

209)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-28.2-11

35 and 40

 

 

23-28.2-11. Investigation of fires and attempted fires.

     (a) The state fire marshal, and/or any of the deputy state fire marshals or assistant state

fire marshals, may investigate any fire, or apparently attempted fire, and shall investigate the

cause, origin, and circumstances of every fire of suspicious origin, by which property has been

damaged or destroyed, or apparently attempted fire, and any fire where a fatality occurs as the

result of the fire and, so far as it is possible, determine the cause of the fire. The investigation

shall begin immediately after the occurrence of the fire, and local government officials shall

cooperate completely and assist the state fire marshal's office in all phases of the investigation.

     (b) It shall be the responsibility of the local authority having jurisdiction to notify the

state fire marshal's office of any fire of suspicious or incendiary origin or where death may have

resulted from the fire. The fire marshal shall adopt notification procedures.

     (c) The state fire marshal, and/or any of the deputy state fire marshals or assistant state

fire marshals, and/or municipal officials, including, without limitation, police, fire, and building

officials, shall prohibit any and all insurance adjusters, contractors, and restoration companies

from engaging in any solicitation or inspection or any physical presence on the premises under

investigation until twenty-four (24) hours after either the municipal fire department and/or the

state fire marshal, deputy state fire marshal, or assistant state fire marshal releases control of the

premises back to its legal owner(s) or occupant(s), unless the insurance adjuster, contractor, or

restoration company is accompanied by, and or acting with, permission of the premises' legal

owner.

     (d) Any insurance adjuster, contractor, or restoration company in violation of the

provisions of subsection (c) shall be subject to a civil penalty of one thousand dollars ($1,000) for

each violation and may be subject to revocation of the appropriate professional license or

registration.


 

 

210)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-75-3

166 and 380

 

 

23-75-3. Unsafe children's products -- Prohibition.

     (a) No commercial user may remanufacture, retrofit, sell, contract to sell or resell, lease,

sublet, or otherwise place in the stream of commerce, on or after January 1, 2004, a children's

product that is unsafe.

     (b) A children's product is deemed to be unsafe for purposes of this chapter if it meets

any of the following criteria:

     (1) It does not conform to all federal laws and regulations setting forth standards for the

children's product.

     (2) It has been recalled for any reason by an agency of the federal government or the

product's manufacturer, distributor, or importer and the recall has not been rescinded.

     (3) An agency of the federal government has issued a warning that a specific product's

intended use constitutes a safety hazard and the warning has not been rescinded.

     (c) A crib is presumed to be unsafe for purposes of this chapter if it does not conform to

the standards endorsed or established by the Consumer Product Safety Commission, including,

but not limited to, title 16 of the Code of Federal Regulations and the American Society for

Testing and Materials, as follows:

     (1) 16 CFR Part 1508 and any regulations adopted to amend or supplement the

regulations.

     (2) 16 CFR Part 1509 and any regulations adopted to amend or supplement the

regulations.

     (3) 16 CFR Part 1303 and any regulations adopted to amend or supplement the

regulations.

     (4) The following standards and specifications of the American Society for Testing and

Materials for corner posts of baby cribs and structural integrity of baby cribs:

     (i) ASTM F 966-90 (corner post standard).

     (ii) ASTM F 1169-88 (structural integrity of full-size baby cribs).

     (iii) ASTM F 1822-97 (non-full-size cribs).

     (d) Cribs that are unsafe shall include, but not be limited to, cribs that have any of the

following dangerous features or characteristics:

     (1) Corner posts that extend more than one-sixteenth (1/16) of an inch.

     (2) Spaces between side slats more than 2.375 inches.

     (3) Mattress support that can be easily dislodged from any point of the crib. A mattress

segment can be easily dislodged if it cannot withstand at least a twenty-five-(25) pound (25)

upward force from underneath the crib.

     (4) Cutout designs on the end panels.

     (5) Rail height dimensions that do not conform to both of the following:

     (i) The height of the rail and end panel as measured from the top of the rail or panel in its

lowest position to the top of the mattress support in its highest position is at least nine (9) inches.

     (ii) The height of the rail and end panel as measured from the top of the rail or panel in its

highest position to the top of the mattress support in its lowest position is at least twenty-six (26)

inches.

     (6) Any screws, bolts, or hardware that are loose and not secured.

     (7) Sharp edges, points, or rough surfaces, or any wood surfaces that are not smooth and

free from splinters, splits, or cracks.

     (8) Tears in mesh or fabric sides in a non-full-size crib.

     (9) A non-full-size crib that folds in a "V" shape design does not have top rails that

automatically lock into place when the crib is fully set up.

     (10) The mattress pad in a non-full-size mesh/fabric crib exceeds one inch (1").

     (e) Beginning on July 1, 2018, no manufacturer, wholesaler, or retailer may manufacture,

knowingly sell, offer for sale, or distribute for use in this state any residential upholstered bedding

or furniture, which contains one hundred parts per million (100 ppm), or greater of any

organohalogen flame retardant chemical. This class includes any chemical containing the element

bromine or chlorine bonded to carbon that is added to a plastic, foam, or textile.

     (f) A manufacturer of products that are banned from sale under this section, must notify

persons or entities that sell the manufactured products in this state about the provisions of this

section no less than ninety (90) days prior to the effective date of the ban.


 

 

211)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-75-8

166 and 380

 

 

23-75-8. Penalty.

     (a) A commercial user who willfully and knowingly violates § 23-75-6 is guilty of a

misdemeanor.

     (b) Any person or entity that violates the provisions of §23-75-3(a) shall be civilly fined

not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for the first violation, and up to ten thousand dollars

($10,000) for each subsequent violation.


 

 

212)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

23-75-9

166 and 380

 

 

23-75-9. Enforcement.

The director of the department of health shall investigate and enforce the provisions of

§23-75-3(e), and promulgate rules and regulations deemed necessary to enforce it.


 

 

213)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-78.1-3

201 and 303

 

 

23-78.1-3. Designation of Rhode Island comprehensive and primary stroke centers and acute

stroke ready hospitals.

     (a) The director of the department of health shall establish a process to recognize

comprehensive and primary stroke centers and acute stroke-ready hospitals in Rhode Island. The

jJointcCommission on aAccreditation of hHealthcCare oOrganizations and the American Heart

Association/American Stroke Association have collaborated on the development of certification

programs for comprehensive and primary stroke centers and acute stroke-ready hospitals that

follow the best practices for stroke care. A hospital shall be designated as a "Rhode Island

comprehensive stroke center,or a "Rhode Island primary stroke center,or a "Rhode Island

acute stroke-ready hospital" if it has received a certificate of distinction for comprehensive or

primary stroke centers or "acute stroke-ready hospitals" issued by the Joint Commission on

Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (the joint commission) or other nationally recognized

certification body, if a formal process is developed in the future;

     (b) The department of health shall recognize as many hospitals as Rhode Island

comprehensive or primary stroke centers or as acute stroke-ready hospitals as apply and are

awarded certification by the Joint Commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations

(or other nationally recognized certification body, if a formal process is developed in the future);

     (c) The director of the department of health may suspend or revoke a hospital's state

designation as a Rhode Island comprehensive or primary stroke center, or acute stroke ready

hospital, after notice and hearing, if the department of health determines that the hospital is not in

compliance with the requirements of this chapter.


 

 

214)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-78.1-5

201 and 303

 

 

23-78.1-5. Emergency medical services providers; triage and transportation of

stroke patients.

     (a) The department of health, division of emergency medical services, and the ambulance

service advisory board shall adopt and distribute a nationally recognized standardized assessment

tool for stroke. The division of emergency medical services shall post this stroke assessment tool

on its website and provide a copy of the assessment tool to each licensed emergency medical

services provider no later than January 1, 2010. Each licensed emergency medical services

provider must use the stroke-triage assessment tool provided by the department of health, division

of emergency medical services;

     (b) The department of health, division of emergency medical services, and the ambulance

service advisory board shall establish pre-hospital care protocols related to the assessment,

treatment, and transport of stroke patients by licensed, emergency medical services providers in

this state. Such protocols may include plans for the triage and transport of acute stroke patients to

the closest comprehensive or primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready hospital as appropriate

and within a specified timeframe of onset of symptoms. The stroke pre-hospital care protocols

shall be reviewed on an annual basis;

     (c) By June 1 of each year, the department of health, division of emergency medical

services (emergency medical services), shall send the list of comprehensive and primary stroke

centers and acute stroke-ready hospitals to each licensed emergency medical services agency in

this state and shall post a list of comprehensive and primary stroke centers and acute stroke-ready

hospitals on the division of emergency medical services website. For the purposes of this chapter,

the division of emergency medical services may include comprehensive and primary stroke

centers and acute stroke-ready hospitals in Massachusetts and Connecticut that are certified by

the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, or are otherwise designated by

that state's department of public health as meeting the criteria for comprehensive or primary stroke

centers and acute stroke-ready hospitals as established by the brain attack coalition;

     (d) Each emergency medical services provider must comply with all sections of this

chapter by June 1, 2010 2018.


 

 

215)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-78.1-6

201 and 303

 

 

23-78.1-6. Continuous improvement of quality of care for individuals with stroke.

     (a) The department of health shall establish and implement a plan for achieving

continuous quality improvement in the quality of care provided under the statewide system for

stroke response and treatment. In implementing this plan, the department of health shall

undertake the following activities:

     (1) Develop incentives and provide assistance for sharing information and data among

health care providers on ways to improve the quality of care;

     (2) Facilitate the communication and analysis of health information and data among the

health care professionals providing care for individuals with stroke;

     (3) Require the application of evidence-based treatment guidelines regarding the

transitioning of patients to community-based follow-up care in hospital outpatient, physician

office, and ambulatory clinic settings for ongoing care after hospital discharge following acute

treatment for a stroke;

     (4) Require comprehensive and primary stroke center hospitals and acute stroke-ready

hospitals and emergency medical services agencies to report data consistent with nationally

recognized guidelines on the treatment of individuals with confirmed stroke within the statewide

system for stroke response and treatment;

     (5) Analyze data generated by the statewide system on stroke response and treatment; and

     (6) The department of health shall maintain a statewide stroke database that compiles

information and statistics on stroke care that align with the stroke consensus metrics developed

and approved by the American Heart Association/American Stroke Association, Centers for

Disease Control and Prevention, and the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations.

The department of health shall utilize Get With The Guidelines Stroke as the stroke registry data

platform or another nationally recognized data set platform with confidentiality standards no less secure

To every extent possible, the department of health shall coordinate with national voluntary health

Organizations involved  in stroke quality improvement to avoid duplication and redundancy. The department of

health shall establish reporting requirements and specifications to ensure the uniformity and

integrity of data submitted to the statewide database/registry.

     (b) Except to the extent necessary to address continuity of care issues, health care

information shall not be provided in a format that contains individually identifiable information

about a patient. The sharing of health care information containing individually identifiable

information about patients shall be limited to that information necessary to address continuity of

care issues, and shall otherwise be released in accordance with chapter 37.3 of title 5 and subject

to the confidentiality provisions required by that chapter and by other relevant state and federal

law.

     (c) Annual reports. On June 1 after enactment of this chapter and annually thereafter, the

department of health and the Rhode Island stroke task force shall report to the general assembly

on statewide progress toward improving quality of care and patient outcomes under the statewide

system for stroke response and treatment.


 

 

 

 

216)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

23-94

186 and 328

 

 

CHAPTER 94

PREVENTION OF CONVERSION THERAPY FOR CHILDREN


 

 

217)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

25-2-20

305 and 315

 

 

25-2-20. Viet Nam Veterans' Day.

The fifteenth twenty-ninth day of May March shall annually be set aside as a day to be

known as "Viet Nam Veterans' Day." The day is to be observed by the people of this state with

appropriate exercises in public places.


 

 

218)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

25-2-58

396 and 429

 

 

25-2-58. "The Rhode Island Nine Beirut Marines" Observance Day.

The twenty-third day of October in each and every year shall be set aside as a day

dedicated to the memory of the "Rhode Island Nine Beirut Marines" who lost their lives in the

1983 terrorist bombing attack on a marine compound in Beirut, Lebanon, that killed two hundred

forty-one (241) American service personnel. The day shall be observed by the people of this state

with appropriate exercises in public places and the governor may issue an annual proclamation

honoring the memory of the nine marines from Rhode Island who made the ultimate sacrifice.


 

 

219)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-1.1-1

389 and 434

 

 

27-1.1-1. Credit allowed a domestic ceding insurer.

     (a) Credit for reinsurance shall be allowed a domestic ceding insurer as either an asset or

a reduction from liability on account of reinsurance ceded only when the reinsurer meets the

requirements of subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section; provided, further, that the

commissioner may adopt by regulation pursuant to §27-1.1-4 specific additional requirements

relating to or setting forth:

     (1) The valuation of assets or reserve credits;

     (2) The amount and forms of security supporting reinsurance arrangements described in

§27-1.1-4; and

     (3) The circumstances pursuant to which credit will be reduced or eliminated.

     Credit shall be allowed under subsections (b), (c), or (d) of this section only as respects

cessions of those kinds or classes of business which the assuming insurer is licensed or otherwise

permitted to write or assume in its state of domicile or, in the case of a U.S. branch of an alien

assuming insurer, in the state through which that which it is entered and licensed to transact insurance

or reinsurance. Credit shall be allowed under subsections (d) or (e) of this section only if the

applicable requirements of subsection (h) of this section have been satisfied.

     (b) Credit shall be allowed when the reinsurance is ceded to an assuming insurer that is

licensed to transact insurance or reinsurance in this state.

     (c) Credit shall be allowed when the reinsurance is ceded to an assuming insurer that is

accredited by the commissioner as a reinsurer in this state. In order to be eligible for an

accreditation a reinsurer must:

     (1) File with the commissioner evidence of its submission to this state's jurisdiction;

     (2) Submit to this state's authority to examine its books and records;

     (3) Be licensed to transact insurance or reinsurance in at least one state, or in the case of a

United States branch of an alien assuming insurer, be entered through and licensed to transact

insurance or reinsurance in at least one state;

     (4) Annually file with the commissioner a copy of its annual statement filed with the

insurance department of its state of domicile and a copy of its most recent audited financial

statement,; and:

     (5) Demonstrate to the satisfaction of the commissioner that it has adequate financial

capacity to meet its reinsurance obligations and is otherwise qualified to assume reinsurance from

domestic insurers. An assuming insurer is deemed to meet this requirement as of the time of its

application if it maintains a surplus as regards policyholders in an amount not less than twenty

million dollars ($20,000,000), and its accreditation has not been denied by the commissioner

within ninety (90) days after submission of its application.

     (d) (1) Credit shall be allowed when the reinsurance is ceded to an assuming insurer that

is domiciled in, or in the case of a United States branch of an alien assuming insurer, is entered

through, a state that employs standards regarding credit for reinsurance substantially similar to

those applicable under this statute, and the assuming insurer or U.S. branch of an alien assuming

insurer:

     (i) Maintains a surplus regarding policyholders in an amount not less than twenty million

dollars ($20,000,000); and

     (ii) Submits to the authority of this state to examine its books and records;.

     (2) Provided, that the requirement of subsection (d)(1)(i) of this section does not apply to

reinsurance ceded and assumed pursuant to pooling arrangements among insurers in the same

holding company system.

     (e) (1) Credit shall be allowed when the reinsurance is ceded to an assuming insurer that

maintains a trust fund in a qualified United States financial institution, as defined in section§ 27-

1.1-3(b), for the payment of the valid claims of its United States ceding insurers, their assigns,

and successors in interest. To enable the commissioner to determine the sufficiency of the trust

fund, the assuming insurer shall report annually to the commissioner information substantially the

same as that required to be reported on the National Association of Insurance Commissioners

(NAIC) annual statement form by licensed insurers. The assuming insurer shall submit to

examination of its books and records by the commissioner, and bear the expense of examination.

     (2) (i) Credit for reinsurance shall not be granted under this subsection unless the form of

the trust and any amendments to the trust have been approved by:

     (A) The commissioner of the state where the trust is domiciled; or

     (B) The commissioner of another state who, pursuant to the terms of the trust instrument,

has accepted principal regulatory oversight of the trust.

     (ii) The form of the trust and any trust amendments shall also be filed with the

commissioner of every state in which the ceding insurer beneficiaries of the trust are domiciled.

The trust instrument shall provide that contested claims shall be valid and enforceable upon the

final order of any court of competent jurisdiction in the United States. The trust shall vest legal

title to its assets in its trustees for the benefit of the assuming insurer's U.S. ceding insurers, their

assigns, and successors in interest. The trust and the assuming insurer shall be subject to

examination as determined by the commissioner.; and

     (iii) The trust shall remain in effect for as long as the assuming insurer has outstanding

obligations due under the reinsurance agreements subject to the trust. No later than February 28

of each year the trustee of the trust shall report to the commissioner in writing the balance of the

trust and listing the trust's investments at the preceding year end and shall certify the date of

termination of the trust, if so planned, or certify that the trust will not expire prior to the following

December 31.

     (3) The following requirements apply to the following categories of assuming insurer:

     (i) The trust fund for a single assuming insurer shall consist of funds in trust in an amount

not less than the assuming insurer's liabilities attributable to reinsurance ceded by U.S. ceding

insurers, and, in addition, the assuming insurer shall maintain a trusteed surplus of not less than

twenty million dollars ($20,000,000), except as provided in paragraph (3)(ii) below subsection

(e)(3)(iii);.(3ii);

     (ii) At any time after the assuming insurer has permanently discontinued underwriting

new business secured by the trust for at least three (3) full years, the commissioner with principal

regulatory oversight of the trust may authorize a reduction in the required trusteed surplus, but

only after a finding, based on an assessment of the risk, that the new required surplus level is

adequate for the protection of U.S. ceding insurers, policyholders, and claimants in light of

reasonably foreseeable adverse loss development. The risk assessment may involve an actuarial

review, including an independent analysis of reserves and cash flows, and shall consider all

material risk factors, including, when applicable, the lines of business involved,; the stability of

the incurred loss estimates; and the effect of the surplus requirements on the assuming insurer's

liquidity or solvency. The minimum required trusteed surplus may not be reduced to an amount

less than thirty percent (30%) of the assuming insurer's liabilities attributable to reinsurance ceded

by U.S. ceding insurers covered by the trust.; and .

     (iii) (A) In the case of a group including incorporated and individual unincorporated

underwriters:

     (B) For reinsurance ceded under reinsurance agreements with an inception, amendment

or renewal date on or after January 1, 1993, the trust shall consist of a trusteed account in an

amount not less than the respective underwriters' several liabilities attributable to business ceded

by U.S. domiciled ceding insurers to any underwriter of the group;

     (C) For reinsurance ceded under reinsurance agreements with an inception date on or

before December 31, 1992, and not amended or renewed after that date, not-withstanding

notwithstanding the other provisions of this chapter, the trust shall consist of a trusteed account

in an amount not less than the respective underwriters' several insurance and reinsurance

liabilities attributable to business written in the United States;

     (D) In addition to these trusts, the group shall maintain in trust a trusteed surplus of

which one hundred million dollars ($100,000,000) shall be held jointly for the benefit of the U.S.

domiciled ceding insurers of any member of the group for all years of account; and

     (E) The incorporated members of the group shall not be engaged in any business other

than underwriting as a member of the group and shall be subject to the same level of regulation

and solvency control by the group's domiciliary regulator as are the unincorporated members.;

and

     (I)(F) Within ninety (90) days after its financial statements are due to be filed with the

group's domiciliary regulator, the group shall provide to the commissioner an annual certification

by the group's domiciliary regulator of the solvency of each underwriter member; or if a

certification is unavailable, financial statements, prepared by independent public accountants, of

each underwriter member of the group; and

     (iv) In the case of a group of incorporated underwriters under common administration the

group shall:

     (A) Have continuously transacted an insurance business outside the United States for at

least three (3) years immediately prior to making application for accreditation,;

     (B) Maintain an aggregate policyholders surplus of ten billion dollars ($10,000,000,000).;

     (C) Maintain a trust fund in an amount not less than the group's several liabilities

attributable to business ceded by United States domiciled ceding insurers to any member of the

group pursuant to reinsurance contracts issued in the name of the group.;

     (D) In addition, maintain a joint trusted surplus of which one hundred million dollars

($100,000,000) shall be held jointly for the benefit of U.S. domiciled ceding insurers of any

member of the group as additional security for these liabilities,; and

     (E) Within ninety (90) days after its financial statements are due to be filed with the

group's domiciliary regulator, make available to the commissioner an annual certification of each

underwriter member's solvency by the member's domiciliary regulator, and financial statements

of each underwriter member of the group prepared by its independent public accountant;.

     (f) Credit shall be allowed when the reinsurance is ceded to an assuming insurer that has

been certified by the commissioner as a reinsurer in this state and secures its obligations in

accordance with the requirements of this subsection.

     (1) In order to be eligible for certification, the assuming insurer shall meet the following

requirements:

     (i) The assuming insurer must be domiciled and licensed to transact insurance or

reinsurance in a qualified jurisdiction, as determined by the commissioner pursuant to paragraph

(f)(iii) of this subsection;

     (ii) The assuming insurer must maintain minimum capital and surplus, or its equivalent,

in an amount to be determined by the commissioner pursuant to regulation;

     (iii) The assuming insurer must maintain financial strength ratings from two or more

rating agencies deemed acceptable by the commissioner pursuant to regulation;

     (iv) The assuming insurer must agree to submit to the jurisdiction of this state, appoint

the commissioner as its agent for service of process in this state, and agree to provide security for

one hundred percent (100%) of the assuming insurer's liabilities attributable to reinsurance ceded

by U.S. ceding insurers if it resists enforcement of a final U.S. judgment;

     (v) The assuming insurer must agree to meet applicable information filing requirements

as determined by the commissioner, both with respect to an initial application for certification and

on an ongoing basis; and

     (vi) The assuming insurer must satisfy any other requirements for certification deemed

relevant by the commissioner.

     (2) An association including incorporated and individual unincorporated underwriters

may be a certified reinsurer. In order to be eligible for certification, in addition to satisfying

requirements of paragraph (i) above subsection (f)(1)(i) above:

     (i) The association shall satisfy its minimum capital and surplus requirements through the

capital and surplus equivalents (net of liabilities) of the association and its members, which shall

include a joint central fund that may be applied to any unsatisfied obligation of the association or

any of its members, in an amount determined by the commissioner to provide adequate

protection;

     (ii) The incorporated members of the association shall not be engaged in any business

other than underwriting as a member of the association and shall be subject to the same level of

regulation and solvency control by the association's domiciliary regulator as are the

unincorporated members; and

     (iii) Within ninety (90) days after its financial statements are due to be filed with the

association's domiciliary regulator, the association shall provide to the commissioner an annual

certification by the association's domiciliary regulator of the solvency of each underwriter

member; or if a certification is unavailable, financial statements, prepared by independent public

accountants, of each underwriter member of the association.

     (3) The commissioner shall create and publish a list of qualified jurisdictions, under

which an assuming insurer licensed and domiciled in such jurisdiction is eligible to be considered

for certification by the commissioner as a certified reinsurer.

     (i) In order to determine whether the domiciliary jurisdiction of a non-U.S. assuming

insurer is eligible to be recognized as a qualified jurisdiction, the commissioner shall evaluate the

appropriateness and effectiveness of the reinsurance supervisory system of the jurisdiction, both

initially and on an ongoing basis, and consider the rights, benefits, and the extent of reciprocal

recognition afforded by the non-U.S. jurisdiction to reinsurers licensed and domiciled in the U.S.

A qualified jurisdiction must agree to share information and cooperate with the commissioner

with respect to all certified reinsurers domiciled within that jurisdiction. A jurisdiction may not be

recognized as a qualified jurisdiction if the commissioner has determined that the jurisdiction

does not adequately and promptly enforce final U.S. judgments and arbitration awards.

Additional factors may be considered in the discretion of the commissioner.;

     (ii) A list of qualified jurisdictions shall be published through the NAIC committee

process. The commissioner shall consider this list in determining qualified jurisdictions. If the

commissioner approves a jurisdiction as qualified that does not appear on the list of qualified

jurisdictions, the commissioner shall provide thoroughly documented justification in accordance

with criteria to be developed under regulations.;

     (iii) U.S. jurisdictions that meet the requirement for accreditation under the NAIC

financial standards and accreditation program shall be recognized as qualified jurisdictions.; and

     (iv) If a certified reinsurer's domiciliary jurisdiction ceases to be a qualified jurisdiction,

the commissioner has the discretion to suspend the reinsurer's certification indefinitely, in lieu of

revocation.

     (4) The commissioner shall assign a rating to each certified reinsurer, giving due

consideration to the financial strength ratings that have been assigned by rating agencies deemed

acceptable to the commissioner pursuant to regulation. The commissioner shall publish a list of

all certified reinsurers and their ratings.; and.

     (5) A certified reinsurer shall secure obligations assumed from U.S. ceding insurers under

this subsection at a level consistent with its rating, as specified in regulations promulgated by the

commissioner.

     (i) In order for a domestic ceding insurer to qualify for full financial statement credit for

reinsurance ceded to a certified reinsurer, the certified reinsurer shall maintain security in a form

acceptable to the commissioner and consistent with the provisions of section 3 subsection (f)(3)

of this section, § 27-1.1-2, or in a multi-beneficiary trust in accordance with subsection (e) of this section,

except as otherwise provided in this subsection.;

     (ii) If a certified reinsurer maintains a trust to fully secure its obligations subject to

subsection (e) of this section, and chooses to secure its obligations incurred as a certified reinsurer

in the form of a multi-beneficiary trust, the certified reinsurer shall maintain separate trust

accounts for its obligations incurred under reinsurance agreements issued or renewed as a

certified reinsurer with reduced security as permitted by this subsection or comparable laws of

other U.S. jurisdictions and for its obligations subject to subsection (e) of this section. It shall be a

condition to the grant of certification under subsection (f) of this section that the certified

reinsurer shall have bound itself, by the language of the trust and agreement with the

commissioner with principal regulatory oversight of each such trust account, to fund, upon

termination of any such trust account, out of the remaining surplus of such trust any deficiency of

any other such trust account.;

     (iii) The minimum trusteed surplus requirements provided in subsection D are not

applicable with respect to a multi-beneficiary trust maintained by a certified reinsurer for the

purpose of securing obligations incurred under this subsection, except that such trust shall

maintain a minimum trusteed surplus of ten million dollars ($10,000,000).;

     (iv) With respect to obligations incurred by a certified reinsurer under this subsection, if

the security is insufficient, the commissioner shall reduce the allowable credit by an amount

proportionate to the deficiency, and has the discretion to impose further reductions in allowable

credit upon finding that there is a material risk that the certified reinsurer's obligations will not be

paid in full when due.; and

     (v) For purposes of this subsection, a certified reinsurer whose certification has been

terminated for any reason shall be treated as a certified reinsurer required to secure one hundred

percent (100%) of its obligations.

     (A) As used in this subsection, the term "terminated" refers to revocation, suspension,

voluntary surrender and inactive status.; and

     (B) If the commissioner continues to assign a higher rating as permitted by other

provisions of this section, this requirement does not apply to a certified reinsurer in inactive status

or to a reinsurer whose certification has been suspended.

     (6) If an applicant for certification has been certified as a reinsurer in an NAIC-accredited

jurisdiction, the commissioner has the discretion to defer to that jurisdiction's certification, and

has the discretion to defer to the rating assigned by that jurisdiction, and such assuming insurer

shall be considered to be a certified reinsurer in this state.

     (7) A certified reinsurer that ceases to assume new business in this state may request to

maintain its certification in inactive status in order to continue to qualify for a reduction in

security for its in-force business. An inactive certified reinsurer shall continue to comply with all

applicable requirements of this subsection, and the commissioner shall assign a rating that takes

into account, if relevant, the reasons why the reinsurer is not assuming new business.

     (g) Credit shall be allowed when the reinsurance is ceded to an assuming insurer not

meeting the requirements of subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of this section, but only as to the

insurance of risks located in jurisdictions where the reinsurance is required by applicable law or

regulation of that jurisdiction.

     (h) If the assuming insurer is not licensed, accredited, or certified to transact insurance or

reinsurance in this state, the credit permitted by subsections (d) and (e) of this section shall not be

allowed unless the assuming insurer agrees in the reinsurance agreements:

     (1) (i) That in the event of the failure of the assuming insurer to perform its obligations

under the terms of the reinsurance agreement, the assuming insurer, at the request of the ceding

insurer, shall submit to the jurisdiction of any court of competent jurisdiction in any state of the

United States, will comply with all requirements necessary to give the court jurisdiction, and will

abide by the final decision of the court or of any appellate court in the event of an appeal; and

     (ii) To designate the commissioner or a designated attorney as its true and lawful attorney

upon whom may be served any lawful process in any action, suit, or proceeding instituted by or

on behalf of the ceding insurer.

     (2) This subsection is not intended to conflict with or override the obligation of the

parties to a reinsurance agreement to arbitrate their disputes, if this obligation is created in the

agreement.

     (i) If the assuming insurer does not meet the requirements of subsections (b), (c), or (d),

the credit permitted by subsection (e) or (f) of this section shall not be allowed unless the

assuming insurer agrees in the trust agreements to the following conditions:

     (1) Notwithstanding any other provisions in the trust instrument, if the trust fund is

inadequate because it contains an amount less than the amount required by subsection (e)(iii) of

this section, or if the grantor of the trust has been declared insolvent or placed into receivership,

rehabilitation, liquidation, or similar proceedings under the laws of its state or country of

domicile, the trustee shall comply with an order of the commissioner with regulatory oversight

over the trust or with an order of a court of competent jurisdiction directing the trustee to transfer

to the commissioner with regulatory oversight all of the assets of the trust fund.;

     (2) The assets shall be distributed by and claims shall be filed with and valued by the

commissioner with regulatory oversight in accordance with the laws of the state in which the trust

is domiciled that are applicable to the liquidation of domestic insurance companies.;

     (3) If the commissioner with regulatory oversight determines that the assets of the trust

fund or any part thereof are not necessary to satisfy the claims of the U.S. ceding insurers of the

grantor of the trust, the assets or part thereof shall be returned by the commissioner with

regulatory oversight to the trustee for distribution in accordance with the trust agreement.; and

     (4) The grantor shall waive any right otherwise available to it under U.S. law that is

inconsistent with this provision.

     (j) If an accredited or certified reinsurer ceases to meet the requirements for accreditation

or certification, the commissioner may suspend or revoke the reinsurer's accreditation or

certification.

     (1) The commissioner must give the reinsurer notice and opportunity for hearing. The

suspension or revocation may not take effect until after the commissioner's order on hearing,

unless:

     (i) The reinsurer waives its right to hearing;

     (ii) The commissioner's order is based on regulatory action by the reinsurer's domiciliary

jurisdiction or the voluntary surrender or termination of the reinsurer's eligibility to transact

insurance or reinsurance business in its domiciliary jurisdiction or in the primary certifying state

of the reinsurer under subparagraph (f)(vi) of this section; or

     (iii) The commissioner finds that an emergency requires immediate action and a court of

competent jurisdiction has not stayed the commissioner's action.

     (A) While a reinsurer's accreditation or certification is suspended, no reinsurance contract

issued or renewed after the effective date of the suspension qualifies for credit except to the

extent that the reinsurer's obligations under the contract are secured in accordance with Section 3.

If a reinsurer's accreditation or certification is revoked, no credit for reinsurance may be granted

after the effective date of the revocation except to the extent that the reinsurer's obligations under

the contract are secured in accordance with subsection (f)(v) or section 3.

     (k) Concentration Risk.

     (1) A ceding insurer shall take steps to manage its reinsurance recoverables proportionate

to its own book of business. A domestic ceding insurer shall notify the commissioner within

thirty (30) days after reinsurance recoverables from any single assuming insurer, or group of

affiliated assuming insurers, exceeds fifty percent (50%) of the domestic ceding insurer's last

reported surplus to policyholders, or after it is determined that reinsurance recoverables from any

single assuming insurer, or group of affiliated assuming insurers, is likely to exceed this limit.

The notification shall demonstrate that the exposure is safely managed by the domestic ceding

insurer.

     (2) A ceding insurer shall take steps to diversify its reinsurance program. A domestic

ceding insurer shall notify the commissioner within thirty (30) days after ceding to any single

assuming insurer, or group of affiliated assuming insurers, more than twenty percent (20%) of the

ceding insurer's gross written premium in the prior calendar year, or after it has determined that

the reinsurance ceded to any single assuming insurer, or group of affiliated assuming insurers, is

likely to exceed this limit. The notification shall demonstrate that the exposure is safely managed

by the domestic ceding insurer.


 

 

220)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-1.1-2

389 and 434

 

 

27-1.1-2. Asset or reduction from liability for reinsurance ceded by a domestic

insurer to an assuming insurer not meeting the requirements of 27-1.1-1.

An asset or a reduction from liability for the reinsurance ceded by a domestic insurer to

an assuming insurer not meeting the requirements of § 27-1.1-1 shall be allowed in an amount not

exceeding the liabilities carried by the ceding insurer; provided, further, that the commissioner

may adopt by regulation pursuant to §27-1.1-4 specific additional requirements relating to or

setting forth:

     (1) The valuation of assets or reserve credits;

     (2) The amount and forms of security supporting reinsurance arrangements described in

§27-1.1-4; and

     (3) The circumstances pursuant to which credit will be reduced or eliminated.

The reduction shall be in the amount of funds held by or on behalf of the ceding insurer, including

funds held in trust for the ceding insurer, under a reinsurance contract with the assuming insurer

as security for the payment of obligations thereunder, if the security is held in the United States

subject to withdrawal solely by, and under the exclusive control of, the ceding insurer, or, in the

case of a trust, held in a qualified United States financial institution as defined in § 27-1.1-3(b).

This security may be in the form of:

     (1) Cash;

     (2) Securities listed by the securities valuation office of the National Association of

Insurance Commissioners, including those deemed exempt from filing as defined by the Purposes

and Procedures Manual of the Securities Valuation Office, and qualifying as admitted assets;

     (3) (i) Clean, irrevocable, unconditional letters of credit, issued or confirmed by a

qualified United States financial institution as defined in § 27-1.1-3(a), no later than December

31st of the year for which the filing is being made, and in the possession of, or in trust for, the

ceding insurer on or before the filing date of its annual statement.

     (ii) Letters of credit meeting applicable standards of issuer acceptability as of the dates of

their issuance or confirmation shall, notwithstanding the issuing or confirming institution's

subsequent failure to meet applicable standards of issuer acceptability, continue to be acceptable

as security until their expiration, extension, renewal, modification, or amendment, whichever first

occurs; or

     (4) Any other form of security acceptable to the commissioner.


 

 

 

 

 

221)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-1.1-4

389 and 434

 

 

27-1.1-4. Rules and regulations.

     (a) The commissioner may adopt reasonable rules and regulations implementing the

provisions of this law.

     (b) The commissioner is further authorized to adopt rules and regulations applicable to

reinsurance arrangements described in subsection (b)(1) below of this section.

     (1) A regulation adopted pursuant to this section may apply only to reinsurance relating

to:

     (i) Life insurance policies with guaranteed nonlevel gross premiums or guaranteed

nonlevel benefits;

     (ii) Universal life insurance policies with provisions resulting in the ability of a

policyholder to keep a policy in force over a secondary guarantee period;

     (iii) Variable annuities with guaranteed death or living benefits;

     (iv) Long-term insurance - care insurance policies; or

     (v) Other life and health insurance and annuity products as to which the NAIC adopts

model regulatory requirements with respect to credit for reinsurance.

     (2) A regulation adopted pursuant to subsection (b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii) of this section, may

apply to any treaty containing:

     (i) Policies issued on or after January 1, 2015; and

     (ii) Policies issued prior to January 1, 2015, if risk pertaining to the pre-2015 policies is

ceded in connection with the treaty, in whole or in part, on or after January 1, 2015.

     (3) A regulation adopted pursuant to §27-1.1-4(b) subsection (b) of this section may

require the ceding insurer, in calculating the amounts or forms of security required to be held

under regulations promulgated under this authority, to use the Valuation Manual adopted by the

NAIC under Section 11B(1) of the NAIC Standard Valuation Law, including all amendments

adopted by the NAIC and in effect on the date as which the calculation is made, to the extent

applicable.

     (4) A regulation adopted pursuant to §27-1.1-4(b) subsection (b) of this section shall not

apply to cessions to an assuming insurer that:

     (i) Is certified in this state; or

     (ii) Maintains at least two hundred fifty million dollars ($250,000,000) in capital and

surplus when determined in accordance with the NAIC Accounting Practices and Procedures

Manual, including all amendments thereto adopted by the NAIC, excluding the impact of any

permitted or prescribed practices; and is:

     (A) Licensed in at least twenty-six (26) states; or

     (B) Licensed in at least ten (10) states, and licensed or accredited in a total of at least

thirty-five (35) states.

     (5) The authority to adopt regulations pursuant to §27-1.1-4(b) subsection (b) of this

section does not limit the commissioner's general authority to adopt regulations pursuant to §27-

1.1-4(a) subsection (a) of this section.


 

 

222)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-2-14

196 and 322

 

 

27-2-14. Forwarding of process by commissioner.

     (a) Whenever lawful process against a foreign insurance company shall be served upon

the insurance commissioner, the commissioner shall forward a copy of the process served on him

or her, by mail, postpaid, and directed to the person appointed by the insurance company to

accept service of process on behalf of the company. The manner of forwarding shall be at the

discretion of the insurance commissioner.

     (b) Service upon the insurance commissioner shall be accomplished by regular mail or by

whatever alternative method is designated by the commissioner.

     (c) For each copy of process the insurance commissioner shall collect, for the use of the

state, the sum of twenty-five dollars ($25.00), which shall be paid by the plaintiff at the time of

the service; the fee is to be recovered by the plaintiff as part of the taxable costs, if he or she

prevails in the suit.


 

 

223)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

 27-3.2-5

196 and 322

 

 

27-3.2-5. [Repeal]


 

 

224)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-9-4

196 and 322

 

 

27-9-4. Considerations in making of rates -- Cancellation of policy.

     (a) All rates shall be made in accordance with the following provisions:

     (1) (i) Due consideration shall be given to past and prospective loss experience within

and outside this state, to catastrophe hazards, if any, to a reasonable margin for underwriting

profit and contingencies, to dividends, savings, or unabsorbed premium deposits allowed or

returned by insurers to their policyholders, members, or subscribers, to past and prospective

expenses both country wide countrywide and those specially applicable to this state, and to all

other relevant factors within and outside this state; provided, that no consideration shall be given

to:

     (A) Any loss or incident involving a bus driver, while in the course of his or her

employment for the Rhode Island public transit authority or private or municipal school bus

companies, in establishing or maintaining that driver's rate respecting the operation of a personal

motor vehicle or vehicles;

     (B) Any loss or incident involving a law enforcement officer, while in the course of his or

her employment for the state, city, town police departments, or federal law enforcement agency,

in establishing or maintaining that driver's rate respecting the operation of a personal motor

vehicle or vehicles; and

     (C) Any loss or incident involving a commercial vehicle driver, while in the course of his

or her employment, in establishing or maintaining that driver's rate respecting the operation of a

personal motor vehicle(s);

     (ii) It shall be the responsibility of a commercial vehicle driver to provide his or her

insurance company with proof that the loss or incident took place in the course of employment

while operating a commercial vehicle. For the purposes of this section, a "commercial vehicle"

shall be a motor vehicle with a gross weight in excess of ten thousand (10,000) pounds or a motor

vehicle used for public livery;

     (2) The systems of expense provisions included in the rates for use by any insurer or

group insurers may differ from those of other insurers or groups of insurers to reflect the

requirements of the operating methods of any insurer or group with respect to any kind of

insurance, or with respect to any subdivision or combination of insurance for which subdivision

or combination separate expense provisions are applicable;

     (3) Risks may be grouped by classifications for the establishment of rates and minimum

premiums;

     (4) Rates shall not be excessive, inadequate, or unfairly discriminatory; and

     (5) In establishing or maintaining an insured's rate or classification respecting the

operation of a personal motor vehicle, any insured sixty-five (65) years of age or older, who

meets the criteria set forth in this section and has not had any chargeable accidents or moving

violations within three (3) years preceding the establishment of the rate of insurance or

classification, shall not be penalized solely by reason of their his or her age.

     (b) No insurance company shall fail to renew a private passenger automobile policy

because of a loss of occurrence only, unless a chargeable loss occurrence of one thousand five

hundred dollars ($1,500) or more than two (2) nonchargeable loss occurrences, involving the

insured, have taken place within the annual policy year.

     (c) (1) No insurance company shall fail to renew a private passenger automobile policy

solely because the insured has attained the age of sixty-five (65) years or older;

     (2) Whenever the commissioner of insurance shall have reason to believe that any

insurance company has refused to renew a private passenger automobile policy solely because the

applicant has reached the age of sixty-five (65) years or older, the commissioner shall notify the

company that it may be in violation of this section and in his or her discretion he or she may

require a hearing to determine whether or not the company has actually been engaged in the

practice stated in this subsection. Any hearing held under this section shall in all respects comply

with the hearing procedure provided in the Administrative Procedures Act, chapter 35 of title 42;

     (3) If after the hearing the commissioner shall determine that the company has engaged in

the practice of systematically failing to renew private passenger automobile policies because of

the advanced age of the insured, he or she shall reduce his or her findings to writing and shall

issue and cause to be served upon the company an order to cease and desist from engaging in

those practices. After the issuance of the cease and desist order, if the commissioner finds that the

company has continued to engage in those practices, he or she shall impose upon the company a

fine not to exceed the amount of one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each separate violation.

     (4) Any company aggrieved by any order or decision of the commissioner of insurance

may appeal the order and decision to the superior court of Providence in accordance with the

Administrative Procedures Act, chapter 35 of title 42.

     (d) No insurance group, carrier, or company in establishing any premium surcharge or

penalty relative to a specific motor vehicle policy, shall consider any accident or any claim where

any insured covered by that policy is fifty percent (50%) or less at fault.

     (e) No insurance group, carrier, or company shall assess any premium surcharge against

any insured covered by a motor vehicle policy where a property damage claim payment is less

than one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500).

     (f) No insurance group, carrier, or company shall refuse to issue motor vehicle liability

insurance, impose a surcharge, or otherwise increase the rate for a motor vehicle policy solely

because the applicant is a volunteer driver. Volunteer driver is defined as a person who provides

services without compensation to a nonprofit agency or charitable organization.


 

 

225)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

27-9-51

195 and 372

 

 

27-9-51. [Repeal]


 

 

226)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-9.1-4

196 and 322

 

 

27-9.1-4. "Unfair claims practices" defined.

     (a) Any of the following acts by an insurer, if committed in violation of § 27-9.1-3,

constitutes an unfair claims practice:

     (1) Misrepresenting to claimants and insured relevant facts or policy provisions relating

to coverage at issue;

     (2) Failing to acknowledge and act with reasonable promptness upon pertinent

communications with respect to claims arising under its policies;

     (3) Failing to adopt and implement reasonable standards for the prompt investigation and

settlement of claims arising under its policies;

     (4) Not attempting in good faith to effectuate prompt, fair, and equitable settlement of

claims submitted in which liability has become reasonably clear;

     (5) Compelling insured, beneficiaries, or claimants to institute suits to recover amounts

due under its policies by offering substantially less than the amounts ultimately recovered in suits

brought by them;

     (6) Refusing to pay claims without conducting a reasonable investigation;

     (7) Failing to affirm or deny coverage of claims within a reasonable time after having

completed its investigation related to the claim or claims;

     (8) Attempting to settle or settling claims for less than the amount that a reasonable

person would believe the insured or beneficiary was entitled by reference to written or printed

advertising material accompanying or made part of an application;

     (9) Attempting to settle or settling claims on the basis of an application that was

materially altered without notice to, or knowledge or consent of, the insured;

     (10) Making claims payments to an insured or beneficiary without indicating the

coverage under which each payment is being made;

     (11) Unreasonably delaying the investigation or payment of claims by requiring both a

formal proof of loss form and subsequent verification that would result in duplication of

information and verification appearing in the formal proof of loss form;

     (12) Failing in the case of claims denials or offers of compromise settlement to promptly

provide a reasonable and accurate explanation of the basis of those actions;

     (13) Failing to provide forms necessary to present claims within ten (10) calendar days of

a request with reasonable explanations regarding their use;

     (14) Failing to adopt and implement reasonable standards to assure that the repairs of a

repairer owned by or required to be used by the insurer are performed in a workmanlike manner;

     (15) Misleading a claimant as to the applicable statute of limitations;

     (16) Failing to respond to a claim within thirty (30) days, unless the insured shall agree to

a longer period;

     (17) Engaging in any act or practice of intimidation, coercion, threat, or

misrepresentation of consumers rights, for or against any insured person, claimant, or entity to

use a particular rental car company for motor vehicle replacement services or products; provided,

however, nothing shall prohibit any insurance company, agent, or adjuster from providing to such

insured person, claimant, or entity the names of a rental car company with which arrangements

have been made with respect to motor vehicle replacement services; provided, that the rental car

company is licensed pursuant to Rhode Island general laws § 31-5-33; or

     (18) Refusing to honor a "direction to pay" executed by an insured, claimant, indicating

that the insured or claimant, wishes to have the insurance company directly pay his or her motor

vehicle replacement vehicle rental benefit to the rental car company of the consumer's choice;

provided, that the rental car company is licensed pursuant to Rhode Island general laws § 31-5-

33. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent the insurance company's ability to

question or challenge the amount charged, in accordance with its policy provisions, and the

requirements of the department of business regulation;

     (19) Modifying any published manual (i.e. motors, mitchells, or any automated appraisal

system) relating to auto body repair without prior agreement between the parties;

     (20) Failing to use a manual or system in its entirety in the appraisal of a motor vehicle;

     (21) Refusing to compensate an auto body shop for documented charges as identified

through industry recognized software programs or systems for paint and refinishing materials in

auto body repair claims; and/or

     (22) Failing to comply with the requirements of Rhode Island General Laws § 31-47-

12.1.

     (23) Failure to have an appraisal performed by a licensed appraiser where the motor

vehicle has sustained damage estimated to exceed two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500).

Said licensed appraiser referred to herein must be unaffiliated with the repair facility repairing the

subject motor vehicle.

     (24) Failure to perform a supplemental appraisal inspection of a vehicle within four (4)

business days after a request is received from an auto body repair shop.

     (25) Designating a motor vehicle a total loss if the cost to rebuild or reconstruct the motor

vehicle to its pre-accident condition is less than seventy-five percent (75%) of the "fair-market

value" of the motor vehicle immediately preceding the time it was damaged:

     (i) For the purposes of this subdivision, "fair-market value" means the retail value of a

motor vehicle as set forth in a current edition of a nationally recognized compilation of retail

values commonly used by the automotive industry to establish values of motor vehicles;

     (ii) Nothing herein shall be construed to require a vehicle be deemed a total loss if the

total cost to rebuild or reconstruct the motor vehicle to its pre-accident condition is greater than

seventy- five percent (75%) of the fair-market value of the motor vehicle immediately preceding

the time it was damaged; and

     (iii) Nothing herein shall prohibit an insurance company from agreeing to deem a vehicle

a total loss at the vehicle owner's request and with the vehicle owner's express written

authorization, if the cost to rebuild or reconstruct the motor vehicle to its pre-accident condition is

less than seventy-five percent (75%) of the "fair-market value" of the motor vehicle immediately

preceding the time it was damaged.

      (26) Negotiating, or effecting the settlement of, a claim for loss or damage covered

by an insurance contract with an unlicensed public adjuster acting on behalf of an insured.

Nothing contained in this section shall be construed to preclude an insurer from dealing

with any individual or entity that is not required to be licensed under chapter 10 of title 27.

     (b) (1) Nothing contained in subsections 27-9.1-4(a)(19), (a)(20), & (21) and (a)(21) of

this chapter section shall be construed to interfere with an auto body repair facility's contract with

an insurance company.

     (2) If an insurance company and auto body repair facility have contracted under a direct

repair program or any similar program thereto the provisions of subsections 27-9.1-4(a)(19), (20)

& (21) (a)(19),(a)(20), and (a)(21) of this section shall not apply.

     (3) If the insured or claimant elects to have the vehicle repaired at a shop of his or her

choice, the insurer shall not limit or discount the reasonable repair costs based upon the charges

that would have been incurred had the vehicle been repaired by the insurer's chosen shop(s).

     (26) Negotiating, or effecting the settlement of, a claim for loss or damage covered by an

insurance contract with an unlicensed public adjuster acting on behalf of an insured. Nothing

contained in this section shall be construed to preclude an insurer from dealing with any

individual or entity that is not required to be licensed under chapter 10 of title 27.


 

 

227)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-18-19

196 and 322

 

 

27-18-19. Insurance exempt from chapter.

Nothing in the chapter shall apply to or affect:

     (1) Any policy of workers' compensation insurance or any policy of liability insurance

with or without supplementary expense coverage in the policy;

     (2) Any policy or contract of reinsurance; or

     (3) Any blanket or group policy of insurance; or

     (4) Life insurance, endowment, or annuity contracts, or contracts supplemental to those

contracts, which contain only those provisions relating to accident and sickness insurance as: (i)

pProvide additional benefits in case of death or dismemberment or loss of sight by accident, or

(ii) oOperate to safeguard those contracts against lapse, or to give a special surrender value or

special benefit or an annuity in the event that the insured or annuitant shall become totally and

permanently disabled, as defined by the contract or supplemental contract.


 

 

 

 

 

228)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-18-25

165 and 314

 

 

27-18-25. Unfair discrimination prohibited.

Notwithstanding any provision of any policy of insurance, certificate, or service contract

issued in this state, whenever the insurance policy, certificate, or service contract provides for

reimbursement for any services which that may be legally performed by any person licensed

under the provisions of chapters 29, 30, 35 and 37 of title 5, reimbursement under the insurance

policy, certificate, or service contract shall be based upon a determination of medical necessity

and shall not be denied because of race, color, or creed, nor shall any insurer make or permit any

unfair discrimination against particular individuals or persons licensed under chapters 29, 30, 35

and 37 of title 5.


 

 

229)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-18-50

274 and 361

 

 

27-18-50. Drug coverage. [Effective January 1, 2017.]

     (a) Any accident and sickness insurer that utilizes a formulary of medications for which

coverage is provided under an individual or group-plan, master contract shall require any

physician or other person authorized by the department of health to prescribe medication to

prescribe from the formulary. A physician or other person authorized by the department of health

to prescribe medication shall be allowed to prescribe medications previously on, or not on, the

accident and sickness insurer's formulary if he or she believes that the prescription of the non-

formulary medication is medically necessary. An accident and sickness insurer shall be required

to provide coverage for a non-formulary medication only when the non-formulary medication

meets the accident and sickness insurer's medical-exception criteria for the coverage of that

medication.

     (b) An accident and sickness insurer's medical exception criteria for the coverage of non-

formulary medications shall be developed in accordance with § 23-17.13-3(c)(3).

     (c) Any subscriber who is aggrieved by a denial of benefits to be provided under this

section may appeal the denial in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by the

department of health pursuant to chapter 17.12 of title 23.

     (d) Prior to removing a prescription drug from its plan's formulary or making any change

in the preferred or tiered, cost-sharing status of a covered prescription drug, an accident and

sickness insurer must provide at least thirty (30) days' notice to authorized prescribers by

established communication methods of policy and program updates and by updating available

references on web-based publications. All adversely affected members must be provided at least

thirty (30) days' notice prior to the date such change becomes effective by a direct notification:

     (i) The written or electronic notice must contain the following information:

     (A) The name of the affected prescription drug;

     (B) Whether the plan is removing the prescription drug from the formulary, or changing

its preferred or tiered, cost-sharing status; and

     (C) The means by which subscribers may obtain a coverage determination or medical

exception, in the case of drugs that will require prior authorization or are formulary exclusions

respectively.

     (ii) An accident and sickness insurer may immediately remove from its plan formularies

covered prescription drugs deemed unsafe by the accident and sickness insurer or the Food and

Drug Administration, or removed from the market by their manufacturer, without meeting the

requirements of this section.

     (e) This section shall not apply to insurance coverage providing benefits for: (1)

hHospital confinement indemnity; (2) dDisability income; (3) aAccident only; (4) lLong-term

care; (5) Medicare supplement; (6) lLimited-benefit health; (7) sSpecified-disease indemnity; (8)

sSickness or bodily injury or death by accident or both; or (9) oOther limited-benefit policies.


 

 

230)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-18-65

368 and 375

 

 

27-18-65. Post-payment audits.

     (a) Except as otherwise provided herein, any review, audit, or investigation by a health

insurer or health plan of a health-care provider's claims that results in the recoupment or set-off of

funds previously paid to the health-care provider in respect to such claims shall be completed no

later than eighteen (18) months after the completed claims were initially paid. This section shall

not restrict any review, audit, or investigation regarding claims that are submitted fraudulently;

are subject to a pattern of inappropriate billing known, or should have been known, by the health

care provider to be a pattern of inappropriate billing according to the standards for provider

billing of their respective medical or dental specialties; are related to coordination of benefits; are

duplicate claims; or are subject to any federal law or regulation that permits claims review

beyond the period provided herein.

     (b) No health-care provider shall seek reimbursement from a payer for underpayment of a

claim later than eighteen (18) months from the date the first payment on the claim was made,

except if the claim is the subject of an appeal properly submitted pursuant to the payer's claims

appeal policies or the claim is subject to continual claims submission.

     (c) For the purposes of this section, "health care provider" means an individual clinician,

either in practice independently, or in a group, who provides health-care services, and any health-

care facility, as defined in § 27-18-1.1, including any mental health and/or substance abuse

treatment facility, physician, or other licensed practitioner as identified to the review agent as

having primary responsibility for the care, treatment, and services rendered to a patient.

     (d) Except for those contracts where the health insurer or plan has the right to unilaterally

amend the terms of the contract, the parties shall be able to negotiate contract terms that allow for

different time frames than is prescribed herein.


 

 

231)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-18-67

196 and 322

 

 

27-18-67. Reimbursement for orthotic and prosthetic services.

     (a) As used in this section:

     (1) "Federal reimbursement rates" means the current listed fee schedule from the Centers

for Medicare and Medicaid Services, listing the current Healthcare Common Procedure Coding

system (HCPCS) and the corresponding reimbursement rates.

     (2) "Orthosis" means a custom fabricated brace or support that is designed based on

medical necessity. Orthosis does not include prefabricated or direct-formed orthotic devices, as

defined in this section, or any of the following assistive technology devices: commercially

available knee orthoses used following injury or surgery; spastic muscle-tone inhibiting orthoses;

upper extremity adaptive equipment; finger splints; hand splints; wrist gauntlets; face masks used

following burns; wheelchair seating that is an integral part of the wheelchair and not worn by the

patient independent of the wheelchair; fabric or elastic supports; corsets; low-temperature formed

plastic splints; trusses; elastic hose; canes; crutches; cervical collars; dental appliances; and other

similar devices as determined by the director of the department of health, such as those

commonly carried in stock by a pharmacy, department store, corset shop, or surgical supply

facility.

     (3) "Orthotics" means the science and practice of evaluating measuring, designing,

fabricating, assembling, fitting, adjusting or servicing, as well as providing the initial training

necessary to accomplish the fitting of, an orthosis for the support, correction, or alleviation of

neuromuscular or musculoskeletal dysfunction, disease, injury, or deformity. The practice of

orthotics encompasses evaluation, treatment, and consultation; with basic observational gait and

postural analysis, orthotists assess and design orthoses to maximize function and provide not only

the support but the alignment necessary to either prevent or correct a deformity or to improve the

safety and efficiency of mobility or locomotion or both. Orthotic practice includes providing

continuing patient care in order to assess its effect on the patient's tissues and to assure proper fit

and function of the orthotic device by periodic evaluation.

     (4) "Prosthesis" means an artificial limb that is alignable or, in lower-extremity

applications capable of weight bearing. Prosthesis means an artificial medical device that is not

surgically implanted and that is used to replace a missing limb, appendage, or other external

human body part including an artificial limb, hand, or foot. The term does not include artificial

eyes, ears, noses, dental appliances, osotmy products, or devices such as eyelashes or wigs.

     (5) "Prosthetics" means the science and practice of evaluation, measuring, designing,

fabricating, assembling, fitting, aligning, adjusting or servicing, as well as providing the initial

training necessary to accomplish the fitting of, a prosthesis through the replacement of external

parts of a human body lost due to amputation or congenital deformities or absences. The practice

of prosthetics also includes the generation of an image, form, or mold that replicates the patient's

body or body segment and that requires rectification of dimensions, contours and volumes for use

in the design and fabrication of a socket to accept a residual anatomic limb to, in turn, create an

artificial appendage that is designed either to support body weight or to improve or restore

function or cosmesis, or both. Involved in the practice of prosthetics is observational gait analysis

and clinical assessment of the requirements necessary to refine and mechanically fix the relative

position of various parts of the prosthesis to maximize function, stability, and safety of the

patient. The practice of prosthetics includes providing and continuing patient care in order to

assess the prosthetic device's effect on the patient's tissues and to assure proper fit and function of

the prosthetic device by periodic evaluation.

     (6) "Private insurance company" means any insurance company, or management

company hired by an insurance company, who that is any of the following:

     (i) bBased in the state of Rhode Island; or

     (ii) pProvides coverage for citizens for the state of Rhode Island; or

     (iii) aAllows subscribing patients to seek prosthetic or orthotic services in the state of

Rhode Island.

     (b) Every individual or group health insurance contract, plan or policy delivered, issued

for delivery, or renewed in this state on or after January 1, 2006, which that provides medical

coverage that includes coverage for physician services in a physician's office and every policy,

which that provides major medical or similar comprehensive type coverage shall provide

coverage for benefits for orthotic and prosthetic devices that equal those benefits provided for

under federal laws for health insurance for the aged and disabled pursuant to 42 U.S.C. sections

1395K, 13951 and 1395M and 42 CFR 414.202, 414.210, 414.228, and 410.100 as applicable to

this section.

     (c) A health insurance contract, plan, or policy may require prior authorization for

orthotic and prosthetic devices in the same manner that prior authorization is required for any

other covered benefit.

     (d) Covered benefits for orthotic or prosthetic devices shall be limited to the most

appropriate model that adequately meets the medical needs of the patient as determined by the

insured's treating physician.

     (e) The repair and replacement of orthotic or prosthetic devices also shall be covered

subject to co-payments and deductibles, unless necessitated by misuse or loss.

     (f) An insurer may require, if coverage is provided through a managed care plan, that

benefits mandated pursuant to this section be covered benefits only if the orthotic or prosthetic

devices are provided by a vendor and orthotic or prosthetic services are rendered by a provider

who is licensed by the state of Rhode Island to provide orthotics and prosthetics.

     (g) This chapter section shall not apply to insurance coverage providing benefits for: (1)

Hospital confinement indemnity; (2) Disability income; (3) Accident only; (4) Long-term care;

(5) Medicare supplement; (6) Limited benefit health; (7) Specified disease indemnity; (8)

Sickness or bodily injury or death by accident or both; and (9) Other limited benefit policies.


 

 

232)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-19-23

132 and 150

 

 

27-19-23. Coverage for infertility.

     (a) Any nonprofit hospital service contract, plan, or insurance policies delivered, issued

for delivery, or renewed in this state, except contracts providing supplemental coverage to

Medicare or other governmental programs, which that includes pregnancy-related benefits, shall

provide coverage for medically necessary expenses of diagnosis and treatment of infertility for

women between the ages of twenty-five (25) and forty-two (42) years and for standard fertility-

preservation services when a medically necessary medical treatment may directly or indirectly

cause iatrogenic infertility to a covered person. To the extent that a nonprofit hospital service

corporation provides reimbursement for a test or procedure used in the diagnosis or treatment of

conditions other than infertility, those tests and procedures shall not be excluded from

reimbursement when provided attendant to the diagnosis and treatment of infertility for women

between the ages of twenty-five (25) and forty-two (42) years; provided, that a subscriber

copayment, not to exceed twenty percent (20%), may be required for those programs and/or

procedures the sole purpose of which is the treatment of infertility.

     (b) For the purposes of this section, "infertility" means the condition of an otherwise

presumably healthy married individual who is unable to conceive or sustain a pregnancy during a

period of one year.

     (c) For the purposes of this section, "standard fertility-preservation services" means

procedures consistent with established medical practices and professional guidelines published by

the American Society for Reproductive Medicine, the American Society of Clinical Oncology, or

other reputable professional medical organizations.

     (d) For the purposes of this section, "iatrogenic infertility" means an impairment of

fertility by surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, or other medical treatment affecting reproductive

organs or processes.

     (e) For the purposes of this section, "may directly or indirectly cause" means treatment

with a likely side effect of infertility as established by the American Society for Reproductive

Medicine, the American Society of Clinical Oncology, or other reputable professional

organizations.

     (c)(f) The health insurance contract may limit coverage to a lifetime cap of one hundred

thousand dollars ($100,000).


 

 

 233)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-19-42

274 and 361

 

 

27-19-42. Drug coverage. [Effective January 1, 2017.]

     (a) Any nonprofit, hospital-service corporation that utilizes a formulary of medications

for which coverage is provided under an individual or group-plan, master contract shall require

any physician or other person authorized by the department of health to prescribe medication to

prescribe from the formulary. A physician or other person authorized by the department of health

to prescribe medication shall be allowed to prescribe medications previously on, or not on, the

nonprofit, hospital-service corporation's formulary if he or she believes that the prescription of

the non-formulary medication is medically necessary. A nonprofit, hospital-service corporation

shall be required to provide coverage for a non-formulary medication only when the non-

formulary medication meets the nonprofit, hospital-service corporation's medical-exception

criteria for the coverage of that medication.

     (b) A nonprofit, hospital-service corporation's medical-exception criteria for the coverage

of non-formulary medications shall be developed in accordance with § 23-17.13-3(c)(3).

     (c) Any subscriber who is aggrieved by a denial of benefits to be provided under this

section may appeal the denial in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by the

department of health pursuant to chapter 17.12 of title 23.

     (d) Prior to removing a prescription drug from its plan's formulary or making any change

in the preferred or tiered cost-sharing status of a covered prescription drug, a nonprofit, hospital-

service corporation must provide at least thirty (30) days' notice to authorized prescribers by

established communication methods of policy and program updates and by updating available

references on web-based publications. All adversely affected members must be provided at least

thirty (30) days' notice prior to the date such change becomes effective by a direct notification:

     (i) The written or electronic notice must contain the following information:

     (A) The name of the affected prescription drug;

     (B) Whether the plan is removing the prescription drug from the formulary, or changing

its preferred or tiered, cost-sharing status; and

     (C) The means by which subscribers may obtain a coverage determination or medical

exception, in the case of drugs that will require prior authorization or are formulary exclusions

respectively.

     (ii) A nonprofit, hospital-service corporation may immediately remove from its plan

formularies covered prescription drugs deemed unsafe by the nonprofit, hospital-service

corporation or the Food and Drug Administration, or removed from the market by their

manufacturer, without meeting the requirements of this section.


 

 

234)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-19-56

368 and 375

 

 

27-19-56. Post-payment audits.

     (a) Except as otherwise provided herein, any review, audit, or investigation by a nonprofit

hospital service corporation of a health-care provider's claims that results in the recoupment or

set-off of funds previously paid to the health-care provider in respect to such claims shall be

completed no later than eighteen (18) months after the completed claims were initially paid. This

section shall not restrict any review, audit, or investigation regarding claims that are submitted

fraudulently; are subject to a pattern of inappropriate billing known, or should have been known,

by the health care provider to be a pattern of inappropriate billing according to the standards for

provider billing of their respective medical or dental specialties; are related to coordination of

benefits; are duplicate claims; or are subject to any federal law or regulation that permits claims

review beyond the period provided herein.

     (b) No health-care provider shall seek reimbursement from a payer for underpayment of a

claim later than eighteen (18) months from the date the first payment on the claim was made,

except if the claim is the subject of an appeal properly submitted pursuant to the payer's claims

appeal policies or the claim is subject to continual claims submission.

     (c) For the purposes of this section, "health-care provider" means an individual clinician,

either in practice independently or in a group, who provides health-care services, and any health-

care facility, as defined in § 27-18-1.1, including any mental health and/or substance abuse

treatment facility, physician, or other licensed practitioner identified to the review agent as having

primary responsibility for the care, treatment, and services rendered to a patient.

     (d) Except for those contracts where the health insurer or plan has the right to unilaterally

amend the terms of the contract, the parties shall be able to negotiate contract terms that allow for

different time frames than is prescribed herein.


 

 

235)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

27-19-74

185 and 254

 

 

27-19-74. Health care provider credentialing.

     (a) For applications received on or after January 1, 2018, a health care entity or health

plan operating in the state shall be required to issue a decision regarding the credentialing of a

health care provider as soon as practicable, but no later than forty-five (45) calendar days after the

date of receipt of a complete credentialing application.

     (b) For minor changes to the demographic information of an individual health care

provider who is already credentialed with a particular health care entity or health plan, such

health care entity or health plan shall complete such change within seven (7) business days of

receipt of the health care provider's request. Minor changes to demographic information requested

by individual providers shall be submitted in the timeframe, and manner required by the health

care entity or health plan, and shall include all supporting documentation required by the

particular health care entity or health plan. For purposes of this section, minor changes to the

information profile of a health care provider shall include, but not be limited to, changes of

address and changes to a health care provider's tax identification number.

     (c) Each health care entity or health plan shall establish a written standard defining what

elements constitute a complete credentialing application and shall distribute this standard with the

written version of the credentialing application and make such standard available on the health

care entity's or health plan's website.

     (d) Each health care entity or health plan shall respond to inquiries by the applicant

regarding the status of an application.

     (1) Each health care entity or health plan shall provide the applicant with automated

application status updates, at least once every fifteen (15) calendar days, informing the applicant

of any missing application materials until the application is deemed complete;

     (2) Each health care entity or health plan shall inform the applicant within five (5)

business days that the credentialing application is complete; and

     (3) If the health care entity or health plan denies a credentialing application, the health

care entity or health plan shall notify the health care provider in writing and shall provide the

health care provider with any and all reasons for denying the credentialing application.

     (e) The effective date for billing privileges for health care providers under a particular

health care entity or health plan shall be the next business day following the date of approval of

the credentialing application.

     (f) For applications received from resident graduates on or after January 1, 2018, a health

care entity or health plan shall offer a transitional or conditional approval process such that a

resident graduate who has submitted an otherwise complete application and met all other criteria,

may be conditionally approved, effective upon successful graduation from the training program.

     (g) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

     (1) "Complete credentialing application" means all the requested material has been

submitted.

     (2) "Date of receipt" means the date the health care entity or health plan receives the

completed credentialing application whether via electronic submission or as a paper application.

     (3) "Health care entity" means a licensed insurance company or nonprofit hospital or

medical or dental service corporation or plan or health maintenance organization, or a contractor

as defined in §23-17.13-2 which that operates a health plan.

     (4) "Health care provider" means a health care professional.

     (5) "Health plan" means a plan operated by a health care entity that provides for the

delivery of health care services to persons enrolled in those plans through:

     (i) Arrangements with selected providers to furnish health care services; and

     (ii) Financial incentives for persons enrolled in the plan to use the participating providers

and procedures provided for by the health plan.


 

 

236)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

27-19-75

165 and 314

 

 

27-19-75. Unfair discrimination prohibited.

Notwithstanding any provision of any policy of insurance, certificate, or service contract

issued in this state, whenever the insurance policy, certificate, or service contract provides for

reimbursement for any services which that may be legally performed by any person licensed

under the provisions of chapters 29, 30, 35 and 37 of title 5, reimbursement under the insurance

policy, certificate, or service contract shall be based upon a determination of medical necessity

and shall not be denied because of race, color, or creed, nor shall any insurer make or permit any

unfair discrimination against particular individuals or persons licensed under chapters 29, 30, 35

and 37 of title 5.


 

 

237)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-20-20

132 and 150

 

 

27-20-20. Coverage for infertility.

     (a) Any nonprofit medical service contract, plan, or insurance policies delivered, issued

for delivery, or renewed in this state, except contracts providing supplemental coverage to

Medicare or other governmental programs, which that includes pregnancy-related benefits, shall

provide coverage for the medically necessary expenses of diagnosis and treatment of infertility

for women between the ages of twenty-five (25) and forty-two (42) years and for standard

fertility-preservation services when a medically necessary medical treatment may directly or

indirectly cause iatrogenic infertility to a covered person. To the extent that a nonprofit medical

service corporation provides reimbursement for a test or procedure used in the diagnosis or

treatment of conditions other than infertility, those tests and procedures shall not be excluded

from reimbursement when provided attendant to the diagnosis and treatment of infertility for

women between the ages of twenty-five (25) and forty-two (42) years.; Pprovided, that subscriber

copayment, not to exceed twenty percent (20%), may be required for those programs and/or

procedures the sole purpose of which is the treatment of infertility.

     (b) For the purposes of this section, "infertility" means the condition of an otherwise

presumably healthy married individual who is unable to conceive or sustain a pregnancy during a

period of one year.

     (c) For the purposes of this section, "standard fertility-preservation services" means

procedures consistent with established medical practices and professional guidelines published by

the American Society for Reproductive Medicine, the American Society of Clinical Oncology, or

other reputable professional medical organizations.

     (d) For the purposes of this section, "iatrogenic infertility" means an impairment of

fertility by surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, or other medical treatment affecting reproductive

organs or processes.

     (e) For the purposes of this section, "may directly or indirectly cause" means treatment

with a likely side effect of infertility as established by the American Society for Reproductive

Medicine, the American Society of Clinical Oncology, or other reputable professional

organizations.

     (c)(f) The health insurance contract may limit coverage to a lifetime cap of one hundred

thousand dollars ($100,000).


 

 

 

 

 

238)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-20-37

274 and 361

 

 

27-20-37. Drug coverage. [Effective January 1, 2017.]

     (a) Any nonprofit, medical-service corporation that utilizes a formulary of medications

for which coverage is provided under an individual or group-plan, master contract shall require

any physician or other person authorized by the department of health to prescribe medication to

prescribe from the formulary. A physician or other person authorized by the department of health

to prescribe medication shall be allowed to prescribe medications previously on, or not on, the

nonprofit, medical-service corporation's formulary if he or she believes that the prescription of

the non-formulary medication is medically necessary. A nonprofit, hospital-service corporation

shall be required to provide coverage for a non-formulary medication only when the non-

formulary medication meets the nonprofit, medical-service corporation's medical-exception

criteria for the coverage of that medication.

     (b) A nonprofit, medical-service corporation's medical-exception criteria for the coverage

of non-formulary medications shall be developed in accordance with § 23-17.13-3(c)(3).

     (c) Any subscriber who is aggrieved by a denial of benefits to be provided under this

section may appeal the denial in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by the

department of health pursuant to chapter 17.12 of title 23.

     (d) Prior to removing a prescription drug from its plan's formulary or making any change

in the preferred or tiered, cost-sharing status of a covered prescription drug, a nonprofit, medical-

service corporation must provide at least thirty (30) days' notice to authorized prescribers by

established communication methods of policy and program updates and by updating available

references on web-based publications. All adversely affected members must be provided at least

thirty (30) days' notice prior to the date such change becomes effective by a direct notification:

     (i) The written or electronic notice must contain the following information:

     (A) The name of the affected prescription drug;

     (B) Whether the plan is removing the prescription drug from the formulary, or changing

its preferred or tiered, cost-sharing status; and

     (C) The means by which subscribers may obtain a coverage determination or medical

exception, in the case of drugs that will require prior authorization or are formulary exclusions

respectively.

     (ii) A nonprofit, medical-service corporation may immediately remove from its plan

formularies covered prescription drugs deemed unsafe by the nonprofit, medical-service

corporation or the Food and Drug Administration, or removed from the market by their

manufacturer, without meeting the requirements of this section.


 

 

239)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-20-51

368 and 375

 

 

27-20-51. Post-payment audits.

     (a) Except as otherwise provided herein, any review, audit, or investigation by a nonprofit

medical service corporation of a health-care provider's claims that results in the recoupment or

set-off of funds previously paid to the health-care provider in respect to such claims shall be

completed no later than eighteen (18) months after the completed claims were initially paid. This

section shall not restrict any review, audit, or investigation regarding claims that are submitted

fraudulently; are subject to a pattern of inappropriate billing known, or should have been known,

by the health care provider to be a pattern of inappropriate billing according to the standards for

provider billing of their respective medical or dental specialties; are related to coordination of

benefits; are duplicate claims; or are subject to any federal law or regulation that permits claims

review beyond the period provided herein.

     (b) No health-care provider shall seek reimbursement from a payer for underpayment of a

claim later than eighteen (18) months from the date the first payment on the claim was made,

except if the claim is the subject of an appeal properly submitted pursuant to the payer's claims

appeal policies or the claim is subject to continual claims submission.

     (c) For the purposes of this section, "health-care provider" means an individual clinician,

either in practice independently or in a group, who provides health-care services, and any health-

care facility, as defined in § 27-20-1, including any mental health and/or substance abuse

treatment facility, physician, or other licensed practitioner identified to the review agent as having

primary responsibility for the care, treatment, and services rendered to a patient.

     (d) Except for those contracts where the health insurer or plan has the right to unilaterally

amend the terms of the contract, the parties shall be able to negotiate contract terms which allow

for different time frames than is prescribed herein.


 

 

 

 

240)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-20.1-15

274 and 361

 

 

27-20.1-15. Drug coverage. [Effective January 1, 2017.]

     (a) Any nonprofit, dental-service corporation that utilizes a formulary of medications for

which coverage is provided under an individual or group-plan, master contract shall require any

physician or other person authorized by the department of health to prescribe medication to

prescribe from the formulary. A physician or other person authorized by the department of health

to prescribe medication shall be allowed to prescribe medications previously on, or not on, the

nonprofit, dental-service corporation's formulary if he or she believes that the prescription of the

non-formulary medication is medically necessary. A nonprofit, dental-service corporation shall be

required to provide coverage for a non-formulary medication only when the non-formulary

medication meets the nonprofit, dental-service corporation's medical-exception criteria for the

coverage of that medication.

     (b) A nonprofit, dental-service corporation's medical-exception criteria for the coverage

of non-formulary medications shall be developed in accordance with § 23-17.13-3(c)(3).

     (c) Any subscriber who is aggrieved by a denial of benefits to be provided under this

section may appeal the denial in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by the

department of health pursuant to chapter 17.12 of title 23.

     (d) Prior to removing a prescription drug from its plan's formulary or making any change

in the preferred or tiered, cost-sharing status of a covered prescription drug, a nonprofit, dental-

service corporation must provide at least thirty (30) days' notice to authorized prescribers by

established communication methods of policy and program updates and by updating available

references on web-based publications. All adversely affected members must be provided at least

thirty (30) days' notice prior to the date such change becomes effective by a direct notification:

     (i) The written or electronic notice must contain the following information:

     (A) The name of the affected prescription drug;

     (B) Whether the plan is removing the prescription drug from the formulary, or changing

its preferred or tiered, cost-sharing status; and

     (C) The means by which subscribers may obtain a coverage determination or medical

exception, in the case of drugs that will require prior authorization or are formulary exclusions

respectively.

     (ii) A nonprofit, dental-service corporation may immediately remove from its plan

formularies covered prescription drugs deemed unsafe by the nonprofit, dental-service

corporation or the Food and Drug Administration, or removed from the market by their

manufacturer, without meeting the requirements of this section.


 

 

241)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-20.1-19

368 and 375

 

 

27-20.1-19. Post-payment audits.

     (a) Except as otherwise provided herein, any review, audit, or investigation by a nonprofit

dental service corporation of a health-care provider's claims which results in the recoupment or

set-off of funds previously paid to the health-care provider in respect to such claims shall be

completed no later than two (2) years eighteen (18) months after the completed claims were

initially paid. This section shall not restrict any review, audit, or investigation regarding claims

that are submitted fraudulently, are subject to known, or should have been known, by the health-

care provider to be a pattern of inappropriate billing according to the standards for provider

billing of their respective medical or dental specialty, are related to coordination of benefits, or

are subject to any federal law or regulation that permits claims review beyond the period provided

herein.

     (b) No health-care provider shall seek reimbursement from a payer for underpayment of a

claim later than two (2) years eighteen (18) months from the date the first payment on the claim

was made, except if the claim is the subject of an appeal properly submitted pursuant to the

payer's claims appeal policies or the claim is subject to continual claims submission.

     (c) For the purposes of this section, "health-care provider" means an individual clinician,

either in practice independently or in a group, who provides health-care services, and otherwise

referred to as a non-institutional provider.


 

 

242)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-29-2

197 and 317

 

 

27-29-2. Definitions.

     When used in this chapter:

     (1) "Commissioner" means director of the department of business regulation;

     (2) "Consultant" means an individual, partnership, or corporation who, for a fee, holds

himself or itself out to the public as engaged in the business of offering any advice, counsel,

opinion, or service with respect to the benefits, advantages or disadvantages promised under any

policy of insurance that could be issued in this state;

     (3) "Domestic partnership" means two (2) people who are in an exclusive, intimate, and

committed relationship with each other, and who certify by affidavit that their relationship meets

the following qualifications:

     (i) Both persons are at least eighteen (18) years of age and are mentally competent to

contract;

     (ii) Neither person is currently married to someone else;

     (iii) The persons are not related by blood to a degree that would prohibit marriage in the

state of Rhode Island;

     (iv) The persons reside together and have resided together for at least one year prior to

the date of the certified affidavit;

     (v) The persons are financially interdependent as evidenced by two (2) of the following:

     (A) A domestic partnership agreement or relationship contract;

     (B) A joint mortgage or joint ownership of a primary residence;

     (C) Two (2) of the following:

     (I) Joint ownership of a motor vehicle;

     (II) A joint checking account;

     (III) A joint credit account;

     (IV) A joint lease; and/or

     (D) One person has been designated as a beneficiary for the other person’s will,

retirement contract, or life insurance.

     (3)(4) "Insured" means the party named on a policy or certificate as the individuals with

legal rights to the benefits provided by the policy;

     (4)(5) "Insurer" means any person, reciprocal exchange, interinsurer, Lloyds insurer,

fraternal benefit society, and any other legal entity engaged in the business of insurance,

including agents, brokers, insurance producers, adjusters, and third-party administrators.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, insurer shall also mean a nonprofit hospital and/or

medical service corporation, a nonprofit dental service corporation, a nonprofit optometric service

corporation, a nonprofit legal service corporation, a health maintenance organization as defined in

the general laws, or any other entity providing a plan of health benefits. For the purposes of this

act, the entities in this subdivision shall be deemed to be engaged in the business of insurance and

subject to this chapter;

     (5)(6) "License" means any license, certificate of authority, certificate of compliance, or

other formal approval or authorization granted by the department of business regulation, division

of insurance;

     (6)(7) "Person" means any natural or artificial entity, including but not limited to,: an

individual, corporation, association, partnership, trust, or any other legal entity; and

     (7)(8) "Policy" or "certificate" means any contract of insurance, indemnity, medical,

health, or hospital service, suretyship, or annuity issued, proposed for issuance, or intended for

issuance, by any insurer.


 

 

243)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-29-4

197 and 317

 

 

27-29-4. Unfair methods of competition and unfair or deceptive acts or practices

defined.

     The following are defined as unfair methods of competition and unfair and deceptive acts

or practices in the business of insurance:

     (1) Misrepresentations and false advertising of policies or contracts. Making, issuing,

circulating, or causing to be made, issued, or circulated, any estimate, illustration, circular, or

statement, sales presentation, omission, or comparison misrepresenting the terms of any policy

issued or to be issued or the benefits, conditions, or advantages promised by any policy or the

dividends or share of the surplus to be received on any policy, or making any false or misleading

statement as to the dividends or share of surplus previously paid on any policy, or making any

misleading representation or any misrepresentation as to the financial condition of any insurer, or

as to the legal reserve system upon which any life insurer operates, or using any name or title of

any policy or class of policies misrepresenting the true nature of that policy or class of policies, or

making any misrepresentation to any policyholder insured in any company including any

intentional misquote of a premium rate, for the purpose of inducing or tending to induce the

policyholder to lapse, forfeit, or surrender his or her insurance, or misrepresenting for the purpose

of effecting a pledge or assignment of or effecting a loan against any policy, or misrepresenting

any policy as being share or stock;

     (2) False information and advertising generally. Making, publishing, disseminating,

circulating, or placing before the public or causing, directly or indirectly, to be made, published,

disseminated, circulated, or placed before the public in a newspaper, magazine, or other

publication, or in the form of a notice, circular, pamphlet, letter, or poster, or over any radio or

television station, or in any other way, an advertisement, announcement, or statement containing

any assertion, representation, or statement with respect to the business of insurance or with

respect to any person in the conduct of his or her insurance business which that is untrue,

deceptive, or misleading;

     (3) Defamation. Making, publishing, disseminating, or circulating, directly or indirectly,

or aiding, abetting, or encouraging the making, publishing, disseminating, or circulating of any

oral or written statement or any pamphlet, circular, article of literature which that is false or

maliciously critical of or derogatory to the financial condition of an insurer, and which that is

calculated to injure any person engaged in the business of insurance;

     (4) Boycott, coercion, and intimidation. Entering into any agreement to commit, or by

any concerted action committing, any act of boycott, coercion, or intimidation resulting in or

tending to result in unreasonable restraint of, or monopoly in, the business of insurance;

     (5) (i) False financial statements. Knowingly filing with any supervisory or other public

official, or knowingly making, publishing, disseminating, circulating, or delivering to any person,

or placing before the public or causing directly or indirectly, to be made, published, disseminated,

circulated, delivered to any person, or placed before the public any false material statement of

financial condition of an insurer; or

     (ii) Knowingly making any false entry of a material fact in any book, report, or statement

of any insurer or knowingly omitting to make a true entry of any material fact pertaining to the

business of the insurer in any book, report, or statement of the insurer;

     (6) Stock operations and advisory board contracts. Issuing or delivering or permitting

agents, officers, or employees to issue or deliver agency company stock or other capital stock, or

benefit certificates or shares in any common law corporation, or securities of any special or

advisory board contracts or other contracts of any kind promising returns and profits as an

inducement to insurance;

     (7) (i) Unfair discrimination. Making or permitting any unfair discrimination between

individuals of the same class and equal expectation of life in the rates charged for any policy of

life insurance or of life annuity or in the dividends or other benefits payable on any such policy or

life annuity, or in any other of the terms and conditions of the policy; or

     (ii) Making or permitting any unfair discrimination between individuals of the same class

and of essentially the same hazard in the amount of premium, policy fees, or rates charged for any

policy or contract of accident or health insurance or in the benefits payable under any policy or

contract, or in any of the terms or conditions of that policy, or in any other manner;

     (iii) Making or permitting any unfair discrimination between individuals or risks of the

same class and of essentially the same hazards by refusing to issue, refusing to renew, canceling,

or limiting the amount of insurance coverage on a property or casualty risk because of the

geographic location of the risk, unless:

     (A) The refusal, cancellation, or limitation is for a business purpose that is not a pretext

for unfair discrimination; or

     (B) The refusal, cancellation, or limitation is required by law or regulation;

     (iv) Making or permitting any unfair discrimination between individuals or risks of the

same class and of essentially the same hazards by refusing to issue, refusing to renew, canceling,

or limiting the amount of insurance coverage on a residential property risk, or the personal

property contained in the residential property risk, because of the age of the residential property,

unless:

     (A) The refusal, cancellation, or limitation is for a business purpose that is not a pretext

for unfair discrimination; or

     (B) The refusal, cancellation, or limitation is required by law or regulation;

     (v) Refusing to insure, refusing to continue to insure, or limiting the amount of coverage

available to an individual because of the sex or marital status of the individual; nothing in this

subsection shall prohibit an insurer from taking marital status into account for the purpose of

defining persons eligible for dependent benefits; or

     (vi) To terminate, or to modify coverage, or to refuse to issue or refuse to renew any

property or casualty policy solely because the applicant or insured or any employee of either is

mentally or physically impaired; provided, that this subsection shall not apply to accident and

health insurance sold by a casualty insurer and, provided that this subsection shall not be

interpreted to modify any other provision of law relating to the termination, modification,

issuance or renewal of any insurance policy or contract; or

     (vii) Making or permitting any unfair discrimination by treating persons in a domestic

partnership as defined in §27-29-2, differently than persons in a marriage for the purposes of

premiums, policy fees, or rates charged for policies of casualty, fire, homeowners, accident and

sickness, marine, or automobile insurance;

     (8) (i) Rebates. Except as otherwise expressly provided by law, knowingly permitting or

offering to make or making any policy or agreement as to the policy other than as plainly

expressed in the policy issued on it, or paying or allowing or giving or offering to pay, allow, or

give, directly or indirectly, as inducement to the policy, any rebate of premiums payable on the

policy, or any special favor or advantage in the dividends or other benefits on the policy, or any

valuable consideration or inducement not specified in the policy, or giving, selling, or purchasing

or offering to give, sell, or purchase as inducement to the policy, or in connection with the policy,

any stocks, bonds, or other securities of any insurance company or other corporation, association,

or partnership, or any dividends or profits accrued on the security, or anything of value not

specified in the policy;

     (ii) Nothing in subdivision (7) of this section or paragraph (i) of this subdivision shall be

construed as including within the definition of discrimination or rebates any of the following

practices:

     (A) In the case of any contract of life insurance policies or life annuity, annuities paying

bonuses to policyholders or abating their premiums in whole or in part out of surplus accumulated

from nonparticipating insurance; provided, that any bonuses or abatement of premiums shall be

fair and equitable to policyholders and for the best interests of the company and its policyholders;

     (B) In the case of life insurance policies issued on the industrial debit plan, making

allowance to policyholders who have continuously for a specified period made premium

payments directly to an office of the insurer in an amount which that fairly represents the saving

in collection expenses; and

     (C) Readjustment of the rate of premium for a group insurance policy based on the loss or

expense experience under it, at the end of the first or any subsequent policy year of insurance

under the policy, which may be made retroactive only for the policy year;

     (9) (i) Free choice of insurance producer or insurer. When any person, firm, or

corporation engaged in the business of lending money on the security of real or personal property,

or in the business of negotiating, purchasing, selling, or holding loans on the security of real

property, or in the business of building, selling, or financing the sale or purchase of real property,

or any trustee, director, officer, agent, or other employee of that person, firm, or corporation,

requires that property insurance be procured for the property, the borrower, debtor, or purchaser

shall have free choice of insurance producer and insurer through or by which the insurance is to

be placed or written, subject only to the right of the builder, creditor, lender, or seller:

     (A) To require evidence, to be produced at a reasonable time prior to commencement or

renewal of risk, that the insurance providing reasonable coverage has been obtained in an amount

equal to the amount required by the builder, creditor, lender, or seller;

     (B) To require insurance in an insurer authorized to do business and having a licensed

resident insurance producer agent in this state; and

     (C) To refuse to accept insurance in a particular insurer on reasonable grounds related to

solvency;

     (ii) When any contractor or subcontractor is required to procure a surety bond or policy

of insurance with respect to any building or construction contract which that is about to be, or

which that has been bid or entered into, the contractor or subcontractor shall have free choice of

insurance producer and insurer through or by which the surety bond or insurance is to be written;

provided, that the owner or contractor shall have the right: (A) tTo require evidence, to be

produced at a reasonable time prior to commencement or renewal of risk, that the insurance

providing reasonable coverage has been obtained in an amount equal to the amount required by

the builder, creditor, lender, or seller; (B) tTo require insurance in an insurer authorized to do

business and having a licensed resident insurance producer in this state; and (C) tTo refuse to

accept insurance in a particular insurer on reasonable grounds related to solvency; provided, that

the owner or contractor shall have the right to approve the form, sufficiency, or manner of

execution of the surety bond or policy or insurance furnished by the insurance company or

insurance producer selected by the contractor or subcontractor;

     (iii) No person who lends money or extends credit may:

     (A) Solicit insurance for the protection of real property after a person indicates interest in

securing a first mortgage credit extension until that person has received a commitment in writing

from the lender as to a loan or credit extension;

     (B) Unreasonably reject a policy furnished by the borrower for the protection of the

property securing the creditor lien. A rejection shall not be deemed unreasonable if it is based on

reasonable standards, uniformly applied, relating to the extent of coverage required and the

financial soundness and the services of an insurer. The standards shall not discriminate against

any particular type of insurer, nor shall the standards call for rejection of a policy because it

contains coverage in addition to that required in the credit transaction;

     (C) Require that any borrower, mortgagor, purchaser, insurer, or insurance producer pay

a separate charge, in connection with the handling of any policy required as security for a loan on

real estate, or pay a separate charge to substitute the policy of one insurer for that of another. This

subsection does not include the interest that may be charged on premium loans or premium

advancements in accordance with the terms of the loan or credit document;

     (D) Use or disclose, without the prior written consent of the borrower, mortgagor, or

purchaser taken at a time other than the making of the loan or extension of credit, information

relative to a policy which that is required by the credit transaction, for the purpose of replacing

the insurance; or

     (E) Require any procedures or conditions of duly licensed insurance producers or insurers

not customarily required of those insurance producers or insurers affiliated or in any way

connected with the person who lends money or extends credit;

     (iv) Every person who lends money or extends credit and who solicits insurance on real

and personal property subject to paragraph (iii) of this subdivision shall explain to the borrower in

writing that the insurance related to the credit extension may be purchased from an insurer or

insurance producer of the borrower's choice, subject only to the lender's right to reject a given

insurer or insurance producer as provided in paragraph (iii)(B) of this subdivision. Compliance

with disclosures as to insurance required by truth-in-lending laws or comparable state laws shall

be compliance with this subsection;

     (v) This requirement for a commitment shall not apply in cases where the premium for

the required insurance is to be financed as part of the loan or extension of credit involving

personal property transactions;

     (vi) The commissioner shall have the power to examine and investigate those insurance-

related activities of any person or insurer that the commissioner believes may be in violation of

this section. Any affected person may submit to the commissioner a complaint or material

pertinent to the enforcement of this section;

     (vii) Nothing in this section shall prevent a person who lends money or extends credit

from placing insurance on real or personal property in the event the mortgagor, borrower, or

purchaser has failed to provide required insurance in accordance with the terms of the loan or

credit document;

     (viii) Nothing contained in this section shall apply to credit life or credit accident and

health insurance.

     (10) Notice of free choice of insurance producer or insurer. Every debtor, borrower, or

purchaser of property with respect to which insurance of any kind on the property is required in

connection with a debt or loan secured by the property or in connection with the sale of the

property, shall be informed in writing by the builder, creditor, lender, or seller, of his or her right

of free choice in the selection of the insurance producer and insurer through or by which the

insurance is to be placed. There shall be no interference, either directly or indirectly, with the

borrower's, debtor's, or purchaser's free choice of an insurance procedure and of an insurer which

that complies with the requirements of this section, and the builder, creditor, lender, seller,

owner, or contractor shall not refuse the policy tendered by the borrower, debtor, purchaser,

contractor, or subcontractor. Upon notice of any refusal of the tendered policy, the insurance

commissioner shall order the builder, creditor, lender, seller, owner, or contractor to accept the

tendered policy, if the commissioner determines that the refusal is not in accordance with the

requirements of this section. Failure to comply with an order of the insurance commissioner shall

be deemed a violation of this section;

     (11) Using insurance information to detriment of another. Whenever the instrument

requires that the purchaser, mortgagor, or borrower furnish insurance of any kind on real property

being conveyed or is collateral security to a loan, the mortgagee, vendor, or lender shall refrain

from disclosing or using any and all insurance information to his or her or its own advantage and

to the detriment of either the borrower, purchaser, mortgagor, insurance company, or agency

complying with the requirements relating to insurance;

     (12) Prohibited group enrollments. No insurer shall offer more than one group policy of

insurance through any person unless that person is licensed, at a minimum, as an insurance

producer. This prohibition shall not apply to employer-employee relationships, or to any of these

enrollments;

     (13) Failure to maintain complaint handling procedures. No insurer shall fail to maintain

a complete record of all the complaints it received since the date of its last examination pursuant

to the general laws providing for examination of insurers. This record shall indicate the total

number of complaints, their classification by line of insurance, the nature of each complaint, the

disposition of each complaint, and the time it took to process each complaint. For the purposes of

this subsection, "complaint" means any written communication primarily expressing a grievance;

     (14) Misrepresentation in insurance applications. Making false or fraudulent statements

or representations on or relative to an application for a policy, for the purpose of obtaining a fee,

commission, money, or other benefit from any insurers, insurance producer, or individual person;

     (15) Requiring that repairs be made to an automobile at a specified auto body repair shop

or interfering with the insured's or claimant's free choice of repair facility. The insured or

claimant shall be promptly informed by the insurer of his or her free choice in the selection of an

auto body repair shop. Once the insured or claimant has advised the insurer that an auto body

repair shop has been selected, the insurer may not recommend that a different auto body repair

shop be selected to repair the automobile. An auto body repair shop may file a complaint with the

department of business regulation alleging a violation of this subdivision subsection (15).

Whenever the department of business regulation has reason to believe that an insurer has violated

this subdivision subsection (15), the department shall conduct an investigation and may convene

a hearing. A complaint filed by an auto body repair shop must be accompanied by a statement

written and signed by the insured or claimant setting forth the factual basis of the complaint, and

the insured or claimant must voluntarily appear and testify at any administrative proceedings on

the complaint; and

     (16) Requiring that motor vehicle glass repair be made at a specified motor vehicle glass

repair shop or interfering with the insured's or claimant's free choice of a licensed repair facility.

The insured or claimant shall be promptly informed by the insurer of his or her free choice in the

selection of a licensed motor vehicle glass repair shop. The insurer shall not require a person to

use or employ unfair or deceptive acts or practices, threaten, coerce, or intimidate to induce a

person to use or select a particular licensed motor vehicle glass repair shop to provide motor

vehicle glass repair services. An insurer shall not knowingly contract with, refer motor vehicle

glass repair services to, or otherwise negotiate with an unlicensed motor vehicle glass repair shop,

as defined in chapter 38.5 of title 5. Once the insured or claimant has advised the insurer that a

motor vehicle glass repair shop has been selected, the insurer may not recommend that a different

motor vehicle glass repair shop be selected to repair the motor vehicle glass, and an insurer shall

not assign or dispatch the repair work or forward a related policy or policyholder's contact or

repair scheduling information to a different licensed motor vehicle glass repair shop without the

knowledge and consent of the insured. An insured may at any point in time elect to change the

insured's choice of licensed motor vehicle glass repair shop. However, an insurer authorized to

conduct business in the state may provide directly, or through other means, including electronic

transmissions, specific, truthful, and non-deceptive information regarding the features and

benefits available to the insured under the policy to assist the insured in selecting a licensed motor

vehicle glass repair shop or scheduling a licensed motor vehicle glass repair shop to perform

motor vehicle glass repair, or enter into any preferred provider agreements and/or participate in

direct repair programs or direct repair networks with licensed motor vehicle glass repair shops. A

motor vehicle glass repair shop may file a complaint with the department of business regulation

alleging a violation of this subsection (16) of this section. Whenever the department of business

regulation has reason to believe that an insurer has violated this subsection (16) of this section,

the department shall conduct an investigation and may convene a hearing. A complaint filed by a

motor vehicle glass repair shop must be accompanied by a statement written and signed by the

insured or claimant setting forth the factual basis of the complaint, and the insured or claimant

must voluntarily appear and testify at any administrative proceedings on the complaint.


                                                                                                                                                                                                                                           

 

244)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-41-33

132 and 150

 

 

27-41-33. Coverage for infertility.

     (a) Any health maintenance organization service contract plan or policy delivered, issued

for delivery, or renewed in this state, except a contract providing supplemental coverage to

Medicare or other governmental programs, which that includes pregnancy-related benefits, shall

provide coverage for medically necessary expenses of diagnosis and treatment of diagnosis and

treatment of infertility for women between the ages of twenty-five (25) and forty-two (42) years

and for standard fertility-preservation services when a medically necessary medical treatment

may directly or indirectly cause iatrogenic infertility to a covered person. To the extent that a

health maintenance organization provides reimbursement for a test or procedure used in the

diagnosis or treatment of conditions other than infertility, those tests and procedures shall not be

excluded from reimbursement when provided attendant to the diagnosis and treatment of

infertility for women between the ages of twenty-five (25) and forty-two (42) years; provided,

that subscriber copayment, not to exceed twenty percent (20%), may be required for those

programs and/or procedures the sole purpose of which is the treatment of infertility.

     (b) For the purpose purposes of this section, "infertility" means the condition of an

otherwise healthy married individual who is unable to conceive or sustain a pregnancy during a

period of one year.

     (c) For the purposes of this section, "standard fertility-preservation services" means

procedures consistent with established medical practices and professional guidelines published by

the American Society for Reproductive Medicine, the American Society of Clinical Oncology, or

other reputable professional medical organizations.

     (d) For the purposes of this section, "iatrogenic infertility" means an impairment of

fertility by surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, or other medical treatment affecting reproductive

organs or processes.

     (e) For the purposes of this section, "may directly or indirectly cause" means treatment

with a likely side effect of infertility as established by the American Society for Reproductive

Medicine, the American Society of Clinical Oncology, or other reputable professional

organizations.

     (c)(f) The health insurance contract may limit coverage to a lifetime cap of one hundred

thousand dollars ($100,000).


 

 

245)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-41-51

274 and 361

 

 

27-41-51. Drug coverage. [Effective January 1, 2017.]

     (a) Any health-maintenance organization that utilizes a formulary of medications for

which coverage is provided under an individual or group-plan, master contract shall require any

physician or other person authorized by the department of health to prescribe medication to

prescribe from the formulary. A physician or other person authorized by the department of health

to prescribe medication shall be allowed to prescribe medications previously on, or not on, the

health-maintenance organization's formulary if he or she believes that the prescription of non-

formulary medication is medically necessary. A health-maintenance organization shall be

required to provide coverage for a non-formulary medication only when the non-formulary

medication meets the health-maintenance organization's medical-exception criteria for the

coverage of that medication.

     (b) A health-maintenance organization's medical-exception criteria for the coverage of

non-formulary medications shall be developed in accordance with § 23-17.13-3(c)(3).

     (c) Any subscriber who is aggrieved by a denial of benefits to be provided under this

section may appeal the denial in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by the

department of health pursuant to chapter 17.12 of title 23.

     (d) Prior to removing a prescription drug from its plan's formulary or making any change

in the preferred or tiered, cost-sharing status of a covered prescription drug, a health-maintenance

organization must provide at least thirty (30) days' notice to authorized prescribers by established

communication methods of policy and program updates and by updating available references on

web-based publications. All adversely affected members must be provided at least thirty (30)

days' notice prior to the date such change becomes effective by a direct notification:

     (i) The written or electronic notice must contain the following information:

     (A) The name of the affected prescription drug;

     (B) Whether the plan is removing the prescription drug from the formulary, or changing

its preferred or tiered, cost-sharing status; and

     (C) The means by which subscribers may obtain a coverage determination or medical

exception, in the case of drugs that will require prior authorization or are formulary exclusions

respectively.

     (ii) A health-maintenance organization may immediately remove from its plan

formularies covered prescription drugs deemed unsafe by the health-maintenance organization or

the Food and Drug Administration, or removed from the market by their manufacturer, without

meeting the requirements of this section.


 

 

246)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-41-69

368 and 375

 

 

27-41-69. Post-payment audits.

     (a) Except as otherwise provided herein, any review, audit, or investigation by a health

maintenance organization of a health-care provider's claims that results in the recoupment or set-

off of funds previously paid to the health-care provider in respect to such claims shall be

completed no later than eighteen (18) months after the completed claims were initially paid. This

section shall not restrict any review, audit, or investigation regarding claims that are submitted

fraudulently; are subject to a pattern of inappropriate billing known, or should have been known,

by the health-care provider to be a pattern of inappropriate billing according to the standards for

provider billing of their respective medical or dental specialties; are related to coordination of

benefits; are duplicate claims; or are subject to any federal law or regulation that permits claims

review beyond the period provided herein.

     (b) No health-care provider shall seek reimbursement from a payer for underpayment of a

claim later than eighteen (18) months from the date the first payment on the claim was made,

except if the claim is the subject of an appeal properly submitted pursuant to the payer's claims

appeal policies or the claim is subject to continual claims submission.

     (c) For the purposes of this section, "health-care provider" means an individual clinician,

either in practice independently or in a group, who provides health-care services, and any health-

care facility, as defined in § 27-41-2, including any mental health and/or substance abuse

treatment facility, physician, or other licensed practitioner identified to the review agent as having

primary responsibility for the care, treatment, and services rendered to a patient.

     (d) Except for those contracts where the health insurer or plan has the right to unilaterally

amend the terms of the contract, the parties shall be able to negotiate contract terms which allow

for different time frames than is prescribed herein.


 

 

 

 

 

247)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

27-41-87

 185 and 254

 

 

27-41-87. Health care provider credentialing.

     (a) For applications received on or after January 1, 2018, a health care entity or health

plan operating in the state shall be required to issue a decision regarding the credentialing of a

health care provider as soon as practicable, but no later than forty-five (45) calendar days after the

date of receipt of a complete credentialing application.

     (b) For minor changes to the demographic information of an individual health care

provider who is already credentialed with a particular health care entity or health plan, such

health care entity or health plan shall complete such change within seven (7) business days of

receipt of the health care provider's request. Minor changes to demographic information requested

by individual providers shall be submitted in the timeframe, and manner required by the health

care entity or health plan, and shall include all supporting documentation required by the

particular health care entity or health plan. For purposes of this section, minor changes to the

information profile of a health care provider shall include, but not be limited to, changes of

address and changes to a health care provider's tax identification number.

     (c) Each health care entity or health plan shall establish a written standard defining what

elements constitute a complete credentialing application and shall distribute this standard with the

written version of the credentialing application and make such standard available on the health

care entity's or health plan's website.

     (d) Each health care entity or health plan shall respond to inquiries by the applicant

regarding the status of an application.

     (1) Each health care entity or health plan shall provide the applicant with automated

application status updates, at least once every fifteen (15) calendar days, informing the applicant

of any missing application materials until the application is deemed complete;

     (2) Each health care entity or health plan shall inform the applicant within five (5)

business days that the credentialing application is complete; and

     (3) If the health care entity or health plan denies a credentialing application, the health

care entity or health plan shall notify the health care provider in writing and shall provide the

health care provider with any and all reasons for denying the credentialing application.

     (e) The effective date for billing privileges for health care providers under a particular

health care entity or health plan shall be the next business day following the date of approval of

the credentialing application.

     (f) For applications received from resident graduates on or after January 1, 2018, a health

care entity or health plan shall offer a transitional or conditional approval process such that a

resident graduate who has submitted an otherwise complete application and met all other criteria,

may be conditionally approved, effective upon successful graduation from the training program.

     (g) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

     (1) "Complete credentialing application" means all the requested material has been

submitted.

     (2) "Date of receipt" means the date the health care entity or health plan receives the

completed credentialing application whether via electronic submission or as a paper application.

     (3) "Health care entity" means a licensed insurance company or nonprofit hospital or

medical or dental service corporation or plan or health maintenance organization, or a contractor

as defined in §23-17.13-2 which that operates a health plan.

     (4) "Health care provider" means a health care professional.

     (5) "Health plan" means a plan operated by a health care entity that provides for the

delivery of health care services to persons enrolled in those plans through:

     (i) Arrangements with selected providers to furnish health care services; and

     (ii) Financial incentives for persons enrolled in the plan to use the participating providers

and procedures provided for by the health plan.


               

 

248)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-64-6

389 and 434

 

 

27-64-6. Reach of creditors and other claimants.

     (a) (1) Protected cell assets shall only be available to the creditors of the protected cell

company that are creditors in respect to that protected cell and shall be entitled, in conformity

with the provisions of this chapter, to have recourse to the protected cell assets attributable to that

protected cell, and shall be absolutely protected from the creditors of the protected cell company

that are not creditors in respect of that protected cell and, who accordingly, shall not be entitled to

have recourse to the protected cell assets attributable to that protected cell. Creditors with respect

to a protected cell shall not be entitled to have recourse against the protected cell assets of other

protected cells or the assets of the protected cell company's general account.

     (2) Protected cell assets shall only be available to creditors of a protected cell company

after all protected cell liabilities have been extinguished or provided for in accordance with the

plan of operation relating to that protected cell.

     (b) When an obligation of a protected cell company to a person arises from a transaction,

or is imposed, in respect of a protected cell: (1) tThat obligation of the protected cell company

shall extend only to the protected cell assets attributable to that protected cell, and the person

shall, with respect to that obligation, be entitled to have recourse only to the protected cell assets

attributable to that protected cell,; and (2) tThat obligation of the company shall not extend to the

protected cell assets of any other protected cell or the assets of the protected cell company's

general account, and that person shall not, with respect to that obligation, be entitled to have

recourse to the protected cell assets of any other protected cell or the assets of the protected cell

company's general account.

     (c) When an obligation of a protected cell company relates solely to the general account,

the obligation of the protected cell company shall extend only to, and that creditor shall, with

respect to that obligation, be entitled to have recourse only to the assets of the protected cell

company's general account.

     (d) Other than with regard to the application of §27-64-6 this section, the The activities,

assets, and obligations relating to a protected cell are not subject to the provisions of chapters 34,

34.1, and 34.3 of this title and neither a protected cell nor a protected cell company shall be

assessed by or be required to contribute to any guaranty fund or guaranty association in this state

with respect to the activities, assets or obligations of a protected cell. Nothing in this section shall

affect the activities or obligations of an insurer's general account.

     (e) In no event shall the establishment of one or more protected cells alone constitute or

be deemed to be a fraudulent conveyance,; an intent by the protected cell company to defraud

creditors; or the carrying out of business by the protected cell company for any other fraudulent

purpose.


 

 

249)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

27-75

195 and 372

 

 

27-75. [Repeal Chapter]


 

 

250)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

28-6.14

408 and 431

 

 

CHAPTER 6.14

EMPLOYMENT APPLICATIONS PROHIBITED


 

 

251)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-9.1-17

15 and 33

 

 

28-9.1-17. Continuance of contractual provisions.

All contractual provisions contained in a collective bargaining agreement entered into

pursuant to the provisions of this chapter shall continue in the following collective bargaining

agreement unless either the bargaining agent or the corporate authority shall, in writing, within

the thirty-(30) day (30) period referred to in § 28-9.1-7, propose a change in any contractual

provision. The parties may agree in writing to continue all contractual provisions contained in a

collective bargaining agreement until such time as the parties enter into, and have ratified or

arbitrated, a successor agreement.


 

 

252)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-9.7-7

129 and 148

 

 

28-9.7-7. Unresolved issues submitted to arbitration.

In the event that the bargaining agent and the state authorities are unable within thirty

(30) days from and including the date of their first meeting to reach an agreement on a contract,

any and all unresolved issues shall be submitted to arbitration. The parties may agree in writing to

extend the thirty-(30) day (30) period.


  

 

253)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-33-18.3

106 and 266

 

 

28-33-18.3. Continuation of benefits -- Partial incapacity.

     (a) (1) For all injuries occurring on or after September 1, 1990, in those cases where the

employee has received a notice of intention to terminate partial-incapacity benefits pursuant to §

28-33-18, the employee, or his or her duly authorized representative, may file with the workers'

compensation court a petition for continuation of benefits on forms prescribed by the workers'

compensation court. In any proceeding before the workers' compensation court on a petition for

continuation of partial-incapacity benefits, where the employee demonstrates by a fair

preponderance of the evidence that his or her partial incapacity poses a material hindrance to

obtaining employment suitable to his or her limitation, partial-incapacity benefits shall continue.

For injuries on and after July 1, 2023, "material hindrance" is defined to include only

compensable injuries causing a greater than sixty-five percent (65%) degree of functional

impairment and/or disability. Any period of time for which the employee has received benefits

for total incapacity shall not be included in the calculation of the three hundred and twelve-week

(312) period.

     (2) The provisions of this subsection apply to all injuries from Sept. 1, 1990, to July 1,

2023.

     (b) (1) Where any employee's incapacity is partial and has extended for more than three

hundred and twelve (312) weeks and the employee has proved an entitlement to continued

benefits under subsection (a), payments made to these incapacitated employees shall be increased

annually on the tenth (10th) day of May thereafter so long as the employee remains incapacitated.

The increase shall be by an amount equal to the total percentage increase in the annual Consumer

Price Index, United States City Average for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, as

formulated and computed by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of

Labor for the period of March 1 to February 28 each year.

     (2) "Index", as used in this section, refers to the Consumer Price Index, United States

City Average for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, as that index was formulated and

computed by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor.

     (3) The annual increase shall be based upon the percentage increase, if any, in the

Consumer Price Index for the month of a given year, over the index for February the previous

year. Thereafter, increases shall be made on May 10 annually, based upon the percentage

increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index for the period of March 1 to February 28.

     (4) The computations in this section shall be made by the director of labor and training

and promulgated to insurers and employers making payments required by this section. Increases

shall be paid by insurers and employers without further order of the court. If payment payable

under this section is not mailed within fourteen (14) days after the employer or insurer has been

notified by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in the state it becomes due, there

shall be added to the unpaid payment an amount equal to twenty percent (20%) of it, to be paid at

the same time as, but in addition to, the payment.

     (5) This section applies only to payment of weekly indemnity benefits to employees as

described in subdivision (b)(1) and does not apply to specific compensation payments for loss of

use or disfigurement or payment of dependency benefits or any other benefits payable under the

workers' compensation act.

     (c) No petitions for commutation shall be allowed or entertained in those cases where an

employee is receiving benefits pursuant to this section.


 

 

254)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-38-23

106 and 266

 

 

28-38-23. Name change.

The name of the curative centre in the department shall be the Dr. John E. Donley Chief

Judge Robert F. Arrigan rehabilitation center.


 

 

255)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-38-24

106 and 266

 

 

28-38-24. Reference to curative centre.

Wherever in any existing law reference is made to the curative centre, and wherever in an

existing law the term "state curative centre" or "curative centre" or "the centre," "the Donley

Center" or "the Dr. John E. Donley Rehabilitation Center", as variously used, refers to the

curative centre in the department, that reference and that term shall be deemed to have reference

to the Dr. John E. Donley Chief Judge Robert F. Arrigan rehabilitation center.


 

 

256)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-42-38

189 and 319

 

 

28-42-38. Records and reports -- Confidentiality of information.

     (a) Every employer and every employing unit employing any person in employment in

this state shall keep true and accurate employment records of all persons employed by him or her,

and of the weekly hours worked for him or her by each, and of the weekly wages paid by him or

her to each person; and every employer and employing unit shall keep records containing any

other information that the director may prescribe. Those records shall at all times be available

within this state and shall be open to inspection by the director, or his or her authorized

representatives, at any reasonable time and as often as the director shall deem necessary.

     (b) The director may require from any employer, or employing unit, employing any

person in this state, any reports covering persons employed by him or her, on employment,

wages, hours, unemployment, and related matters which that the director deems necessary to the

effective administration of chapters 42 -- 44 of this title.

     (c) (1) Information obtained, or information contained in other records of the department

obtained from any individual pursuant to the administration of those chapters, shall be held

confidential by the director and shall not be published or be open to public inspection in any

manner revealing the individual's or employing unit's identity, but any claimant at a hearing

provided for in those chapters shall be supplied with information from those records of the extent

necessary for the proper presentation of his or her claim. Any department employee guilty of

violating this provision shall be subject to the penalties provided in chapters 42 -- 44 of this title;

provided, that nothing contained in this subsection shall be construed to prevent:

     (i) The director, or any qualified attorney whom the director has designated to represent

him or her in any court of this state, or the attorney general from making any record, report, or

other information referred to in this section, available in any proceeding before any court of this

state in any action to which the director is a party;

     (ii) The director from making any record, report, or other information referred to in this

section, available to any agency of this state or any agency of a political subdivision of this state

charged with the administration of public assistance within this state, or any of its political

subdivisions;

     (iii) The director from making any record, report, or other information referred to in this

section, available to the railroad retirement board or to employees of the Internal Revenue Service

in the performance of their public duties, and the director shall furnish, at the expense of the

railroad retirement board or the Internal Revenue Service, copies of those records, reports, or

other information referred to in this section;

     (iv) The director from making available, upon request and on a reimbursable basis, any

record, report, or other information referred to in this section to the federal Department of Health

and Human Services in accordance with the provisions of United States P.L. 100-485, Family

Support Act of 1988, or to the federal Department of Housing and Urban Development and to

authorized representatives of public housing agencies in accordance with the Stewart B.

McKinney Homeless Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. § 11301 et seq.;

     (v) The director from making available to the division of taxation, upon request of the tax

administrator, any record, report, or other information referred to in Title 28, Chapter 42 chapter

42 of this title for the purposes of compiling the annual unified economic development budget

report and performing the requirements under subsection § 42-142-3(e); enforcing the provisions

of Title 28, Chapter 42 chapter 42 of this title; and/or performing any of its obligations under

Ttitle 44. The information received by the division of taxation from the department of labor and

training pursuant hereto pertaining to an individual employer shall be held confidential and shall

not be open to public inspection. Nothing herein shall prohibit the disclosure of statistics and/or

statistical data that do not disclose the identity of individual employers and/or the contents of

specific returns;

     (vi) The director from making, and the director shall make, reports in the form and

containing any information that the federal Social Security Administration may, from time to

time, require, and complying with any provisions that the federal Social Security Administration

may, from time to time, find necessary to assure the correctness and verification of those reports.

The director shall make available, upon request, to any agency of the United States charged with

the administration of public works or assistance through public employment, the name, address,

ordinary occupation, and employment status of each recipient of unemployment compensation

and a statement of that recipient's rights to further compensation under that law;

     (vii) The director from conducting any investigations he or she deems relevant in

connection with these provisions;

     (viii) The director from conducting any investigations he or she deems relevant in

connection with the performance of his or her duties pursuant to the administration of the

chapters 29, 32, 33, 34, 36, 37 and 41 of this title, or from making any record, report, or other

information referred to in this section available to the workers' compensation fraud prevention

unit for use in the performance of its duties under § 42-16.1-12;

     (ix) The director from forwarding, and the director shall forward, to the jury

commissioner, the names and addresses of all individuals who are receiving unemployment

compensation on a yearly basis in accordance with § 9-9-1(e);

     (x) The director from providing data on unemployment insurance recipients or any other

data contained in departmental records that is obtained from an individual, pursuant to the

administration of chapters 42 -- 44 of this title, to the department's designated research partners

for the purpose of its workforce data quality and workforce innovation fund initiatives. The

provision of these records will be done in accordance with an approved data-sharing agreement

between the department and its designated research partners that protects the security and

confidentiality of these records and, through procedures, established by protocols, rules, and/or

regulations as determined necessary by the director and appropriately established or promulgated;

     (xi) The director from making available upon request and on a reimbursable basis to the

department of corrections, and solely for the purpose of case management and post-release

supervision, any record, report, or other information referred to in chapter 42 of title 28 this title

relating to wages, earnings, professional licenses, work or vocational skills or training, and work

history of offenders under the department of corrections' supervision for the purpose of case

management and post-release supervision. The information received by the department of

corrections from the department of labor and training pursuant to this subsection shall be held

confidential and shall not be open to public inspection. Nothing in this subsection shall prohibit

the disclosure of statistics and/or statistical data that does not disclose the identity of individuals,

nor shall it prevent information referred to in this subsection from being available in any

proceeding before any court of this state in an action in which an offender's conditions of

probation or obligation to pay restitution and/or costs and fines are the subject of the court

proceedings.; or

     (xii) The director from making any record, report, or other information referred to in this

section available to the employees' retirement system of Rhode Island and the office of the

general treasurer for the sole purpose of ensuring compliance with §§16-16-19, 16-16-24, 36-10-

17, 36-10-36, 45-21-24, and 45-21-54.

     (2) The director may publish in statistical form the results of any investigations without

disclosing the identity of the individuals involved.


 

 

 

257)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-44-69

81 and 93

 

 

28-44-69. Work-sharing benefits.

     (a) Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:

     (1) "Affected unit" means a specified plant, department, shift, or other definable unit

consisting of two (2) or more employees to which an approved work-sharing plan applies.

     (2) "Eligible employee" means an individual who usually works for the employer

submitting a work-sharing plan.

     (3) "Eligible employer" means any employer who has had contributions credited to his or

her account and benefits have been chargeable to this account, or who has elected to reimburse

the fund in lieu of paying contributions, and who is not delinquent in the payment of

contributions or reimbursements as required by chapters 42 -- 44, inclusive of this title.

     (4) "Fringe benefits" include, but are not limited to, health insurance, retirement benefits,

paid vacation and holidays, sick leave, and similar advantages that are incidents of employment.

     (5) "Intermittent employment" means employment that is not continuous but may consist

of periodic intervals of weekly work and intervals of no weekly work.

     (6) "Seasonal employment" means employment with an employer who displays a twenty

percent (20%) difference between its highest level of employment and its lowest level of

employment each year for the three (3) previous calendar years as reported to the department of

labor and training, or as shown in the information that is available and satisfactory to the director.

     (7) "Temporary employment" means employment where an employee is expected to

remain in a position for only a limited period of time and/or is hired by a temporary agency to fill

a gap in an employer's workforce.

     (8) "Usual weekly hours of work" means the normal hours of work each week for an

employee in an affected unit when that unit is operating on a full-time basis, not to exceed forty

(40) hours and not including overtime.

     (9) "Work-sharing benefits" means benefits payable to employees in an affected unit

under an approved work-sharing plan.

     (10) "Work-sharing employer" means an employer with an approved work-sharing plan

in effect.

     (11) "Work-sharing plan" means a plan submitted by an employer under which there is a

reduction in the number of hours worked by the employees in the affected unit in lieu of layoffs

of some of the employees.

     (b) (1) Criteria for approval of a work-sharing plan. An employer wishing to participate

in the work-sharing program shall submit a signed, written, work-sharing plan to the director for

approval. The director shall approve a work-sharing plan only if the following requirements are

met:

     (i) The plan identifies the affected unit, or units, and specifies the effective date of the

plan;

     (ii) The employees in the affected unit, or units, are identified by name; social security

number; the usual weekly hours of work; proposed wage and hour reduction; and any other

information that the director shall require;

     (iii) The plan certifies that the reduction in the usual weekly hours of work is in lieu of

layoffs that would have affected at least 10 percent (10%) of the employees in the affected unit,

or units, to which the plan applies and that would have resulted in an equivalent reduction in work

hours;

     (iv) The usual weekly hours of work for employees in the affected unit, or units, are

reduced by not less than 10 percent (10%) and not more than 50 percent (50%) and the reduction

in hours in each affected unit is spread equally among employees in the affected unit;

     (v) If the employer provides health benefits and/or retirement benefits under a defined-

benefit plan as defined in 26 U.S.C. § 414(j) of the Internal Revenue Code or contributions under

a defined-contribution plan as defined in 26 U.S.C. § 414(i) of the Internal Revenue Code to any

employee whose workweek is reduced under the program, the employer certifies that such

benefits will continue to be provided to employees participating in the work-sharing program

under the same terms and conditions as though the workweek of such employee had not been

reduced or to the same extent as other employees not participating in the work-sharing program;

     (vi) In the case of employees represented by a collective bargaining agent or union, the

plan is approved in writing by the collective bargaining agents or unions that cover the affected

employees. In the absence of any collective bargaining agent or union, the plan must contain a

certification by the employer that the proposed plan, or a summary of the plan, has been made

available to each employee in the affected unit;

     (vii) The plan will not serve as a subsidy of seasonal employment during the off season,

nor as a subsidy for temporary or intermittent employment;

     (viii) The employer agrees to furnish reports relating to the proper conduct of the plan

and agrees to allow the director, or his or her authorized representatives, access to all records

necessary to verify the plan prior to approval and, after approval, to monitor and evaluate

application of the plan;

     (ix) The employer describes the manner in which the requirements of this section will be

implemented (including a plan for giving notice, where feasible, to an employee whose

workweek is to be reduced) together with an estimate of the number of layoffs that would have

occurred absent the ability to participate in the work-sharing program and such other information

as the director of the department of labor and training determines is appropriate;

     (x) The employer attests that the terms of the employer's written plan and implementation

are consistent with the employer's obligations under applicable federal and state laws; and

     (xi) In addition to the matters previously specified in this section, the director shall take

into account any other factors that may be pertinent to proper implementation of the plan.

     (c) Approval or rejection of the plan. The director shall approve or reject a plan in

writing. The reasons for rejection shall be final and not subject to appeal. The employer shall be

allowed to submit another plan for consideration and that determination will be made based upon

the new data submitted by the interested employer.

     (d) Effective date and duration of the plan. A plan shall be effective on the date specified

in the plan, or on the first Sunday following the date on which the plan is approved by the

director, whichever is later. A work-sharing plan shall be effective on the date that is mutually

agreed upon by the employer and the director, which shall be specified in the notice of approval

sent to the employer. It shall expire at the end of the twelfth, full-calendar month after its

effective date, or on the date specified in the plan if that date is earlier; provided that the plan is

not previously revoked by the director. If a plan is revoked by the director, it shall terminate on

the date specified in the director's written order of revocation.

     (e) Revocation of approval. The director may revoke approval of a work-sharing plan for

good cause. The revocation order shall be in writing and shall specify the date the revocation is

effective and the reasons for it. The revocation order shall be final and not subject to appeal.

     (1) Good cause shall include, but not be limited to: (i) Failure to comply with assurances

given in the plan; (ii) Unreasonable revision of productivity standards for the affected unit; (iii)

Conduct or occurrences tending to defeat the intent and effective operation of the plan; and (iv)

Violation of any criteria on which approval of the plan was based.

     (2) The action may be taken at any time by the director on his or her own motion; on the

motion of any of the affected unit's employees; or on the motion of the collective bargaining

agent or agents. The director shall review the operation of each qualified employer plan at least

once during the period the plan is in effect to assure its compliance with the work-sharing

requirements.

     (f) Modification of the plan. An operational approved, work-sharing plan may be

modified by the employer with the consent of the collective bargaining agent or agents, if any, if

the modification is not substantial and is in conformity with the plan approved by the director,

provided the modifications are reported promptly to the director by the employer. If the hours of

work are increased or decreased substantially beyond the level in the original plan, or any other

conditions are changed substantially, the director shall approve or disapprove the modifications

without changing the expiration date of the original plan. If the substantial modifications do not

meet the requirements for approval, the director shall disallow that portion of the plan in writing.

The decision of the director shall be final and not subject to appeal.

     (g) Eligibility for work-sharing benefits. An individual is eligible to receive work-sharing

benefits, subsequent to serving a waiting period as prescribed by the director, with respect to any

week only if, in addition to meeting other conditions of eligibility for regular benefits under this

title that are not inconsistent with this section, the director finds that:

     (1) During the week, the individual is employed as a member of an affected unit under an

approved work-sharing plan that was approved prior to that week, and the plan is in effect with

respect to the week for which work-sharing benefits are claimed.

     (2) The individual is able to work and is available for the normal work week with the

work-sharing employer.

     (3) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this chapter to the contrary, an individual is

deemed unemployed in any week for which remuneration is payable to him or her as an employee

in an affected unit for less than his or her normal weekly hours of work as specified under the

approved work-sharing plan in effect for the week.

     (4) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this title to the contrary, an individual shall

not be denied work-sharing benefits for any week by reason of the application of provisions

relating to the availability for work and active search for work with an employer other than the

work-sharing employer.

     (5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this title to the contrary, eligible employees

may participate, as appropriate, in training (including employer-sponsored training or worker

training funded under the Workforce Investment Act of 1998) to enhance job skills if such

program has been approved by the state agency.

     (h) (1) Work-sharing benefits. The work-sharing weekly benefit amount shall be the

product of the regular, weekly benefit rate, including any dependents' allowances, multiplied by

the percentage reduction in the individual's usual weekly hours of work as specified in the

approved plan. If the work-sharing, weekly benefit amount is not an exact multiple of one dollar

($1.00), then the weekly benefit amount shall be rounded down to the next, lower multiple of one

dollar ($1.00).

     (2) An individual may be eligible for work-sharing benefits or regular unemployment

compensation, as appropriate, except that no individual shall be eligible for combined benefits in

any benefit year in an amount more than the maximum entitlement established for unemployment

compensation, nor shall an individual be paid work-sharing benefits for more than fifty-two (52)

weeks, whether or not consecutive, in any benefit year pursuant to an approved work-sharing

plan.

     (3) The work-sharing benefits paid shall be deducted from the maximum-entitlement

amount established for that individual's benefit year.

     (4) If an employer approves time off and the worker has performed some work during the

week, the individual is eligible for work-sharing benefits based on the combined work and paid

leave hours for that week. If the employer does not grant time off, the question of availability

must be investigated.

     (5) If an employee was sick and consequently did not work all the hours offered by the

work-sharing employer in a given week, the employee will be denied work-sharing benefits for

that week.

     (6) Claims for work-sharing benefits shall be filed in the same manner as claims for

unemployment compensation or as prescribed in regulations by the director.

     (7) Provisions applicable to unemployment compensation claimants shall apply to work-

sharing claimants to the extent that they are not inconsistent with the established work-sharing

provisions. An individual who files an initial claim for work-sharing benefits shall be provided, if

eligible for benefits, a monetary determination of entitlement to work-sharing benefits and shall

serve a waiting week.

     (8) If an individual works in the same week for an employer other than the work-sharing

employer, the individual's work-sharing benefits shall be computed in the same manner as if the

individual worked solely with the work-sharing employer. If the individual is not able to work, or

is not available for the normal work week with the work-sharing employer, then no work-sharing

benefits shall be payable to that individual for that week.

     (9) An individual who performs no services during a week for the work-sharing employer

and is otherwise eligible shall be paid the full, weekly unemployment compensation amount. That

week shall not be counted as a week with respect to which work-sharing benefits were received.

     (10) An individual who does not work for the work-sharing employer during a week, but

works for another employer and is otherwise eligible, shall be paid benefits for that week under

the partial unemployment compensation provisions of this chapter. That week shall not be

counted as a week with respect to which work-sharing benefits were received.

     (11) Nothing in the section shall preclude an otherwise eligible individual from receiving

total or partial unemployment benefits when the individual's work-sharing benefits have been

exhausted.

     (i) Benefit charges. Work-sharing benefits shall be charged to employer accounts in the

same manner as regular benefits in accordance with the provisions of §§ 28-43-3 and 28-43-29.

Notwithstanding the above, any work-sharing benefits paid on or after July 1, 2013, that are

eligible for federal reimbursement, shall not be chargeable to employer accounts and employers

liable for payments in lieu of contributions shall not be responsible for reimbursing the

employment security fund for any benefits paid to their employees on or after July 1, 2013, that

are reimbursed by the federal government.

     (j) Extended benefits. An individual who has received all of the unemployment

compensation or combined unemployment compensation and work-sharing benefits available in a

benefit year shall be considered an exhaustee for purposes of extended benefits, as provided

under the provisions of § 28-44-62, and, if otherwise eligible under those provisions, shall be

eligible to receive extended benefits.

     (k) Severability. If any provision of this section, or its application to any person or

circumstance, is held invalid under federal law, the remainder of the section and the application

of that provision to other persons or circumstances shall not be affected by that invalidity.


 

 

258)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-53-2

106 and 266

 

 

28-53-2. Establishment -- Sources -- Administration.

     (a) There shall be established within the department of labor and training a special

restricted receipt account to be known as the Rhode Island uninsured employers fund. The fund

shall be capitalized from excise taxes assessed against uninsured employers pursuant to the

provisions of § 28-53-9 of this chapter and from general revenues appropriated by the legislature.

Beginning in state fiscal year ending June 30, 2017 June 30, 2018, the legislature may appropriate

up to two million dollars ($2,000,000) in general revenue funds annually for deposit into the

Rhode Island uninsured employers fund.

     (b) All moneys in the fund shall be mingled and undivided. The fund shall be

administered by the director of the department of labor and training, or his or her designee, but in

no case shall the director incur any liability beyond the amounts paid into and earned by the fund.

     (c) All amounts owed to the uninsured employers fund from illegally uninsured

employers are intended to be excise taxes and as such, all ambiguities and uncertainties are to be

resolved in favor of a determination that such assessments are excise taxes.


 

 

259)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-53-7

106 and 266

 

 

28-53-7. Payments to employees of uninsured employers.

     (a) Where it is determined that the employee was injured in the course of employment

while working for an employer who fails to maintain a policy of workers' compensation insurance

as required by § 28-36-1 et seq., the uninsured employers fund shall pay the benefits to which the

injured employee would be entitled pursuant to chapters 29 to 38 of this title subject to the

limitations set forth herein.

     (b) The workers' compensation court shall hear all petitions for payment from the fund

pursuant to § 28-30-1 et seq.; provided, however, that the uninsured employers fund and the

employer shall be named as parties to any petition seeking payment of benefits from the fund.

     (c) Where an employee is deemed to be entitled to benefits from the uninsured employers

fund, the fund shall pay benefits for disability and medical expenses as provided pursuant to

chapters 29 to 38 of this title except that the employee shall not be entitled to receive benefits for

loss of function and disfigurement pursuant to the provisions of § 28-33-19.

     (d) The fund shall pay costs, counsel, and witness fees, as provided in § 28-35-32, to any

employee who successfully prosecutes any petitions for compensation; petitions for medical

expenses; petitions to amend a pretrial order or memorandum of agreement; and all other

employee petitions; and to employees who successfully defend, in whole or in part, proceedings

seeking to reduce or terminate any and all workers' compensation benefits; provided, however,

that the attorney's fees awarded to counsel who represents the employee in petitions for lump-sum

commutation filed pursuant to § 28-33-25, or in the settlement of disputed cases pursuant to § 28-

33-25.1, shall be limited to the maximum amount paid to counsel who serve as court-appointed

attorneys in workers' compensation proceedings as established by rule or order of the Rhode

Island supreme court.

     (e) In the event that the uninsured employer makes payment of any monies to the

employee to compensate the employee for lost wages or medical expenses, the fund shall be

entitled to a credit for all such monies received by, or on behalf of, the employee against any

future benefits payable directly to the employee.

 (f) This section shall apply to injuries that occur on or after July 1, 2017 July 1, 2018.


 

 

260)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

28-57

347 and 357

 

 

CHAPTER 57

HEALTHY AND SAFE FAMILIES AND WORKPLACES ACT


 

 

261)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

30-15-6

84 and 86

 

 

30-15-6. Advisory council.

     (a) There is hereby created the Rhode Island emergency management advisory council

(hereinafter in this chapter called the "council"). The council will consist of forty (40) thirty-eight

(38) members as follows:

     (1) Twenty-two (22) Twenty-three (23) ex officio members as follows:

     (i) The lieutenant governor or designee;

     (ii) The adjutant general or designee;

     (iii) The director of the department of administration/statewide planning or designee;

     (iv) The director of the department of health or designee;

     (v) The director of transportation or designee;

     (vi) The director of human services or designee;

     (vii) The superintendent of state police director of the department of public safety or

designee;

     (viii) The administrator of the division of public utilities and carriers or designee

administrator;

     (ix) The director of the department of environmental management or designee;

     (x) The director of the department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities

and hospitals or designee;

     (xi) The director of elderly affairs;

     (xii) The chairperson of the state water resources board;

     (xiii) The chairperson of the governor's commission on disabilities or designee;

     (xiv) The chairperson of the Rhode Island public transit authority or designee;

     (xv) The executive director of the coastal resources management council or his or her

designee;

     (xvi) The executive director of the American Red Cross, Rhode Island chapter, or

designee;

     (xvii) The director of the Rhode Island emergency management agency or designee;

     (xviii) The state court administrator or designee;

     (xix) The executive director of the commission on the deaf and hard of hearing or

designee;

     (xx) The director of the Providence emergency management agency or designee;

     (xxi) The executive director of the E-911 emergency telephone system division or

designee;

     (xxii) The federal security director of the transportation security administration for Rhode

Island; and

     (xxiii) The secretary of the executive office of health and human services or designee;

     (xxiv) The president of the Rhode Island aAssociation of eEmergency mManagers or

designee;

     (xxv) The president of the United Way of Rhode Island or designee; and

     (xxvi) The executive director of the Rhode Island commission for national and

community services or designee.

     (2) Eighteen (18) Fifteen (15) members appointed by, and serving at the pleasure of, the

governor, as follows:

     (i) Two (2) members of the senate, recommended by the president of the senate, not more

than one of whom shall be from the same political party;

     (ii) Two (2) members of the house of representatives, recommended by the speaker of the

house, not more than one of whom shall be from the same political party;

     (iii) One representative of the gas and electric industry;

     (iv) One representative of the gas industry;

     (v) One representative of the telephone industry;

     (vi) The executive director of the Rhode Island Petroleum Association or other similarly

situated person;

     (vii) Two (2) representatives of the general public, one of who whom shall have expertise in

disaster preparedness;

     (viii) One representative of the Rhode Island League of Cities and Towns;

     (ix) One representative of the media;

     (x) One representative of the water supply industry;

     (xi) One representative of the health care industry;

     (xii) One representative of the Rhode Island State Firefighters Association of

Firefighters;

     (xiii) One representative of the Rhode Island Association of Fire Chiefs; and

     (xiv) One representative of a private ambulance company; and

     (xv) One representative of a level I trauma hospital who shall have direct expertise in

disaster preparedness.

     (xvi) One representative of the Rhode Island Police Chiefs Association.

     (b) It shall be the duty of the council to advise the governor and the director of the Rhode

Island emergency management agency on all matters pertaining to disaster preparedness. The

lieutenant governor shall serve as chairperson of the council and the director of the Rhode Island

emergency management agency shall serve as vice-chairperson. A quorum shall consist of twelve

(12) members of the council. In providing advice to the governor and the director, the council

shall, among other matters reasonably related to their its authority, do the following:

     (1) Establish a regular meeting schedule and form subcommittees as may be appropriate;

     (2) Review emergency management plans and other matters as may be acted upon or

otherwise provided for in this chapter;

     (3) Establish priorities and goals on emergency management matters on an annual basis;

     (4) Study emergency management plans in conjunction with the director of the Rhode

Island emergency management agency, and otherwise conduct such other studies as may be

deemed appropriate;

     (5) Review the coordination of the state's emergency management programs with

appropriate authorized agencies and conduct studies on the programs as may be necessary;

     (6) Review the plans and operations of the various cities and towns in disaster

preparedness in conjunction with the director of the Rhode Island emergency management agency

and his or her office as required or necessary; and

     (7) [Deleted by P.L. 2000, ch. 170, § 2];

     (8) Provide an annual report on its activities in conjunction with the director.


 

 

262)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

30-17.1-9

131 and 152

 

 

30-17.1-9. Definitions.

     When used in this chapter, the following terms shall have the following meanings:

     (1) "Advisory Ccommittee" means the veterans' services strategic plan advisory committee

as established in § 30-17.1-10.

     (2) "Committee" means the veterans' committee pursuant to the provisions of § 30-17.1-

11(c).

     (3) "State agencies" means state entities responsible for the implementation of services

for Rhode Island veterans and their families including:

     (i) The office of veterans' affairs;

     (ii) The division of planning Rhode Island public transit authority;

     (iii) The department of human services;

     (iv) The Rhode Island board of education office of post-secondary education;

     (v) The department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals;

     (vi) The department of health;

     (vii) The division of elderly affairs;

     (viii) The department of business regulation;

     (ix) The department of the attorney general Rhode Island veteran's court;

     (x) The department of labor and training;

     (xi) The Rhode Island commerce corporation; and

     (xii) The office of the secretary of state.; and

     (xiii) The Rhode Island national guard.

     (4) "Veterans' services strategic plan ("VSSP') (‘VSSP’)" means the strategic plan as

established in § 30-17.1-11.


 

 

263)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

30-17.1-10

131 and 152

 

 

30-17.1-10. Veterans' services strategic plan advisory committee established.

     (a) There is hereby created a veterans' services strategic plan advisory committee known

as "the Rhode Island veterans' services strategic plan advisory committee" consisting of thirteen

(13) fourteen (14) members as follows:

     (1) One of whom shall be the director of the office of veterans' affairs, or his or her

designee, who shall serve as chairperson;

     (2) One of whom shall be the director of the department of human services, or his or her

designee;

     (3) One of whom shall be the associate executive director of the public transit authority

division of planning, or his or her designee;

     (4) One of whom shall be the chair of the Rhode Island board of education postsecondary

education commissioner, or his or her designee;

     (5) One of whom shall be the director of the department of behavioral healthcare,

developmental disabilities and hospitals, or his or her designee;

     (6) One of whom shall be the director of the department of health, or his or her designee;

     (7) One of whom shall be the director of the division of elderly affairs, or his or her

designee;

     (8) One of whom shall be the director of the department of business regulation, or his or

her designee;

     (9) One of whom shall be the attorney general chief judge of the district court, or his or

her designee;

     (10) One of whom shall be the director of the department of labor and training, or his or

her designee;

     (11) One of whom shall be the director of the Rhode Island commerce corporation, or his

or her designee;

     (12) One of whom shall be the secretary of state, or his or her designee;

     (13) One of whom shall be the adjutant general of the Rhode Island national guard, or his

or her designee.; and

     (14) One of whom shall be a representative for Rhode Island municipal governments.

     (b) Forthwith upon the passage of this chapter, the members of the advisory committee

shall meet at the call of the chairperson and organize. Thereafter, the committee shall meet

quarterly and at the call of the chairperson or three (3) members of the advisory committee.

     (c) All departments and agencies of the state shall furnish such advice and information,

documentation, and otherwise to the committee and its agents as is deemed necessary or desirable

by the advisory committee to facilitate the purposes of this chapter.

     (d) The department of human services office of veterans' affairs is hereby directed to

provide suitable quarters and staff for the advisory committee.

     (e) All departments and agencies of the state shall furnish such advice and information,

documentation, and otherwise to the commission and its agents as is deemed necessary or

desirable by the advisory committee to facilitate the purposes of this chapter.

     (f) The members of the advisory committee shall receive no compensation for their

services. Members of the committee shall serve for a term of three (3) years and may not succeed

themselves more than once after January 1, 2016.


 

 

264)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

30-17.1-11

131 and 152

 

 

30-17.1-11. The duties of the committee.

     (a) The advisory committee, acting through the office of veterans' affairs, shall work in

conjunction with the department of human services to develop, maintain, and annually update a

five-year (5) statewide veterans' services strategic plan ("VSSP") that includes goals and

measurable outcomes to ensure that all departments deliver comprehensive services and supports

for veterans and their families.

     (b) The advisory committee shall conduct an analysis of study toward the development of

the "VSSP" that shall include, but not be limited to, the following veterans' issues:

     (1) Access to benefits Living in poverty;

     (2) Employment opportunities Disability benefits;

     (3) Veteran-owned small business growth Employment and training;

     (4) Educational attainment Education;

     (5) Job skills training Family members and caregivers;

     (6) Behavioral health Financial planning;

     (7) Long-term health care options Homelessness;

     (8) Criminal justice issues Legal servicesand

     (9) Homelessness. Long-term care;

     (10) Mortuary affairs;

     (11) Healthcare;

     (12) Transitional assistance; and

     (13) Transportation.

     (c) Establish a veterans' committee comprised of no fewer than five (5) The chairperson

of the committee shall consult regularly with veterans and community groups thatrepresenting

represent diverse interests and viewpoints and the federal department of veterans' affairsthat

shall provide to receive input to the advisory committee on all matters pertaining to the

preparation or implementation of the veterans' services strategic plan. The committee shall

receive administrative support from the departments and the members shall not receive

compensation for their service. The committee shall meet at least quarterly and at the call of the

co-chairs or four (4) members of the veterans' committee.

     (d) The "VSSP" shall:

     (1) Be based upon comprehensive data gained through open and transparent engagement

of veterans' stakeholders;

     (2) Produce veteran-centric policies and procedures informed by forward looking

planning;

     (3) Realistically assess resource adequacy and capabilities delivered;

     (4) Ensure that existing resources are aligned to mission critical objectives;

     (5) Compleiment, as well as leverage, existing U.S. Veterans' Administration programs

and best practices;

     (6) Foster state, federal, and private partnerships that seamlessly deliver exceptional

services to the state's veteran population; and

     (7) More effectively coordinate the delivery of veterans' services to all current and future

veterans in Rhode Island.


 

 

265)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

30-17.1-12

131 and 152

 

 

30-17.1-12. Meeting and reporting requirements for the advisory committee.

     (a) The advisory committee shall meet regularly on a quarterly an annual basis and at the

call of the chairperson or three (3) committee members.

     (b) The advisory committee shall provide a copy of the veterans' services strategic plan

"VSSP" to the senate president, speaker of the house, senate fiscal advisor, and house fiscal

advisor one year after the enactment of amendment of this act.

     (c) The advisory committee shall report annually to the governor and the general

assembly, no later than April of each year, on the progress made in achieving the goals and

objectives set forth and any other pertinent information. A progress update of the "VSSP" in the

office of veterans’ affairs annual report will satisfy this requirement.

     (d) The advisory committee shall update the "VSSP" every five (5) years and provide a

copy of the plan to the senate president, speaker of the house, and senate and house fiscal

advisors.

     (e) The advisory committee shall be subject to the provisions of § 38-2-1 et seq., Access

to Public Records Act, and § 42-46-1 et seq., Open Meetings Act.


 

 

266)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

30-24-3

131 and 152

 

 

30-24-3. Administrator -- Advisory council.

     (a) The director of human services veterans’ affairs’ shall appoint an administrator for the

Rhode Island veterans' home who shall be an honorably discharged war veteran of the United

States Armed Forces.

     (b) There shall be an advisory council for veterans' affairs, consisting of not more than

twenty-seven (27) fifteen (15) qualified electors of this state, ten (10) of whom shall be honorably

discharged war veterans of the armed forces of the United States; sixteen (16) twelve (12) of the

members shall be appointed by the governor, consisting of a member designated by each of the

various state departments of the active federally-chartered veteran organizations, one of whom

shall be a member of the purple heart organization, and the remaining member or members at

large; provided, however, that each of those departments of veteran organizations shall have, and

continue to have, at least one member on the advisory council for veterans' affairs; and, provided

further, that one member shall be a female veteran, one member shall be a minority veteran;, one

member shall be a representative of the Persian Gulf War Veterans' Association, and one member

shall be a representative of the Korean War Veterans' Association; seven (7) members; shall

consist of five (5) one members member of the house of representatives, not more than four (4)

members from the same political party, to be appointed by the speaker of the house of

representatives, and two (2) one members member from the senate, not more than one from the

same political party, to be appointed by the president of the senate. The seven (7) members of the

general assembly who shall serve on the advisory council for veterans' affairs shall serve so long

as they are members of the general assembly.

     (b) The remaining members shall be one former representative having served at least five

(5) years on the advisory council, to be appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives,

and one former senator having served at least five (5) years on the advisory council, to be

appointed by the president of the senate. If either of the last two (2) mentioned are not available,

the selections may be members at-large selected from the general public; provided, further, the

immediate past chief of veterans' affairs shall serve as ex-officio of the veterans' council with

voting privileges for a period of five (5) years and may be reappointed for an additional term by

the governor. The final remaining member shall be an active National Guard person to be

appointed by the state adjutant general.


 

 

267)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

30-24-4

123 and 153

 

 

30-24-4. Appointments to advisory council -- Organization and meetings.

Annually, on or before July 1, the governor shall appoint a successor of each member of

the advisory council whose term expires, these appointments to be for a term of three (3) years.

Provided, however, that a former state representative or senator having served at least five (5)

years on the advisory council shall be appointed for a term of at least five (5) years. In case of any

vacancy or additional members on the council, the governor shall appoint a new member for the

unexpired portion of the term of that membership as hereinbefore provided. Members of the

council shall serve without pay. The advisory council shall elect one of its members to serve as

chairperson for a period of one year and until a successor is elected and qualified. Meetings shall

be held at the call of the chairperson; provided, however, that a majority of the members may call

a meeting of the advisory council at any time, all members being notified in any case by mail and

reasonably in advance of any such meetings. A majority of members shall constitute a quorum for

the transaction of business. The governor may remove a member of the council for neglect of

duty. Secretarial service Administrative support for the council shall be provided by the director

of veterans’ affairs the department of human servicesProvided, further, the immediate past chief

of veterans' affairs shall serve as ex-officio of the veterans' council with voting privileges for a

period of five (5) years and may be reappointed for an additional term by the governor.


  

 

268)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

30-24-5

123 and 153

 

 

30-24-5. Functions of advisory council.

The advisory council for veterans' affairs shall exercise and perform all the duties and

functions formerly exercised and performed by the advisory council for the Rhode Island

veterans' home. The advisory council for the Rhode Island veterans' home is hereby abolished.

The advisory council for veterans' affairs shall make suggestions to and shall advise the director

of the office of veterans' affairs and the administrator of the veterans' home concerning the

policies, rules, and the regulations of the Rhode Island veterans' home; provided, however, that

the advisory council shall have no administrative power.


 

 

 

 

 

 

269)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-2-28

97 and 98

 

 

31-2-2728. Expiration dates.

Notwithstanding any provisions of the general or public laws to the contrary, the

administrator of the division of motor vehicles may extend the expiration date of any permit,

license, registration, certificate, placard, or other privilege issued by the division of motor

vehicles for a period of up to ninety (90) days when the administrator's ability to properly

perform their duties is prevented, hindered, impaired, or otherwise delayed by:

     (1) Any upgrade, replacement, or modification of existing technology systems that

requires significant time for implementation;

     (2) A disaster, as defined in §30-15-3, that has occurred, or the occurrence of which, or

the threat thereof, is imminent; or

     (3) The occurrence of any other similar event that warrants such extension.


 

 

270)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3-6.3

336 and 340

 

 

31-3-6.3. Unpaid out-of-state toll amounts, administrative fees, and fines - Denial of

registration - Denial of transfer of registration - Denial of renewal of registration and

licenses.

     (a) Upon receipt of a request from another state or other entity with similar tolling

authority with which the Rhode Island turnpike and bridge authority has entered into an

agreement providing for the reciprocal treatment of out-of-state toll violators to take action

against a toll violator, the Rhode Island turnpike and bridge authority shall conduct an

independent review of each toll violation that forms the basis for such request, which shall

include a review of photographic, video, or other visual evidence, to determine that the requesting

state or other entity with similar tolling authority imposed any toll amounts, administrative fees,

and/or fines against the actual registered owner of the motor vehicle.

     (b) As part of its independent review, the Rhode Island turnpike and bridge authority

shall provide written notice to the registered owner of the motor vehicle in question. The

registered owner shall have ten (10) days from the date on the written notice to contact the Rhode

Island turnpike and bridge authority and to provide information, documentation, and any other

evidence contesting the requested action against the out-of-state toll violator. Thereafter, the

Rhode Island turnpike and bridge authority shall consider all of the information, documentation,

and any other evidence provided as part of its independent review.

     (c) If after its independent review the Rhode Island turnpike and bridge authority is

satisfied that any toll amounts, administrative fees, and/or fines are properly imposed against the

actual registered owner of the motor vehicle and the registered owner could be subject to

reporting to the division of motor vehicles pursuant to §24-12-37 if such toll violations had

occurred on tolled projects in this state, the Rhode Island turnpike and bridge authority may

report the registered owner to the division of motor vehicles.

     (d) The division of motor vehicles shall not renew any operator's license or registration

upon expiration thereof,; register any motor vehicle; or transfer the registration of any motor

vehicle of any person reported to it pursuant to subsection (c) of this section until any toll

amounts, administrative fees, and/or fines owed to the other state or other entity with similar

tolling authority have been paid in full or the person has entered into, and is in current compliance

with, a repayment agreement with respect to any amounts owed. The Rhode Island turnpike and

bridge authority shall provide a copy of any notification received from the other state or other

entity with similar tolling authority regarding full payment of amounts owed or the existence of a

repayment agreement to the division of motor vehicles within five (5) business days of receipt.

Within five (5) business days of receiving such notification, the division of motor vehicles shall

renew the person's license and renew, transfer, or issue the person's registration.


 

 

271)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3-64

448 and 464

 

 

31-3-64. Combination plates.

     (a) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall issue:

     (1) For any motor vehicle eligible for registration as a commercial vehicle having a gross

weight of eight thousand eight hundred pounds (8,800 lbs.) or less, plates designated as

"combination" upon application and proper form furnished by the administrator of the division of

motor vehicles to applicants. The combination plates will allow those vehicles to drive for both

commercial and pleasure purposes; or

     (2) For any motor vehicle eligible for registration as a commercial vehicle having a gross

weight over eight thousand eight hundred pounds (8,800 lbs.) up to eleven thousand four hundred

pounds (11,400 lbs.) eleven thousand eight hundred pounds (11,800 lbs.) plates designated as

"combination" upon application, proof of ownership of a camping trailer, fifth-wheel camper

trailer, travel trailer, or truck camper as defined in § 31-1-3, and proper form furnished by the

administrator of the division of motor vehicles to applicants. The combination plates will allow

those vehicles to drive for pleasure purposes only.

     (b) The fees for commercial vehicles registering for a combination plate shall be identical

to those established for other commercial vehicles of the same weight. A combination registration

transaction shall be considered a change to a new registration classification and not a plate change

transaction. A combination registration shall be renewable during the month of March each year.


 

 

272)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3-85

224 and 249

 

 

31-3-85. Special plate for the New England Patriots Charitable Foundation.

     (a) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles is empowered to make available

special motor vehicle registration plates for passenger vehicles based upon the not-for-profit

entity, the New England Patriots Charitable Foundation, for any motor vehicle eligible for

registration as an automobile, or commercial vehicle having a gross weight of ten thousand

pounds (10,000 lbs.) or less, or combination vehicle.

     (b) The special plate shall be displayed upon the same registration number assigned to the

vehicle for which it was issued and shall be used in place of and in the same manner as the

registration plates issued to the vehicle. The original registration plates for the vehicle shall be

removed from the vehicle and the registration certificate for the plates shall be carried in the

vehicle, in accordance with § 31-3-9. The registration certificate shall be in effect for the special

plate. The administrator shall be authorized to retain newly issued plate numbers, at his or her

discretion, for the purpose of conducting auctions of the right to use and display those numbers

under such terms and conditions as the administrator may permit.

     Auction proceeds shall be apportioned and distributed for charitable purposes, in the

discretion of the administrator, in accordance with such agreements as may be entered into with

those entities holding ownership rights to the logos. The administrator is hereby authorized to

enter into agreements for the use of logos on Rhode Island registration plates.

     (c) The New England Patriots Charitable Foundation motor vehicle plates shall be the

same size as regular motor vehicle plates and shall be designed in conjunction with the division of

motor vehicles, with design approved approval by the Rhode Island State Police.

     (d) New England Patriots Charitable Foundation plates shall be subject to a minimum

pre-paid order of at least nine hundred (900) plates with respect to each plate type authorized

pursuant to this section. New England Patriots Charitable Foundation plates shall not be issued

unless the minimum order requirements are met. The initial order will be handled by the New

England Patriots Charitable Foundation and shall not be submitted to the division of motor

vehicles for the production until the minimum order has been met and the proper paperwork

submitted to the division. Subsequent New England Patriots Charitable Foundation plate orders

will be handled by the division of motor vehicles.

     (e) The administrator of motor vehicles shall develop application forms, prepayment

procedures, and any other procedures deemed necessary to carry out the purposes of this section.

     (f) In addition to the regular prescribed motor vehicle registration fee, New England

Patriots Charitable Foundation plates shall be subject to a forty dollar ($40.00) issuance

surcharge.

     (g) The forty dollar ($40.00) issuance surcharge shall be allocated as follows: twenty

dollars ($20.00) shall be allocated to the general fund and the remaining twenty dollars ($20.00)

shall be distributed annually to the New England Patriots Charitable Foundation in furtherance of

their its mission of assisting the youth and families of New England through donations that foster

cultural diversity, education, family, and health.

     (h) A ten dollar ($10.00) surcharge for subsequent registration renewals shall be allocated

to the New England Patriots Charitable Foundation.

     (i) In consideration of the receipt of funds from the registration of New England Patriots

Charitable Foundation, the foundation must use any Rhode Island sourced funds in and for the

benefit of Rhode Island-based charitable organizations.

     (j) The New England Patriots Charitable Foundation will be required to submit an annual

accounting report before such monies are distributed.

     (k) There shall be no refunds for early cancellation of New England Patriots Charitable

Foundation plates.


 

 

273)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3-111

190 and 248

 

 

31-3-111. Gold Star Families.

     (a) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles is authorized and directed to issue

a special registration plate for the motor vehicles of all eligible members of a Gold Star Parents

Family.

     (b) For the purpose of this section, "Gold Star Parents Family" means a person who has

lost a son or a daughter as a result of service with the armed forces of the United States of

America eligible to receive a gold star lapel button as defined in 10 U.S.C. §1126; provided, the

death was determined to be in the line of duty.

     (c) The special plate designated "Gold Star Parent" shall be designed as follows: Gold

Star Family motor vehicle plates shall be the same size as regular motor vehicle plates, and shall

be designed by Gold Star Family members who are Rhode Island residents in conjunction with

the division of motor vehicles, with design approval by the Rhode Island state police.

     (1) Letters and numbers shall be blue in a white background with the words "Rhode

Island" clearly visible at the top center of the plate.

     (2) The background will be a red, white, and blue waving American Flag.

     (3) The top right corner is to bear the identification "Gold Star Parent".

     (d) The applicant shall not be required to pay a service charge or a transfer charge for

each plate.

     (e) The applicant shall be entitled to a plate for each vehicle owned by the applicant Only

one set of "Gold Star Family" plates shall be issued to an eligible family member and only after

satisfactory documentation of eligibility is presented.

     (f) The owner of a motor vehicle eligible for registration as a commercial vehicle and

having a gross weight of twelve thousand pounds (12,000 lbs.) or less who is issued Gold Star

Parent Family plates shall continue to pay the appropriate commercial registration fee for those

plates. The owner of a motor vehicle eligible for registration as a commercial vehicle having a

gross weight of six thousand three hundred pounds (6,300 lbs.), but not more than twelve

thousand pounds (12,000 lbs.), shall sign an affidavit at the time of application for said plates

stating that the vehicle is to be used for personal use only.


 

 

274)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3-112

231 and 332

 

 

31-3-112. Special plate for Gaspee Days Committee.

     (a) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles is empowered to make available

special motor vehicle registration plates for the Gaspee Days Committee (hereafter referred to as

"the Gaspee Days committee"). The plates shall be designed to reference the Gaspee Days

committee.

     (b) The special plate shall be displayed upon the same registration number assigned to the

vehicle for which it was issued and shall be used in place of, and in the same manner as, the

registration plates issued to the vehicle. The original registration plates for the vehicle shall be

removed from the vehicle and returned to the division of motor vehicles. The registration

certificate for the plates shall be carried in the vehicle in accordance with §31-3-9. The

registration certificate shall be in effect for the special plates.

     (c) The Gaspee Days committee motor vehicle plates shall be the same size as regular

motor vehicle plates and shall be designed by the Gaspee Days committee, in conjunction with

the division of motor vehicles, with design approval by the Rhode Island state police.

     (d) The Gaspee Days committee plates shall be subject to a minimum prepaid order of at

least nine hundred (900) sets of plates per plate type (i.e. passenger, commercial, etc.). The

Gaspee Days committee plates shall not be issued unless the minimum order(s) requirements are

met. The initial order will be handled by the Gaspee Days committee and shall not be submitted

to the division of motor vehicles for production until the minimum order(s) have been met and the

proper paperwork submitted to the division.

     (e) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall develop prepayment

procedures and any other procedures deemed necessary to carry out the purposes of this section.

     (f) In addition to the regular prescribed motor vehicle registration fee, the Gaspee Days

committee plates shall be subject to a forty-dollar ($40.00) issuance surcharge.

     (g) The forty-dollar ($40.00) issuance surcharge shall be allocated as follows: Twenty

dollars ($20.00) shall be allocated to the general fund and the remaining twenty dollars ($20.00)

shall be distributed annually to the Gaspee Days committee in furtherance of its mission.

     (h) A ten-dollar ($10.00) surcharge for subsequent registration renewals shall be allocated

to the Gaspee Days committee.

     (i) The Gaspee Days committee shall be required to submit an annual accounting report

before such monies are distributed.

     (j) There shall be no refunds for early cancellation of Gaspee Days committee plates.


 

 

275)

Section

Amend  Chapter Numbers

 

31-3-115

404 and 414

 

 

31-3-115. Special plate for the Rhode Island Salt Water Anglers Foundation.

     (a) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles is empowered to make available

special motor vehicle registration plates for the Rhode Island Salt Water Anglers Foundation. The

plates shall be designed to reference the Rhode Island Salt Water Anglers Foundation and shall

feature a striped bass.

     (b) The special plate shall be displayed upon the same registration number assigned to the

vehicle for which it was issued and shall be used in place of, and in the same manner as, the

registration plates issued to the vehicle. The original registration plates for the vehicle shall be

removed from the vehicle and returned to the division of motor vehicles. The registration

certificate for the plates shall be carried in the vehicle in accordance with §31-3-9. The

registration certificate shall be in effect for the special plate.

     (c) The Rhode Island Salt Water Anglers Foundation motor vehicle plates shall be the

same size as regular motor vehicle plates and shall be designed by the Rhode Island Salt Water

Anglers Foundation, in conjunction with the division of motor vehicles, with design approval by

the Rhode Island state police.

     (d) The Rhode Island Salt Water Anglers Foundation plates shall be subject to a

minimum prepaid order of at least nine hundred (900) sets of plates per plate type (i.e. passenger,

commercial, etc.). The Rhode Island Salt Water Anglers Foundation plates shall not be issued

unless the minimum order(s) requirements are met. The initial order will be handled by the Rhode

Island Salt Water Anglers Foundation and shall not be submitted to the division of motor vehicles

for production until the minimum order(s) have been met and the proper paperwork submitted to

the division.

     (e) The administrator of motor vehicles shall develop prepayment procedures and any

other procedures deemed necessary to carry out the purposes of this section.

     (f) In addition to the regular prescribed motor vehicle registration fee, the Rhode Island

Salt Water Anglers Foundation plates shall be subject to a forty-dollar ($40.00) issuance

surcharge.

     (g) The forty dollar ($40.00) issuance surcharge shall be allocated as follows: Twenty

dollars ($20.00) shall be allocated to the general fund and the remaining twenty dollars ($20.00)

shall be distributed annually to the Rhode Island Salt Water Anglers Foundation in furtherance of

its mission to preserve our marine fisheries, environmental protection, restoration projects, and

youth activity programs that foster recreational fishing, safety, and conservation.

     (h) A ten-dollar ($10.00) surcharge for subsequent registration renewals shall be allocated

to the Rhode Island Salt Water Anglers Foundation.

     (i) In consideration of the receipt of funds from the registration of the Rhode Island Salt

Water Anglers Foundation license plate, the foundation must use any Rhode Island sourcesd funds

in, and for the benefit of, Rhode Island-based charitable organizations.

     (j) The Rhode Island Salt Water Anglers Foundation shall be required to submit an

annual accounting report before such monies are distributed.

     (k) There shall be no refunds for early cancellation of the Rhode Island Salt Water

Anglers Foundation plates.


 

 

276)

Section

Amend  Chapter Numbers

 

31-3-116

408 and 417

 

 

31-3-116. Special plate for the Ocean State Animal Coalition.

     (a) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles is empowered to make available a

special motor vehicle registration plate for the Ocean State Animal Coalition.

     (b) The special plate shall be displayed upon the same registration number assigned to the

vehicle for which it was issued, and shall be used in place of, and in the same manner, as the

registration plates issued to the vehicle. The original registration plates for the vehicle shall be

removed from the vehicle and returned to the division of motor vehicles. The registration

certificate for the plates shall be carried in the vehicle, in accordance with §31-3-9. The

registration certificate shall be in effect for the special plate.

     (c) The Ocean State Animal Coalition motor vehicle plates shall be the same size as

regular motor vehicle plates, and shall be designed in conjunction with the division of motor

vehicles, with the design approved by the Rhode Island state police.

     (d) The Ocean State Animal Coalition motor vehicle plates shall be subject to a minimum

pre-paid order of at least nine hundred (900) sets of plates per plate type. The Ocean State Animal

Coalition plates shall not be issued unless the minimum order requirements are met. The initial

order shall be handled by the Ocean State Animal Coalition, and shall not be submitted to the

division of motor vehicles for production until the minimum order(s) have been met, and the

proper paperwork submitted to the division.

     (e) The administrator shall develop prepayment procedures and any other procedures

deemed necessary to carry out the purposes of this section.

     (f) In addition to the regular prescribed motor vehicle registration fee, the Ocean State

Animal Coalition motor vehicle plates shall be subject to a forty-dollar ($40) issuance surcharge.

     (g) The forty-dollar ($40) issuance ($40) surcharge shall be allocated as follows: twenty

dollars ($20) shall be allocated to the general fund, and the remaining twenty dollars ($20) shall

be distributed annually to the Ocean State Animal Coalition in furtherance of its mission to

improve the status and well-being of animals in Rhode Island, including subsidizing spay and

neuter services for cats and dogs.

     (h) The Ocean State Animal Coalition shall distribute the funds it receives as referenced

in subsection (g) of this section to Rhode Island-based municipal animal shelters and other

humane organizations pursuant to procedures developed in accordance with subsection (e) of this

section.

     (i) The Ocean State Animal Coalition shall be required to submit an annual accounting

report before such monies are distributed.

     (j) A ten-dollar ($10) surcharge for subsequent registration renewals shall be allocated to

the Ocean State Animal Coalition.

     (k) There shall be no refunds for early cancellation of Ocean State Animal Coalition

motor vehicle plates.


 

 

277)

Section

Amend  Chapter Numbers

 

31-10-6

367 and 373

 

 

31-10-6. Graduated licensing for person under the age of eighteen (18).

     (a) Purpose. To ensure that license holders have sufficient training and experience and to

promote safe, responsible driving, persons under the age of eighteen (18) shall be granted driving

privileges on a limited basis as follows:

     (1) Level 1 -- Limited instruction permit.

     (2) Level 2 -- Limited provisional license.

     (3) Level 3 -- Full operator's license.

     (b) Requirements and privileges. A permit or license issued pursuant to this section must

have a color background or border that indicates the level of driving privileges granted by the

permit or license.

     (1) Limited instruction permit. Any person who is at least sixteen (16) years of age but

less than eighteen (18) years of age may apply to the division of motor vehicles for a limited

instruction permit. The division of motor vehicles may, after the applicant has successfully

completed a course of driver training prescribed in § 31-10-19 and passed a standardized written

examination approved by the administrator of the division of motor vehicles or otherwise

complied with the requirements of § 31-10-21, issue to the applicant a limited instruction permit

which that shall entitle the applicant to drive a motor vehicle only under the following

conditions:

     (i) The permit holder must be in possession of the permit;

     (ii) A supervising driver must be seated beside the permit holder in the front seat of the

vehicle when it is in motion;

     (iii) No person other than the supervising driver can be in the front seat;

     (iv) Every person occupying the vehicle being driven by the permit holder must have a

safety belt properly fastened about his or her body, or be restrained by a child passenger restraint

system as provided in § 31-22-22 when the vehicle is in motion;

     (v) The permittee shall wear a safety belt at all times unless the permittee provides the

division of motor vehicles with a statement from a physician indicating that for medical reasons

the permittee cannot wear a safety belt. A limited instruction permit shall be valid for a period of

one year, and may be extended for a reasonable period of time if the holder of the permit provides

the division of motor vehicles with evidence of a hardship. Any person who is at least sixteen

(16) years of age and is enrolled in a commercial drivers' school or in a regularly recognized

secondary school or college driver training program which that is approved by the division of

motor vehicles shall not be required to have a limited instruction permit while operating a dual-

control training vehicle regularly used by that school in its driver training program and while a

regular instructor in that school or program is occupying the seat beside that person.

     (2) Limited provisional license. A person may obtain a limited provisional license if the

person meets all of the following requirements:

     (i) (A) Has held a limited instruction permit issued by the division of motor vehicles for

at least six (6) months;

     (B) Has not been convicted of a motor vehicle moving violation or seat belt infraction

during the preceding six (6) months;

     (C) Passes a road test administered by the division of motor vehicles and shall also meet

the requirements of subsection (iii) herein subsection  (b)(2)(iii) of this section.

     (ii) A limited provisional license authorizes the license holder to drive a motor vehicle

only under the following conditions:

     (A) The license holder must be in possession of the license.

     (B) The license holder may drive without supervision in any of the following

circumstances:

     (I) From 5:00 a.m. to 1:00 a.m.;

     (II) When driving to or from work;

     (III) When driving to or from an activity of a volunteer fire department, volunteer rescue

squad, or volunteer emergency medical service, if the driver is a member of one of these

organizations.

     (IV) From 4:00 a.m. to 5:00 a.m. when driving between the license holder's home and a

school-sponsored athletic activity for which no transportation is provided by the school.

     (C) The license holder may drive with supervision at any time. When the license holder is

driving with supervision, the supervising driver must be seated beside the license holder in the

front seat of the vehicle when it is in motion.

     (D) Every person occupying the vehicle being driven by the license holder must have a

safety belt properly fastened about his or her body, or be restrained by a child safety passenger

restraint system as provided in § 31-22-22 when the vehicle is in motion.

     (iii) In addition to meeting the requirements of subsection paragraph (i) of this subdivision (b)(2)(i)

of this section, a person under the age of eighteen (18) years seeking to obtain a provisional

license shall present with his or her application a statement signed by the person's parent or

guardian stating that the applicant has obtained a minimum of fifty (50) hours of experience with

ten (10) of those at night as a driver while driving with a supervising driver. These fifty (50)

hours may include driving lessons with a commercial driving school or any other supervised

driving.

     (iv) During the first twelve (12) months of a limited provisional license no more than one

passenger younger than twenty-one (21) years of age is allowed in the vehicle. Immediate

family/household members are excepted from this subsection.

     (3) Full operator's license. (i) A person who is at least seventeen (17) years old but less

than eighteen (18) years old may apply for and obtain a full operator's license if the person meets

all of the following requirements:

     (i) (A) Has held a limited provisional license issued by the division of motor vehicles for

at least twelve (12) months; and

     (B) Has not been convicted of a motor vehicle moving violation or seat belt infraction

during the preceding six (6) months.

     (ii) A person who meets the requirements of this section may obtain a full operator's

license by mail. The restrictions on Level 1 and Level 2 drivers concerning time of driving,

supervision and passenger limitations do not apply to a full operator's license.


 

 

278)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-10-19

156 and 160

 

 

31-10-19. Driver education -- Traffic safety education.

     (a) The Community College of Rhode Island shall provide thirty-three (33) hours of

classroom instruction for applicants or prospective applicants, not more than twenty-one (21)

years of age, for a limited instruction permit or license. The instruction shall include eight (8)

hours, specifically for instruction on the effects of alcohol and drugs on a driver, and the

instruction shall be given by a person eligible for a teacher's certificate issued under the authority

of the state board of education of regents and which course of instruction shall be approved by

the state board of governors for higher education. In case of emergency, the President of the

Community College of Rhode Island may declare, when no certified instructor is available to

teach, that an individual eligible to teach at the Community College of Rhode Island who has

taken the required course of instruction in driver education, may provide driver education

instruction. All driver education programs shall include information concerning the Anatomical

Gift Act, chapter 18.6 of title 23, and information on donor cards pursuant to the applicable

provisions of chapter 18.6 of title 23. The state board of governors for higher education shall

ensure that each person properly certified and approved to instruct driver education courses shall

be given an equal opportunity for employment as an instructor within the driver education

program. No person teaching driver education under this section shall own, be employed by, or be

associated with a commercial driving school.

     (b) Driver education instruction shall be available to any eligible resident applicant not

less than fifteen (15) years and ten (10) months of age.

     (c) That the state shall also provide a separate program of instruction, as previously set

forth in this section, for special needs students whose individual education plan (IEP) indicates a

need for a separate program of instruction.

     (d) The Community College of Rhode Island shall provide a driver training program for

physically handicapped drivers. The program shall instruct the physically handicapped driver in

the operation of adapted vehicles for the handicapped. The adapted vehicles are to be provided by

the handicapped individual. A physically handicapped person must be certified by a licensed

physician that he or she is physically handicapped and possesses sufficient potential to become a

competent motor vehicle operator. The Community College of Rhode Island shall establish a

tuition fee sufficient to cover the cost of the program.

     (e) A tuition or enrollment fee shall be required to be paid by an eligible applicant in

accordance with rules and regulations of the board of governors for higher education state board

of education; provided, that personal checks shall be an acceptable method of payment of the

tuition or enrollment fee. The tuition or enrollment fee shall be deposited in a restricted receipt

account established to pay any and all costs associated with the driver education program at the

Community College of Rhode Island and administered by the Community College of Rhode

Island.

     (f) The state board of governors for higher education is authorized to establish

administrative regulations to further implement this section.

     (g) The Community College of Rhode Island shall establish tuition fees sufficient to

cover the cost of the program and the administration of the driver education program. All

positions established to implement the driver education program and funded in full by driver

education program fees shall be exempt from the full-time equivalency cap established in Article

1 of the Appropriations Act, provided, however, that the board of governors state board of education

shall report by June 1, 2004, the actual number of filled positions funded exclusively by driver

education fees to the chairperson of the house finance committee, the chairperson of the

senate finance committee, and the state budget officer.

     (h) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, the The state board of governors

for higher education shall provide for an optional and voluntary a required course of instruction

for the applicant's parent, guardian, or designee where applicable, on the content of the driver

education curriculum and the requirements for the graduated licensing for persons under the age

of eighteen (18) as contained in § 31-10-6. The course of instruction shall be made available in a

classroom setting at numerous locations, days, and times throughout the state, approved by the

Community College of Rhode Island. All costs and expenses associated with the course of

instruction, including, but not limited to, materials, instructors, and location fees shall be at the

sole expense of the program providers. Once approved by the state board of education, an online

course of instruction shall be made available to parent(s), guardian(s), or designee(s), where

applicable, to meet the requirements of this section. Under no circumstances shall any parent,

guardian, or designee, where applicable, be required to pay any cost or fee in association with

participation in the course required by this section. Upon completion of the course pursuant to

this section, no parent, guardian, or designee shall be required to take the course more than one

time in a five-(5) year (5) period. Parents, guardians, and designees with multiple children having

completed this course shall be deemed to have satisfied this requirement for each child in their

care applying for his or her license during the five-(5) year (5) period. Should AAA, or any other

provider, cease to provide the course and no other provider exists, the Community College of

Rhode Island shall not be required to provide the course of instruction nor shall it be required to

pay any of the costs associated therewith. Parents, guardians, and designees shall not be required

to complete the course prior to their child obtaining a license during any time at which a qualified

program under this section does not exist. The cCommunity cCollege of Rhode Island shall be

responsible to develop the course of instruction and content for the parent instruction, or may

approve a similar course of instruction, such as AAA's course, as equivalent to it, and shall

promulgate regulations and establish the appropriate method of providing the instruction. Should

a qualified program cease to exist for a period of time greater than six (6) months, the course of

instruction will not be required.

     (i) Dangers of distracted driving, including, but not limited to, use of cell phones would

be included in this section curriculum and included in all testing as part of the state's driver's

license examination.


 

 

279)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-13-14

477 and 450

 

 

31-13-14. Time period to complete projects.

All projects approved by the state traffic commission pursuant to this chapter shall be

completed before the end of the following construction season with exception to geometric

improvements/roundabouts and new signals.


 

 

280)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-21-18

204 and 259

 

 

31-21-18. Electric vehicle charging station parking restrictions.

     (a) For the purposes of this section, "electric vehicle charging station" means a public or

private parking space that is served by charging equipment that has as its primary purpose the

transfer of electric energy to a battery or other energy storage device in an electric vehicle.

     (b) No person shall stop, stand, or park a vehicle in any electric vehicle charging station

provided on any public or private parking space if the vehicle is not connected to the charging

equipment and where the electric vehicle charging station is indicated by signage identifying the

station as an electric vehicle charging station and indicating that it is only for electric vehicle

charging and subject to a parking violation.

     (c) Enforcement of the parking provisions of this section shall be enforced by the local or

state authorities on public or private property when the location of the parking spaces is within

the purview of the state building code, chapter 27.3 of title 23.

     (d) Violations of this section are subject to fines enumerated in §31-41.1-4.


 

 

281)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-22-22

16 and 30

 

 

31-22-22. Safety belt use -- Child restraint.

     (a) (1) Any person transporting a child under the age of eight (8), less than fifty-seven

(57”) inches in height and less than eighty (80 lbs) pounds, in a motor vehicle operated on the

roadways, streets, or highways of this state, shall transport the child in any rear seating position of

the motor vehicle properly restrained in a child restraint system approved by the United States

Department of Transportation under Federal Standard 213 49 C.F.R. § 571.213All infants and

toddlers under the age of two (2) years or weighing less than thirty pounds (30 lbs.) shall be

restrained in a rear-facing car seat. All children two (2) years of age or older or who have

outgrown their rear-facing car seat by height or weight should use a forward-facing car seat with

a harness up to the maximum allowed by the child restraint manufacturer. If the child is under

eight (8) years old but at least fifty-seven (57”) inches in height, or at least eighty (80 lbs.) pounds, the

child shall be properly wearing a safety belt and/or shoulder harness approved by the Department

of Transportation pursuant to Federal Standard 208 49 C.F.R. § 571.208 in any rear seating

position of the motor vehicle. For the purpose of this section, applying to all parts of this section,

"rear seating position" means any seating positions located behind the driver and front seat

passenger. Under this subsection, a child must be properly restrained in the front seat if:

     (i) The vehicle is not equipped with a back seat; or

     (ii) All rear seating positions are being utilized by other children.

     (2) In no event shall failure to wear a child restraint system or safety belt be considered as

contributory or comparative negligence, nor the failure to wear the child restraint system, seat belt

and/or shoulder harness be admissible as evidence in the trial of any civil action.

     (b) (1) Any operator of a motor vehicle transporting a child, who has attained the age of

eight (8) years but is under eighteen (18) years of age, in any seating position within a motor

vehicle operated on the roadways, streets, or highways of the state shall ensure that the passenger

is properly wearing a safety belt and/or shoulder harness system, as defined by Federal Standard

208 49 C.F.R. § 571.208.

     (2) Any operator of a motor vehicle under eighteen (18) years old shall properly wear a

safety belt and/or shoulder harness system.

     (3) This subsection applies only to those motor vehicles required by federal law to have

safety belts.

     (c) (1) Any person deemed in violation of subsection (a) of this section shall be issued a

citation. If the cited person presents proof of purchase of a federally approved child restraint

system under Standard 213 49 C.F.R. § 571.213 to the issuing police department within seven (7)

days of issuance, the department shall void the violation. If the individual fails to present proof of

purchase, he or she shall be required to appear for a hearing before the traffic tribunal, and shall

be fined as provided in § 31-41.1-4 for each offense, and it shall not be recorded on the person's

driving record within the rules and regulations governing chapter 41.1 of this title.

     (2) Any person violating subsection (b) of this section shall be fined as provided in § 31-

41.1-4 for each offense. The conviction shall not be recorded on that person's driving record

within the rules and regulations governing chapter 41.1 of this title.

     (d) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, any person

transporting a child properly restrained in a federally approved child restraint system under

Federal Standard 213 49 C.F.R. § 571.213, but transporting the child in a place other than a rear

seating position, in violation of subsection (a) of this section, shall be subject only to the fine

contained in subdivision (c)(2) of this section.

     (e) All fines collected for violations of this section shall be payable to the state of Rhode

Island. Fifty percent (50%) of the proceeds shall be shared with the municipality whose law

enforcement department issued the citation for the violations.

     (f) (1) Any operator of a motor vehicle transporting a person eighteen (18) years of age

and older in any seating position of a motor vehicle operated on the roadways, streets, or

highways of this state shall ensure that the person be properly wearing a safety belt and/or

shoulder harness system, as defined by Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard 208 49 C.F.R. §

571.208.

     (2) The provisions of this subsection shall apply only to those motor vehicles required by

federal law to have safety belts.

     (g) (1) Any person who is an operator of a motor vehicle shall be properly wearing a

safety belt and/or shoulder harness system as defined by Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard

208 49 C.F.R. § 571.208 while the vehicle is in operation on any of the roadways, streets, or

highways of this state.

     (2) The provisions of this subsection shall apply only to those motor vehicles required by

federal law to have safety belts.

     (h) In no event shall failure to be properly restrained by a child restraint system or safety

belt be considered as negligence, nor the failure to be properly restrained by the child restraint

system or safety belt be admissible as evidence in the trial of any civil action.

     (i) The provisions of subsections (b), (f) and (g) of this section shall not apply to a driver

or passenger of:

     (1) A passenger motor vehicle manufactured before July 1, 1966;

     (2) A passenger motor vehicle in which the driver or passenger possesses a written

verification from a licensed physician that the driver or passenger is unable to wear a safety seat

belt system for physical or medical reasons. The verification time period shall not exceed twelve

(12) months at which time a new verification may be issued;

     (3) A passenger motor vehicle which is not required to be equipped with a safety seat belt

system under federal laws; or

     (4) A passenger motor vehicle operated by a letter carrier of the United States Postal

Service while performing the duties of a letter carrier.

     (j) A program of public information and education designed to educate the motoring

public to the benefits of wearing safety belt systems, shall be developed by the department of

transportation's governor's office on highway safety. The department of transportation's office on

highway safety, in cooperation with the department of health, shall study the effectiveness of the

implementation of this section and shall submit to the general assembly a report containing its

findings by July 1, 1999.

     (k) Any person violating subsection (f) or (g) of this section shall be fined as provided in

§ 31-41.1-4. Any conviction for violating subsection (f) or (g) of this section shall not be recorded

on that person's driving record within the rules and regulations governing chapter 41.1 of this

title.

     (l) No motor vehicle shall be stopped, inspected or detained to determine compliance

with subsection (f) or (g) of this section without reasonable suspicion that the operator or

passenger(s) of the motor vehicle is in violation of this section.

     (m) A law enforcement officer may not search a motor vehicle, its contents, the driver, or

a passenger solely because of a violation of subsection (f) or (g) of this section.


 

 

 

282)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-22-30

460 and 462

 

 

31-22-30. Text messaging while operating a motor vehicle.

     (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms shall have the following meanings:

     (1) "Driving" means operating a motor vehicle on a public road, including operation

while temporarily stationary because of traffic, a traffic light or stop sign, or otherwise, but does

not include operating a motor vehicle when the vehicle has pulled over to the side of, or off, an

active roadway and has stopped in a location where it can safely remain stationary.

     (2) "Hands free" means the manner in which a wireless handset is operated for the

purpose of composing, reading, or sending text messages by using an internal feature or function,

or through an attachment or addition, including, but not limited to, an earpiece, headset, remote

microphone, or short-range wireless connection, thereby allowing the user to operate said device

without the use of hands, except to activate, deactivate, or initiate a feature or function thereof.

     (3) "Inoperability" means a motor vehicle that is incapable of being operated or being

operated in a safe and prudent manner due to mechanical failure, including, but not limited to,

engine overheating or tire failure.

     (4) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle that is self-propelled by a motor, including, but

not limited to,: automobiles, trucks, vans, construction vehicles, etc.

     (5) "Person" means any natural person, corporation, unincorporated association, firm,

partnership, joint venture, joint stock association, or other entity or business organization of any

kind.

     (6) "Personal wireless communication device" means a hand-held device through which

personal wireless services (commercial mobile services, unlicensed wireless services, and

common carrier wireless exchange access services) are transmitted, but does not include a global

navigation satellite receiver used for positioning, emergency notification, or navigation purposes.

     (7) "Stopped" means not in motion.

     (8) "Text message", also referred to as short messaging service (SMS), means the process

by which users send, read, or receive messages on a wireless handset, including, but not limited

to, text messages, instant messages, electronic messages, or e-mails, in order to communicate

with any person or device.

     (9) "Use" means to operate a wireless handset or a personal wireless communication

device in a manner not consistent with hands-free operation.

     (10) "Wireless handset" means a portable electronic or computing device, including

cellular telephones and digital personal assistants (PDAs), capable of transmitting data in the

form of a text message.

     (b) No person shall use a wireless handset or personal wireless communication device to

compose, read, or send text messages while driving a motor vehicle on any public street or public

highway within the state of Rhode Island.

     (c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (b), this section shall not be construed to

prohibit the use of any wireless handset or personal wireless communication device by:

     (1) Any law enforcement, public safety or police officers, emergency services officials,

first aid, emergency medical technicians and personnel, and fire safety officials in the

performance of duties arising out of, and in the course of, their employment as such;

     (2) A person using a wireless handset to contact an individual listed in subsection (c)(1);

or

     (3) A person using a wireless handset or personal wireless communication device inside a

motor vehicle while such motor vehicle is parked, standing, or stopped and is removed from the

flow of traffic, in accordance with applicable laws, rules, or ordinances, or is stopped due to the

inoperability of such motor vehicle. ; or

     (4) A person activating, viewing, or deactivating a global positioning or navigation

device or a global positioning or navigation application.

     (d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a person, other than a pilot/escort

vehicle driver, driving a motor vehicle from utilizing a hands-free wireless handset.

     The nonemergency use by pilot/escort vehicle drivers of portable electronic devices is

prohibited except to communicate hazard-related information to the escorted vehicle.

     (e) Any person who violates any of the provisions of this section shall, upon conviction,

be subject to a fine of one hundred dollars ($100), or a license suspension for up to thirty (30)

days, or both; for a second conviction a person shall be subject to a fine of one hundred fifty

dollars ($150), or a license suspension for up to three (3) months, or both; and for a third or

subsequent conviction a person shall be subject to a fine of two hundred fifty dollars ($250), or a

license suspension for up to six (6) months, or both. All violations arising out of this section shall

be heard in the Rhode Island traffic tribunal.


 

 

283)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-22-31

167 and 308

 

 

31-22-31. Mobile telephone usage by motor vehicle operators.

     (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms shall have the following meanings:

     (1) "Engage in a call" means talking into or listening on a hand-held personal wireless

communication device, but does not include holding a hand-held personal wireless

communication device to activate, deactivate, or initiate a function of such telephone.

     (2) "Hands-free accessory" means an attachment, add-on, built-in feature, or addition to a

personal wireless communication device, whether or not permanently installed in a motor vehicle,

that, when used, allows the vehicle operator to maintain both hands on the steering wheel.

     (3) "Hands-free personal wireless communication device" means a hand-held personal

wireless communication device that has an internal feature or function, or that is equipped with an

attachment or addition, whether or not permanently part of such hand-held personal wireless

communication device, by which a user engages in a call without the use of either hand, whether

or not the use of either hand is necessary to activate, deactivate, or initiate a function of such

telephone.

     (4) "Hand-held personal wireless communication device" means a personal wireless

communication device with which a user engages in a call using at least one hand.

     (5) "Immediate proximity" means the distance that permits the operator of a hand-held

personal wireless communication device to hear telecommunications transmitted over such hand-

held personal wireless communication device, but does not require physical contact with such

operator's ear.

     (6) "Mobile telephone" means a personal wireless communication device, analog,

wireless, or digital telephone capable of sending or receiving telephone communication without

an access line for service.

     (7) "Public utility" means a business that provides electricity, natural gas, water, and

communications and other information services to residential and commercial customers.

     (8) "Using" or "use" means holding a hand-held personal wireless communication device

to, or in the immediate proximity of, the user's ear.

     (b)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, no person shall operate a motor

vehicle, while using a hand-held personal wireless communication device to engage in a call

while such vehicle is in motion.

     (2) An operator of a motor vehicle who holds a hand-held personal wireless

communication device to, or in the immediate proximity of, the operator's ear while such vehicle

is in motion is presumed to be engaging in a call within the meaning of this section. The

presumption established by this subdivision is rebuttable by evidence tending to show that the

operator was not engaged in a call.

     (3) The provisions of this section shall not be construed as authorizing the seizure or

forfeiture of a hand-held personal wireless communication device, unless otherwise provided by

law.

     (4) Subsection (b)(1) of this section shall not apply to:

     (i) The use of a hand-held personal wireless communication device for the sole purpose

of communicating with any of the following regarding an emergency situation: an emergency

response operator; a hospital, physician's office or health clinic; an ambulance company; a fire

department; a police department; or a public utility; or

     (ii) Any of the following persons while in the performance of their official duties and

within the scope of their employment: a peace officer, as defined in §12-7-21, a firefighter or an

operator of an ambulance or authorized emergency vehicle, or the operator of a taxi cab, tow

truck, or bus without passengers; or employees or agents of a public utility; or

     (iii) The use of a hands-free personal wireless communication device.

     (c) Any person who violates the provisions of subsection (b)(1) of this section shall be

fined not more than one hundred dollars ($100) except that the fine shall be suspended for a first-

time violator, who provides proof of acquisition of a hands-free accessory subsequent to the

violation, but prior to the imposition of a fine.


 

 

284)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-41.1-4

204 and 259

 

 

31-41.1-4. Schedule of violations.

     (a) The penalties for violations of the enumerated sections, listed in numerical order,

correspond to the fines described. However, those offenses for which punishments may vary

according to the severity of the offense, or punishment that require the violator to perform a

service, shall be heard and decided by the traffic tribunal or municipal court. The following

violations may be handled administratively through the method prescribed in this chapter. This

list is not exclusive and jurisdiction may be conferred on the traffic tribunal with regard to other

violations.

VIOLATIONS SCHEDULE

     Sections of Total

     General Laws Fine

     8-8.2-2 DOT, DEM, or other agency and department

      Violations $85.00

     24-10-17 Soliciting rides in motor vehicles 85.00

     24-10-18 Backing up prohibited 85.00

     24-10-20 Park and ride lots 85.00

     24-12-37 Nonpayment of toll 100.00

     31-3-12 Visibility of plates 85.00

     31-3-18 Display of plates 85.00

     31-3-32 Driving with expired registration 85.00

     31-3-34 Failure to notify division of change of address 85.00

     31-3-35 Notice of change of name 85.00

     31-3-40 Temporary plates - dealer issued 85.00

     31-4-3 Temporary registration - twenty

      (20) day bill of sale 85.00

     31-10-10 Rules as to armed forces license 85.00

     31-10-30 Driving on expired license 85.00

     31-10-32 Notice of change of address 85.00

     31-10.1-4 No motorcycle helmet (operator) 85.00

     31-10.1-5 Motorcycle handlebar violation 85.00

     31-10.1-6 No motorcycle helmet (passenger) 85.00

     31-10.1-7 Inspection of motorcycle required 85.00

     31-12-12 Local motor vehicle ordinance 85.00

     31-13-04 Obedience to devices 85.00

     31-13-6(3)(i) Eluding traffic light 85.00

     31-13-09 Flashing signals 85.00

     31-13-11 Injury to signs or devices 85.00

     31-14-1 Reasonable and prudent speed 95.00

     31-14-03 Condition requiring reduced speed 95.00

     31-14-09 Below minimum speed 95.00

     31-14-12 Speed limit on bridges and structures 95.00

     31-15-1 Leaving lane of travel 85.00

     31-15-2 Slow traffic to right 85.00

     31-15-3 Operator left of center 85.00

     31-15-4 Overtaking on left 85.00

     31-15-5(a) Overtaking on right 85.00

     31-15-6 Clearance for overtaking 85.00

     31-15-7 Places where overtaking prohibited 85.00

     31-15-8 No passing zone 85.00

     31-15-9 One way highways 85.00

     31-15-10 Rotary traffic islands 85.00

     31-15-11 Laned roadway violation 85.00

     31-15-12 Following too closely 85.00

     31-15-12.1 Entering intersection 100.00

     31-15-13 Crossing center section of divided highway 85.00

     31-15-14 Entering or leaving limited access roadways 85.00

     31-15-16 Use of emergency break-down lane for travel 85.00

     31-15-17 Crossing bicycle lane 85.00

     31-15-18 Unsafe passing of person operating a bicycle 85.00

     31-16-1 Care in starting from stop 85.00

     31-16-2 Manner of turning at intersection 85.00

     31-16-4 U turn where prohibited 85.00

     31-16-5 Turn signal required 85.00

     31-16-6 Time of signaling turn 85.00

     31-16-7 Failure to give stop signal 85.00

     31-16-8 Method of giving signals 85.00

     31-16.1-3 Diesel vehicle idling rules

      first offense not to exceed 100.00

      second and subsequent offense not to exceed 500.00

     31-17-1 Failure to yield right of way 85.00

     31-17-2 Vehicle turning left 85.00

     31-17-3 Yield right of way (intersection) 85.00

     31-17-4 Obedience to stop signs 85.00

     31-17-5 Entering from private road or driveway 85.00

     31-17-8 Vehicle within right of way, rotary 85.00

     31-17-9 Yielding to bicycles on bicycle lane 85.00

     31-18-3 Right of way in crosswalks 85.00 first violation

      $100.00 second violation or any subsequent violation

     31-18-5 Crossing other than at crosswalks 85.00

     31-18-8 Due care by drivers 85.00

     31-18-12 Hitchhiking 85.00

     31-18-18 Right of way on sidewalks 85.00

     31-19-3 Traffic laws applied to bicycles 85.00

     31-19-20 Sale of new bicycles 85.00

     31-19-21 Sale of used bicycles 85.00

     31-19.1-2 Operating motorized bicycle on an

      interstate highway 85.00

     31-19.2-2 Operating motorized tricycle on an

      interstate highway 85.00

     31-20-1 Failure to stop at railroad crossing 85.00

     31-20-2 Driving through railroad gate 85.00

     31-20-9 Obedience to stop sign 85.00

     31-21-4 Places where parking or stopping prohibited 85.00

     31-21-14 Opening of vehicle doors 85.00

     31-21-18 Electric vehicle charging station restriction 85.00

     31-22-2 Improper backing up 85.00

     31-22-4 Overloading vehicle 85.00

     31-22-5 Violation of safety zone 85.00

     31-22-6 Coasting 85.00

     31-22-7 Following fire apparatus 85.00

     31-22-8 Crossing fire hose 85.00

     31-22-9 Throwing debris on highway - snow removal 85.00

     31-22-11.5 Improper use of school bus - not to exceed

      five hundred dollars ($500) for each day of  improper use

     31-22-22(a) No child restraint 85.00

     31-22-22(a) Child restraint/seat belt but not in

      any rear seating position 85.00

     31-22-22(b), (f) No seat belt – passenger 40.00

     31-22-22(g) No seat belt – operator 40.00

     31-22-23 Tow trucks - proper identification 275.00

     31-22-24 Operation of interior lights 85.00

     31-23-1(b)(2) U.S. department of transportation

      motor carrier safety rules and regulations not less than

      $85.00 or more than $500.00

     31-23-1(e)(6) Removal of an "out of service vehicle"

      Sticker 125.00

     31-23-1(e)(7) Operation of an "out of service vehicle" 100.00

     31-23-2(b) Installation or adjustment of unsafe

      or prohibited parts, equipment, or (first offense) accessories: 250.00

      (second offense) 500.00 (third and subsequent offenses)  1,000.00

     31-23-4 Brake equipment required 85.00

     31-23-8 Horn required 85.00

     31-23-10 Sirens prohibited 85.00

     31-23-13 Muffler required 85.00

     31-23-13.1 Altering height or operating a motor

      vehicle with an altered height 85.00

     31-23-14 Prevention of excessive fumes

      or smoke 85.00

     31-23-16 Windshield and window stickers

      (visibility) 85.00

     31-23-17 Windshield wipers 85.00

     31-23-19 Metal tires prohibited 85.00

     31-23-20 Protuberances on tires 85.00

     31-23-26 Fenders and wheel flaps required 85.00

     31-23-27 Rear wheel flaps on buses, trucks

      and trailer 85.00

     31-23-29 Flares or red flag required over

      four thousand pounds (4,000 lbs.) 85.00

     31-23-40 Approved types of seat belt requirements 85.00

     31-23-42.1 Special mirror - school bus 85.00

     31-23-43 Chocks required (1 pair) – over

      four thousand pounds (4,000 lbs.) 85.00

      31-23-45 Tire treads - defective tires 5.00

     31-23-47 Slow moving emblem required 85.00

     31-23-49 Transportation of gasoline – passenger vehicle 85.00

     31-23-51 Operating bike or motor vehicle

      wearing ear phones 85.00 (first offense) 95.00

     second offense 140.00 for the third and each subsequent offense

     31-24-1 Times when lights required 85.00 through 31-24-54

     31-25-03 Maximum width of one hundred

      and two inches (102") exceeded 85.00

     31-25-04 Maximum height of one hundred

      sixty-two inches (162") exceeded 85.00

     31-25-06 Maximum number and length of coupled vehicles 500.00

     31-25-07 Load extending three feet (3') front, six feet (6') rear exceeded 85.00

     31-25-9 Leaking load 85.00

     31-25-11 Connections between coupled vehicles 85.00

     31-25-12 Towing chain, twelve inch (12") square flag required 85.00

      31-25-12.1 Tow truck - use of lanes (first offense) 85.00

      second offense 95.00

      100.00 for the third and each subsequent offense

     31-25-14(d)(1) Maximum weight and tandem axles 125.00

     31-25-14(d)(2) Maximum weight and tandem axles 125.00

     31-25-14(d)(3) Maximum weight and tandem axles 125.00

     31-25-16(c)(2) Maximum weight shown in

      Registration 85.00 per thousand lbs. overweight or portion thereof.

     31-25-16(c)(3) Maximum weight shown in

      Registration 125.00 per thousand lbs. overweight or

     portion thereof. 31-25-16(c)(4) Maximum weight shown in

     registration 1,025.00 plus $125.00 per  thousand pounds

     overweight or portion thereof.

     31-25-17 Identification of trucks and truck-

      tractors (first offense) 85.00

      (second offense) 95.00

      125.00 for the third and subsequent offenses

     31-25-24 Carrying and inspection of excess

      load limit 175.00

     31-25-27(c) Maximum axle 3,000.00 (first offense)

     not to exceed5,000.00 for each and every subsequent offense

     31-25-30 Maximum axle Pawtucket River 3,000.00 (first

      Bridge and Sakonnet River Bridge offense) not to exceed

      5,000.00 for each and every subsequent offense

      31-27-2.3 Refusal to take preliminary breath test 85.00

     31-28-7(d) Wrongful use of handicapped parking placard 500.00

     31-28-7(f) Handicapped parking space violation:

      First offense 100.00 Second offense 175.00

      Third offense and subsequent offenses 325.00

     31-28-7.1(e) Wrongful use of institutional

      handicapped parking placard 125.00

     31-33-2 Failure to file accident report 85.00

     31-36.1-17 No fuel tax stamp (out-of-state) 85.00 and not

      Exceeding ($100) for subsequent offense

     31-38-3 No inspection sticker 85.00

     31-38-4 Violation of inspection laws 85.00

     31-47.2-06 Heavy-duty vehicle emission inspections:

      First offense 125.00

      Second offense 525.00

      Third and subsequent offenses 1,025.00

     37-15-7 Littering not less than 55.00 not more

      than five -hundred dollars ($500)

     39-12-26 Public carriers violation 300.00

      SPEEDING Fine

      SPEEDING Fine

     One to ten miles per hour (1-10 mph)

     in excess of posted speed limit $ 95.00

      Eleven miles per hour (11 mph) in excess

     of posted speed limit with a fine of

     ten dollars ($10.00) per mile in excess 205.00

     of speed limit shall be assessed. minimum

      (b) In addition to any other penalties provided by law, a judge may impose the following

penalties for speeding: (1) For speeds up to and including ten miles per hour (10 mph) over the

posted speed limit on public highways, a fine as provided for in subsection (a) of this section for

the first offense; ten dollars ($10.00) per mile for each mile in excess of the speed limit for the

second offense if within twelve (12) months of the first offense; and fifteen dollars ($15.00) per

mile for each mile in excess of the speed limit for the third and any subsequent offense if within

twelve (12) months of the first offense. In addition, the license may be suspended up to thirty (30)

days. (2) For speeds in excess of ten miles per hour (10 mph) over the posted speed limit on

public highways, a mandatory fine of ten dollars ($10.00) for each mile over the speed limit for

the first offense; fifteen dollars ($15.00) per mile for each mile in excess of the speed limit for the

second offense if within twelve (12) months of the first offense; and twenty dollars ($20.00) per

mile for each mile in excess of the speed limit for the third and subsequent offense if within

twelve (12) months of the first offense. In addition, the license may be suspended up to sixty (60)

days. (c) Except for a technology surcharge assessed in accordance with § 8-15-11, any person

charged with a violation who pays the fine administratively pursuant to chapter 41.1 of title 31

shall not be subject to any additional costs or assessments, including, but not limited to, the

hearing fee established in § 8-18-4.


 

 

285)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-41.2-4

458 and 473

 

 

31-41.2-4. Procedure -- Notice.

     (a) Except as expressly provided in this chapter, all prosecutions based on evidence

produced by an automated, traffic-violation-detection system shall follow the procedures

established in chapter 41.1 of this title; chapter 18 of title 8, except the provisions providing for

payments to the state in §§ 8-18-4 and 8-18-6, and the rules promulgated by the chief magistrate

of the traffic tribunal for the hearing of civil traffic violations. A summons may be issued by an

officer solely based on evidence obtained by use of an automated, traffic-violation-detection

system. All summons issued based on evidence obtained from an automated, traffic-violation-

detection system shall be issued within fourteen (14) twenty-eight (28) days of the violation.

     (b) Notwithstanding any rule, regulation, or other provision of the general or public laws

to the contrary, no city or town shall be required to make payments to the state in implementing

any provision of this chapter until July 1, 2013, nor after July 1, 2015.

     (c) It shall be sufficient to commence a prosecution based on evidence obtained from an

automated, traffic-violation-detection system that a copy of the summons and supporting

documentation be mailed to the address of the registered owner kept on file by the registry of

motor vehicles pursuant to § 31-3-34. For purposes of this section, the date of issuance shall be

the date of mailing.

     (d) The officer issuing the summons shall certify under penalties of perjury that the

evidence obtained from the automated, traffic-violation-detection system was sufficient to

demonstrate a violation of the motor vehicle code. Such certification shall be sufficient in all

prosecutions pursuant to this chapter to justify the entry of a default judgment upon sufficient

proof of actual notice in all cases where the summons is not answered within the time period

permitted.

     (e) The summons shall contain all the information provided for on the uniform summons

as referred to in § 31-41.1-1 and the rules of procedure promulgated by the chief magistrate of the

traffic tribunal, subject to the approval of the supreme court pursuant to § 8-6-2.

     (f) In addition to the summons, the following information shall be attached to the

summons:

     (1) Copies of two (2) or more photographs, or microphotographs, or other recorded

images taken as proof of the violation;

     (2) A signed statement by a trained law enforcement officer that, based on inspection of

recorded images, the motor vehicle was being operated in violation of § 31-13-4 of this subtitle;

     (3) A statement that recorded images are evidence of a violation of this chapter; and

     (4) A statement that the person who receives a summons under this chapter may either

pay the civil penalty in accordance with the provisions of § 31-41.1-3, or elect to stand trial for

the alleged violation.


 

 

286)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-41.3-8

161and 451

 

 

31-41.3-8. Procedure- Notice.

     (a) Except as expressly provided in this chapter, all prosecutions based on evidence

produced by an automated school-zone-speed-enforcement system shall follow the procedures

established in chapter 41.1 of this title, chapter 18 of title 8, and the rules promulgated by the

chief judge of the district court chief magistrate of the traffic tribunal for the hearing of civil

traffic violations. Citations may be issued by an officer solely based on evidence obtained by use

of an automated school-zone-speed-enforcement system. All citations issued based on evidence

obtained from an automated school-zone-speed-enforcement system shall be issued within

fourteen (14) days of the violation.

     (b) It shall be sufficient to commence a prosecution based on evidence obtained from an

automated school-zone-speed-enforcement system, provided that a copy of the citation and

supporting documentation be mailed to the address of the registered owner kept on file by the

registry of motor vehicles pursuant to § 31-3-34. For purposes of this section, the date of issuance

shall be the date of mailing.

     (c) The officer issuing the citation shall certify under penalties of perjury that the

evidence obtained from the automated school-zone-speed-enforcement system was sufficient to

demonstrate a violation of the motor vehicle code. Such certification shall be sufficient in all

prosecutions pursuant to this chapter to justify the entry of a default judgment upon sufficient

proof of actual notice in all cases where the citation is not answered within the time period

permitted.

     (d) The citation shall contain all the information provided for in the uniform summons as

referred to in § 31-41.1-1 and the rules of procedure promulgated by the chief magistrate of the

traffic tribunal.

     (e) In addition to the information in the uniform summons, the following information

shall be attached to the citation:

     (1) Copies of two (2) or more photographs, or microphotographs, or other recorded

images taken as proof of the violation; and

     (2) A signed statement by a trained law enforcement officer that, based on inspection of

recorded images, the motor vehicle was being operated in violation of chapter 14 of title 31

relating to speed restrictions: and

     (3) A statement that recorded images are evidence of a violation of this chapter; and

     (4) A statement that the person who receives a summons under this chapter may either

pay the civil penalty in accordance with the provisions of § 31-41.1-3, or elect to stand trial for

the alleged violation.


 

 

287)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

33-15-7

286 and 294

 

 

33-15-7. Guardians ad litem -- Duties -- Legally incapacitated respondents right to

counsel -- Termination of appointment of guardian ad litem.

     (a) Upon filing with the probate court clerk of a petition for the appointment of a

guardian, a guardian ad litem shall be appointed for each respondent only in the proceeding for

guardianship of an adult.

     (b) The guardian ad litem need not be an attorney but shall have sufficient experience

and/or training in dealing with elderly persons and persons with incapacities and/or disabilities

and understanding of his or her role as guardian ad litem to be able to properly discharge such

duties under subsection (c) below. Each probate court shall maintain a list of persons deemed

qualified to serve as a guardian ad litem and shall appoint from that list on a rotating basis. Any

guardian ad litem appointed for a respondent shall be ineligible to serve as legal counsel,

temporary guardian, or permanent guardian for that respondent.

     (c) The duties of a guardian ad litem shall include all of the following:

     (1) Personally visiting the respondent;

     (2) Explaining to the respondent the nature, purpose, and legal effect of the appointment

of a guardian;

     (3) Explaining to the respondent the hearing procedure, including, but not limited to, the

right to contest the petition, to request limits on the guardian's powers, to object to a particular

person being appointed guardian, to be present at the hearing, and to be represented by legal

counsel;

     (4) Informing the respondent of the name of the person known to be seeking appointment

as guardian;

     (5) Reviewing the decision making assessment tool(s), petition for guardianship/limited

guardianship, and the notice;

     (6) Interviewing the prospective guardian by telephone or in person; and

     (7) Making determinations, and informing the court of those determinations, on all of the

following:

     (i) Whether the respondent wishes to be present at the hearing.;

     (ii) Whether the respondent wishes to contest the petition.;

     (iii) Whether the respondent wishes limits placed on the guardian's powers; and

     (iv) Whether the respondent objects to a particular person being appointed guardian; and

     (v) Whether the respondent wishes to be represented by legal counsel.

     Unless waived by the court, at least three (3) days prior to the hearing, the guardian ad

litem shall file a report substantially in the form as set forth in § 33-15-47 with the court and shall

mail or hand deliver a copy to each attorney of record.

     (d) If the respondent wishes to contest the petition, to have limits placed on the guardian's

powers, or to object to a particular person being appointed guardian, and, if legal counsel has not

been secured, the court shall appoint legal counsel.

     (e) If the respondent requests legal counsel, or if the guardian ad litem determines it is in

the best interest of the respondent to have legal counsel, and if legal counsel has not been secured,

the court shall appoint legal counsel.

     (f) If the respondent has legal counsel independently or appointed pursuant to subsection

(d) or (e), the appointment of a guardian ad litem shall terminate except insofar as informing the

court of the respondent's wishes and objections determined pursuant to subsection (c) above.

     (g) The guardian ad litem shall not interfere with interested parties and their counsel in

gathering and presenting evidence according to court orders and rules of discovery and evidence.

The guardian ad litem may be called and confronted as a witness regarding his or her conclusions

as submitted by report and the extent of his or her personal knowledge concerning the respondent.

     (h) Court awarded guardian ad litem fees shall not exceed four hundred dollars ($400)

eight hundred dollars ($800), which shall be paid by the petitioner for guardianship if a

permanent guardian is not appointed for the respondent or by the guardian of the ward's estate if a

permanent guardian is appointed. The court has discretion to award guardian ad litem fees in

excess of the cap if the circumstances warrant.


 

 

288)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

33-15-18.1

225 and 244

 

 

33-15-18.1. Rights of persons subject to limited guardianship, guardianship and

conservatorship.

     (a) Unless specifically authorized by court order, a limited guardian, guardian, or

conservator shall not restrict a ward's right of communication, visitation, or interaction with other

persons, including the right to receive visitors, telephone calls, or personal mail. If a ward is

unable to express consent to communication, visitation, or interaction with a person due to a

physical or mental condition, then consent of the ward may be presumed based on the ward's

prior relationship history with the person.

     (b) A limited guardian, guardian, or conservator may, for good cause shown, move the

court to have restrictions placed on a person's ability to communicate, visit, or interact with a

ward in accordance with subsection (c) of this section. Good cause means and includes:

     (1) Whether any protective orders have been issued to protect the ward from the person

seeking access to the ward;

     (2) Whether abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of the ward by the person seeking

access to the ward has occurred or is likely to occur;

     (3) Documented wishes of the ward to reject communication, visitation, or interaction

with specific persons; or

     (4) Any other factors deemed relevant by the court.

     (c)(1) A court may order restrictions placed on the communications, visitations, or

interactions a person may have with a ward upon a showing of good cause by the limited

guardian, guardian, or conservator.

     (2) In determining whether to issue an order in accordance with subsection (c)(1) of this

section, the following factors shall be considered by the court:

     (i) Whether any protective orders have been issued to protect the ward from the person

seeking access to the ward;

     (ii) Whether the person has been charged with abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of

the ward;

     (iii) Whether the ward expresses a desire to communicate, visit, or interact with the

person;

     (iv) If the ward is unable to communicate, whether a properly executed living will,

durable power of attorney, or advance directive contains a preference by the ward with regard to

the person's communication, visitation, or interaction with the ward; and

     (v) Any other factors deemed relevant by the court.

     (3) Prior to issuing an order pursuant to subsection (c) of this section, the court shall

consider the following restrictions in the order listed:

     (i) Placing reasonable time, manner, or place restrictions on communication, visitation, or

interaction between the ward and another person based on the history between the ward and the

person or the ward's wishes, or both;

     (ii) Requiring that communication, visitation, or interaction between the ward and

another person be supervised; or

     (iii) Denying communication, visitation, or interaction between the ward and another

person;, provided, that, unless the court finds that the person poses a threat to the ward,

supervised communication, visitation, or interaction under subsection (c)(3)(ii) of this section

shall be ordered prior to the denial of any communication, visitation, or interaction.

     (d)(1) If any interested person, including the ward, reasonably believes that subsection (a)

of this section or an order issued pursuant to subsection (c)(1) of this section has been violated,

then such person may move the court to:

     (i) Require the limited guardian, guardian, or conservator to grant a person access to the

ward;

     (ii) Restrict, or further restrict, a person's access to the ward;

     (iii) Modify the limited guardian, guardian, or conservator's duties; or

     (iv) Discharge and replace the limited guardian, guardian, or conservator pursuant to §33-

15-18.

     (2) Notwithstanding actions available to the court pursuant to subsection (d)(1) of this

section, a limited guardian, guardian, or conservator who is found to be knowingly isolating a

ward and who has violated subsection (a) of this section or an order issued pursuant to subsection

(c) of this section shall be subject to discharge and replacement pursuant to §33-15-18.

     (e)(1) Except as provided in subsection (e)(2) of this section, the court shall schedule a

hearing on a motion filed pursuant to subsection (b) or (d) of this section no later than thirty (30)

days after the date the motion is filed. The court may, in its discretion, order mediation to be

conducted between the parties and the ward prior to the hearing. If mediation results in agreement

of the parties and the ward with regard to communication, visitation, or interaction with the ward,

the agreement shall be approved and memorialized in an order by the court.

     (2)(i) If the motion states that the ward's health is in significant decline or that the ward's

death may be imminent, the court shall conduct an emergency hearing as soon as practicable, but

no later than ten (10) days after the motion is filed.

     (ii) When a scheduling order is issued for a motion filed pursuant to subsection (e)(2)(i)

of this section, the court shall also order that supervised communication, visitation, or interaction

with the ward be granted during the period prior to the hearing.

     (3) Notice of the hearing, a copy of the motion, and a copy of any order issued pursuant

to subsection (e)(2)(ii) of this section, if applicable, shall be personally served upon the ward and

any person against whom the motion is filed, and nothing in this section shall affect the ward's

right to appear and be heard in the proceedings.

     (f)(1) The court may award the prevailing party in any action brought under this section

court costs and reasonable attorneys' fees; provided, however, that an award of court costs or

attorneys' fees shall not be paid out of the ward's estate.

     (2) The court, upon motion or upon its own initiative, shall impose upon a limited

guardian, guardian, or conservator who is found to be knowingly isolating a ward and who has

violated subsection (a) of this section or an order issued pursuant to subsection (c) of this section

an appropriate sanction, including an order to pay court costs and reasonable attorneys' fees of the

other party or parties; provided, however, that no sanction shall be paid out of the ward's estate.

     (g) A limited guardian, guardian, or conservator shall promptly notify a ward's closest

relatives and any person designated by the ward to be notified, along with the appropriate contact

information and upon the limited guardian, guardian, or conservator's knowledge of such event

and information, in the event:

     (1) The ward's residence has changed;

     (2) The ward is staying at a location other than the ward's residence for more than seven

(7) consecutive days;

     (3) The ward is admitted to or discharged from a nursing home or assisted-care living

facility as defined in §§23-17-2 and 23-17.4-2;

     (4) The ward is admitted to a medical facility for:

     (i) Emergency care in response to a life-threatening injury or medical condition; or

     (ii) Acute care; or

     (iii) The ward dies;, provided, that notification of the ward's death shall be made in

person or by telephone.

     (h)(1) A limited guardian, guardian, or conservator is not required to provide notice in

accordance with subsection (g) of this section if:

     (i) A person who is entitled to notice under subsection (g) of this section informs the

limited guardian, guardian, or conservator, in writing, that the person does not wish to receive

such notice; or

     (ii) The ward or a court order has expressly prohibited the limited guardian, guardian, or

conservator from providing notice to the person.

     (2) A limited guardian, guardian, or conservator shall not provide contact information in

accordance with subsection (g) of this section if an order of protection or restraining order has

been issued against the person on behalf of the ward.


 

 

289)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

33-21.1-17

189 and 319

 

 

33-21.1-17. Report of abandoned property.

     (a) A person holding property tangible or intangible, presumed abandoned and subject to

custody as unclaimed property under this chapter, shall report to the administrator concerning the

property as provided in this section.

     (b) The report must be verified and must include:

     (1) Except with respect to travelers checks and money orders, the name, if known, and

last-known address, if any, of each person appearing from the records of the holder to be the

owner of property of the value of fifty ($50.00) dollars or more presumed abandoned under this

chapter;

     (2) In the case of unclaimed funds of fifty dollars ($50.00) or more held or owing under

any life or endowment insurance policy or annuity contract, the full name and last known address

of the insured or annuitant and of the beneficiary according to the records of the insurance

company holding or owing the funds;

     (3) In the case of the contents of a safe deposit box or other safekeeping repository or of

other tangible property, a description of the property and the place where it is held and may be

inspected by the administrator and any amounts owing to the holder;

     (4) The nature and identifying number, if any, or description of the property and the

amount appearing from the records to be due, but items of value under fifty dollars ($50.00) each

shall be reported in the aggregate;

     (5) The date the property became payable, demandable, or returnable, and the date of the

last transaction with the apparent owner with respect to the property; and

     (6) Other information the administrator prescribes by rule as necessary for the

administration of this chapter.

     (c) If the person holding property presumed abandoned and subject to custody as

unclaimed property is a successor to other persons who previously held the property for the

apparent owner or the holder has changed his or her name while holding the property, he or she

shall file with his or her report all known names and addresses of each previous holder of the

property.

     (d) The report must be filed before November 1 of each year as of June 30, next

preceding, and the report of any life insurance company, including the report of unclaimed

insurance company demutualization proceeds made pursuant to § 33-21.1-16.1, must be filed

before November 1 of each year as of June 30 next preceding. On written request by any person

required to file a report, the administrator may postpone the reporting date.

     (e) Not more than one hundred and twenty (120) days before filing the report required by

this section, the holder in possession of property presumed abandoned and subject to custody as

unclaimed property under this chapter shall send written notice to the apparent owner at his or her

last known address informing him or her that the holder is in possession of property subject to

this chapter if:

     (1) The holder has in its records an address for the apparent owner which the holder's

records do not disclose to be inaccurate-:

     (2) The claim of the apparent owner is not barred by the statute of limitations, ;and

     (3) The property has a value of fifty dollars ($50.00) or more.

     (f) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the administrator may provide

information in the form of a social security number or taxpayer identification number to the

department of taxation and department of labor and training for the sole purpose of obtaining the

name and current address of rightful property owner(s) to implement §33-21.1-24. The

information obtained and/or provided shall be kept confidential and the administrator shall be

subject to the same confidentiality laws that apply to the state departments providing the

information.


 

 

290)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

34-27-6

170 and 173

 

 

34-27-6. Payment of outstanding taxes.

     (a) In connection with any sale by public auction made under and according to the

provisions of any mortgage of real estate or any power of sale contained therein or annexed

thereto, if the mortgagee or an affiliate of the mortgagee is the successful bidder for the real estate

or property offered for sale, the foreclosure deed shall be recorded in the records of land evidence

for the municipality where the real estate is located within forty-five (45) days after the date of

the sale. The deed shall be captioned "foreclosure deed" and the date of the foreclosure shall be

stated in the deed. This subsection (a) shall not apply to any such sale if, prior to the recording of

the foreclosure deed: (1) tThe mortgagor files a voluntary proceeding, or an order for relief is

entered in any involuntary proceeding against the mortgagor, under any federal or state

bankruptcy or insolvency statute; or (2) tThe mortgagee abandons or otherwise terminates such

sale.

     (b) Notwithstanding any other general law or local ordinance to the contrary, the grantee

of real estate named in the foreclosure deed shall pay to the municipality, on or before the date

the foreclosure deed is recorded, all taxes and other assessments, including water charges, interest

and penalties, if any, which that constitute liens on the real estate described in the foreclosure

deed and which that are due and owing on the recording date (collectively, "taxes due and

owing"); provided, however, that a grantee shall not be deemed in violation of this subsection (b)

if the grantee shall apply for a municipal lien certificate from the tax collector for the

municipality during the forty-five-(45) day (45) period ending on the day on which the

foreclosure deed is recorded and shall pay the taxes due and owing within thirty (30) days after

the date on which the municipal lien certificate is mailed by the tax collector by the United States

mail, postage prepaid, certified, return receipt requested, and addressed to the grantee at the

address therefor set forth in the application for the municipal lien certificate. Taxes due and

owing for purposes of this section shall include only installments thereof required by law to be

paid as of the date the foreclosure deed is recorded.

     (c) Upon a violation of any one or more of the requirements of this section, a penalty

shall accrue at the rate of forty dollars ($40.00) three hundred dollars ($300) per month (in the

aggregate) for each month or part thereof during which such violation or violations continue. For

purposes of determining the penalty due hereunder, a month commences on the day on which the

first such violation occurs and a new month commences on the same day (or if there is no such

day, then on the last day) of each succeeding calendar month until all taxes due and owing are

paid. In the event of a violation of subsection (a), taxes due and owing shall be determined as of

the date required thereunder for the recording of a foreclosure deed. The maximum aggregate

penalty shall not exceed two thousand dollars ($2,000), which shall be paid prior to the city or

town clerk accepting the foreclosure deed for recording.

     (d) As used in this section, the term "affiliate" shall mean, with respect to any mortgagee,

any individual or legal entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with such

mortgagee, and the term "foreclosure deed" shall mean the mortgagee's deed or other conveyance

of title to the successful bidder at any sale by public auction made under and according to the

provisions of any mortgage of real estate or any power of sale contained therein or annexed

thereto.

     (e) A mortgagee not licensed as a financial lending institution holding a mortgage by

private agreement with another party shall be exempt from the penalty requirements of this

section.


 

 

291)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

34-36.1-3.13

78 and 88

 

 

34-36.1-3.13. Insurance.

     (a) Commencing not later than the time of the first conveyance of a unit to a person other

than a declarant, the association shall maintain, to the extent reasonably available:

     (1) Property insurance on the common elements insuring against all risks of direct,

physical loss commonly insured against or, in the case of a conversion building, against fire and

extended coverage perils. The total amount of insurance after application of any deductibles shall

be not less than eighty percent (80%) of the actual cash value of the insured property at the time

the insurance is purchased and at each renewal date, exclusive of land, excavations, foundations,

and other items normally excluded from property policies; and

     (2) Liability insurance, including medical payments insurance, in an amount determined

by the executive board, but not less than any amount specified in the declaration, covering all

occurrences commonly insured against for death, bodily injury, and property damage arising out

of, or in connection with, the use, ownership, or maintenance of the common elements and any

property owned or leased by the association.

     (b) In the case of a building containing units having horizontal boundaries described in

the declaration, the insurance maintained under subdivision (a)(1), to the extent reasonably

available, shall include the units, but need not include improvements and betterments installed by

unit owners.

     (c) If the insurance described in subsections (a) and (b) is not reasonably available, the

association promptly shall cause notice of that fact to be hand delivered or sent prepaid by United

States mail to all unit owners. The declaration may require the association to carry any other

insurance, and the association in any event may carry any other insurance it deems appropriate to

protect the association or the unit owners.

     (d) Insurance policies carried pursuant to subsection (a) must provide that:

     (1) Each unit owner is an insured person under the policy with respect to liability arising

out of the owner's interest in the common elements or membership in the association;

     (2) The insurer waives its right to subrogation under the policy against any unit owner or

member of the owner's household;

     (3) No act or omission by any unit owner, unless acting within the scope of his or her

authority on behalf of the association, will void the policy or be a condition to recovery under the

policy; and

     (4) If, at the time of a loss under the policy, there is other insurance in the name of a unit

owner covering the same risk covered by the policy, the association's policy provides primary

insurance.

     (e) Any loss covered by the property policy under subdivision (a)(1) and subsection (b)

must be adjusted with the association, but the insurance proceeds for that loss are payable to any

insurance trustee designated for that purpose, or otherwise to the association, and not to any

mortgagee or beneficiary under a deed of trust. The insurance trustee or the association shall hold

any insurance proceeds in trust for unit owners and lien holders as their interests may appear.

Subject to the provisions of subsection (h), the proceeds must be disbursed first for the repair or

restoration of the damaged property, and unit owners and lien holders are not entitled to receive

payment of any portion of the proceeds unless there is a surplus of proceeds after the property has

been completed, repaired or restored, or the condominium is terminated.

     (f) An insurance policy issued to the association does not prevent a unit owner from

obtaining insurance for his or her own benefit.

     (g) An insurer that has issued an insurance policy under this section shall issue

certificates or memoranda of insurance to the association and, upon written request, to any unit

owner, mortgagee, or beneficiary under a deed of trust. The insurer issuing the policy may not

cancel or refuse to renew it until thirty (30) days after notice of the proposed cancellation or

nonrenewal has been mailed to the association, each unit owner, and each mortgagee or

beneficiary under a deed of trust to whom a certificate or memorandum of insurance has been

issued at their respective last known addresses.

     (h) Any portion of the condominium for which insurance is required under this section

which that is damaged or destroyed shall be repaired or replaced promptly by the association

unless (1) the condominium is terminated,; (2) repair or replacement would be illegal under any

state or local health or safety statute or ordinance,; or (3) eighty percent (80%) of the unit owners,

including every owner of a unit or assigned, limited common element which that will not be

rebuilt, vote not to rebuild unless insurance proceeds are adequate to rebuild. The cost of repair or

replacement in excess of insurance proceeds and reserves is a common expense. If the entire

condominium is not repaired or replaced, (1) the insurance proceeds attributable to the damaged

common elements must be used to restore the damaged area to a condition compatible with the

remainder of the condominium,; (2) the insurance proceeds attributable to units and limited,

common elements which that are not rebuilt must be distributed to the owners of those units and

the owners of the units to which those limited common elements were allocated, or to lienholders,

as their interests may appear,; and (3) the remainder of the proceeds must be distributed to all the

unit owners or lienholders, as their interests may appear, in proportion to the common element

interests of all the units. If the unit owners vote not to rebuild any unit, that unit's allocated

interests are automatically reallocated upon the vote as if the unit had been condemned under §

34-36.1-1.07(a) and the association promptly shall prepare, execute, and record an amendment to

the declaration reflecting the reallocations. Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection, §

34-36.1-2.18 governs the distribution of insurance proceeds if the condominium is terminated.

     (i) In the event a unit owner sustains damage to the owner's unit as a result of an event

that is covered under the insurance coverage purchased in accordance with this section, then upon

written request to the condominium association, the unit owner shall be entitled to a written copy

from the condominium association of the insurance company damage appraisal or any damage

appraisal in regard to damage to the owner's unit, within fourteen (14) calendar days of the date

of the unit owner's request, or within fourteen (14) days of the association's receipt of the damage

appraisal, whichever is later. If coverage for the damage to a unit is denied for any reason or is

deemed to be valued below the policy deductible, then the unit owner shall also be entitled to

receive, from the association, a copy of the letter detailing the determination.

     (i)(j) The provisions of this section may be varied or waived in the case of a

condominium all of whose units are restricted to nonresidential use.


 

 

292)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

35-10-15

399 and 427

 

 

35-10-15. Disclosure of performance and expenses.

     (a) In 2015, the office of general treasurer launched the "Transparent Treasury Initiative"

in order to assist the public in accessing information regarding how the state's pension

investments are managed and invested,; how such investments are performing,; and to provide an

overview of the state's pension investment strategies. The purpose of this section is to provide a

statutory requirement for the continuance of several aspects of this initiative.

     (b) The state investment commission shall, on a best-effort basis, compile and disclose in

a manner readily accessible to the public the following information:

     (1) On a quarterly basis, as to each investment vehicle and as to all vehicles in the

aggregate, the current values of the investment, and the annualized performance of the

investment, net of fees and expenses;

     (2) On an annual basis, as to each vehicle and as to all vehicles in the aggregate, the dollar

amount of fees and expenses paid to each manager including , if applicable, management fees,

performance fees, and fund expenses.

     (c) Disclosure of expenses in §35-10-15(b)(2) subsection (b)(2) of this section shall only

be required for investments initiated by the retirement system on or after June 30, 2017.

     (d) The general treasurer shall use best efforts to calculate and verify the relevant

information necessary for the state investment commission to comply with these disclosure

requirements.

     (e) For purposes of this section:

     (1) "Investment" means an investment in a mutual fund, index fund, private equity fund,

a venture capital fund, a hedge fund, a real estate fund, infrastructure fund, or any other

investment vehicle in which retirement system assets are invested.

     (2) "Investment vehicle" means the mutual fund, index fund, limited partnership, limited-

liability company or similar legal structure through which the retirement system makes an

investment.

     (3) "Retirement system" means the employees' retirement system of the state established

by §36-8-2.


 

 

293)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

36-10-36

406 and 416, 181 and 279

 

 

36-10-36. Post-retirement employment.

     (a) On and after July 7, 1994, no member who has retired under the provisions of titles

16, 36, or 45 may be employed or reemployed by any state agency or department unless any and

all retirement benefits to which he or she may be entitled by virtue of the provisions of titles 16,

36, or 45 are suspended for the duration of any employment or reemployment. No additional

service credits shall be granted for any post-retirement employment or reemployment and no

deductions shall be taken from an individual's salary for retirement contribution. Notice of any

such post-retirement employment or reemployment shall be sent monthly to the retirement board

by the employing agency or department and by the retired member.

     (b) Any member who has retired under the provisions of titles 16, 36, or 45 may be

employed or reemployed by any municipality within the state that has accepted the provisions of

chapter 21 of title 45 and participates in the municipal employees' retirement system for a period

of not more than seventy-five (75) working days or one hundred fifty (150) half days with half-

day pay in any one calendar year without any forfeiture or reduction of any retirement benefits

and allowances the member is receiving, or may receive, as a retired member. Pension payments

shall be suspended whenever this period is exceeded. No additional contributions shall be taken,

and no additional service credits shall be granted, for this service. Notice of this employment or

re-employment shall be sent monthly to the retirement board by the employer and by the retired

member.

     (c) Any member who has retired under the provisions of title 16, 36, or 45 may be

employed or re-employed by any municipality within the state that has not accepted the

provisions of chapter 21 of title 45 and that does not participate in the municipal employees'

retirement system.

     (d) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section:

     (1) Any retired member of the system shall be permitted to serve as an elected mayor, the

town administrator, the city administrator, the town manager, the city manager, the chief

administrative officer, or the chief executive officer of any city or town, city or town council

member, school committee member, or unpaid member of any part-time state board or

commission or member of any part-time municipal board or commission, and shall continue to be

eligible for, and receive, the retirement allowance for service other than that as a mayor,

administrator, council member, school committee member, or member of any state board or

commission or member of any part-time municipal board or commission; provided, however, that

no additional service credits shall be granted for any service under this subsection;

     (2) Any retired member, who retired from service at any state college, university, state

school, or who retired from service as a teacher under the provisions of title 16, or who retired

from service under title 36 or title 45, may be employed or reemployed, on a part-time basis, by

any state college, university, or state school for the purpose of providing classroom instruction,

academic advising of students, and/or coaching. Compensation shall be provided at a level not to

exceed the salary provided to other faculty members employed under a collective bargaining

agreement at the institution. In no event shall "part-time" mean gross pay of more than fifteen

eighteen thousand dollars ($15,000) ($18,000) in any one calendar year. Any retired member who

provides such instruction or service shall do so without forfeiture or reduction of any retirement

benefit or allowance; provided, however, that no additional service credits shall be granted for

any service under this subsection;

     (3) Any retired member who retired from service as a teacher under the provisions of title

16, or as a state employee who, while an active state employee, was certified to teach driver

education by the department of elementary and secondary education or by the board of governors

for higher education, may be employed or reemployed, on a part-time basis, by the department of

elementary and secondary education or by the board of governors of higher education for the

purpose of providing classroom instruction in driver education courses in accordance with § 31-

10-19 and/or motorcycle driver education courses in accordance with § 31-10.1-1.1. In no event

shall "part-time" mean gross pay of more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) in any one

calendar year. Any retired teacher who provides that instruction shall do so without forfeiture or

reduction of any retirement benefit or allowance the retired teacher is receiving as a retired

teacher; provided, however, that no additional service credits shall be granted for any service

under this subsection;

     (4) Any retired member who retired from service as a registered nurse may be employed

or reemployed, on a per-diem basis, for the purpose of providing professional nursing care and/or

services at a state-operated facility in Rhode Island. In no event shall "part-time" mean gross pay

of more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) in any one calendar year. Any retired nurse who

provides such care and/or services shall do so without forfeiture or reduction of any retirement

benefit or allowance the retired nurse is receiving as a retired nurse; provided, however, that no

additional service credits shall be granted for any service under this subsection; and

     (5) Any retired member who, at the time of passage of this section, serves as a general

magistrate within the family court and thereafter retires from judicial service, may be employed

or reemployed by the family court to perform such services as a general magistrate of the family

court as the chief judge of the family court shall prescribe without any forfeiture or reduction of

any retirement benefits and allowances that he or she is receiving or may receive. For any such

services or assignments performed after retirement, the general magistrate shall receive no

compensation whatsoever, either monetary or in kind. No additional contributions shall be taken

and no additional service credits shall be granted for this service; and

     (6) Any retired member of the system shall be permitted to serve as a municipal

employee without any forfeiture or reduction of any retirement benefits and allowances that he or

she is receiving or may receive; provided, that said member shall be appointed by and serves at

the pleasure of the highest elected chief executive officer, as defined in § 45-9-2, in any city or

town subject to the provisions of chapter 9 of title 45 entitled "Budget Commissions" relating to

the appointment of a fiscal overseer, budget commission, receiver, and/or financial advisor.

Provided further, that no additional service credits shall be granted for any service under this

subsection.

36-10-36. Post-retirement employment.

 (2) Any retired member, who retired from service at any state college, university, state

school, or who retired from service as a teacher under the provisions of title 16, or who retired

from service under title 36 or title 45, may be employed or reemployed, on a part-time basis, by

any state college, university, or state school for the purpose of providing classroom instruction,

academic advising of students, and/or coaching. Compensation shall be provided at a level not to

exceed the salary provided to other faculty members employed under a collective bargaining

agreement at the institution. In no event shall "part-time" mean gross pay of more than fifteen

thousand dollars ($15,000) in any one calendar year. Any retired member who provides such

instruction or service shall do so without forfeiture or reduction of any retirement benefit or

allowance; provided, however, that no additional service credits shall be granted for any service

under this subsection;

     (3) Any retired member who retired from service as a teacher under the provisions of title

16, or as a state employee who, while an active state employee, was certified to teach driver

education by the department of elementary and secondary education or by the board of governors

for higher education, may be employed or reemployed, on a part-time basis, by the department of

elementary and secondary education or by the board of governors of higher education for the

purpose of providing classroom instruction in driver education courses in accordance with § 31-

10-19 and/or motorcycle driver education courses in accordance with § 31-10.1-1.1. In no event

shall "part-time" mean gross pay of more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) in any one

calendar year. Any retired teacher who provides that instruction shall do so without forfeiture or

reduction of any retirement benefit or allowance the retired teacher is receiving as a retired

teacher; provided, however, that no additional service credits shall be granted for any service

under this subsection;

     (4) Any retired member who retired from service as a registered nurse may be employed

or reemployed, on a per-diem basis, for the purpose of providing professional nursing care and/or

services at a state-operated facility in Rhode Island, including employment as a faculty member

of a nursing program at a state-operated college or university. In no event shall "part-time" mean

gross pay of more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) a period of seventy-five (75) working

days or one hundred fifty (150) half days with half pay in any one calendar year. Any retired

nurse who provides such care and/or services shall do so without forfeiture or reduction of any

retirement benefit or allowance the retired nurse is receiving as a retired nurse; provided,

however, that no additional service credits shall be granted for any service under this subsection.

Pension payments shall be suspended whenever this period is exceeded. No additional

contributions shall be taken and no additional service credits shall be granted for this service.

Notice of this employment or re-employment shall be sent monthly to the retirement board by the

employer and by the retired member; and

     (5) Any retired member who, at the time of passage of this section, serves as a general

magistrate within the family court and thereafter retires from judicial service, may be employed

or reemployed by the family court to perform such services as a general magistrate of the family

court as the chief judge of the family court shall prescribe without any forfeiture or reduction of

any retirement benefits and allowances that he or she is receiving or may receive. For any such

services or assignments performed after retirement, the general magistrate shall receive no

compensation whatsoever, either monetary or in kind. No additional contributions shall be taken

and no additional service credits shall be granted for this service; and

     (6) Any retired member of the system shall be permitted to serve as a municipal

employee without any forfeiture or reduction of any retirement benefits and allowances that he or

she is receiving or may receive; provided, that said member shall be appointed by and serves at

the pleasure of the highest elected chief executive officer, as defined in § 45-9-2, in any city or

town subject to the provisions of chapter 9 of title 45 entitled "Budget Commissions" relating to

the appointment of a fiscal overseer, budget commission, receiver, and/or financial advisor.

Provided further, that no additional service credits shall be granted for any service under this

subsection.


 

 

294)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

37-14.3

116 and 136

 

 

CHAPTER 14.3

VETERAN-OWNED BUSINESS ENTERPRISES


 

 

295)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

37-24-2

394 and 418

 

 

37-24-2. Legislative findings.

     It is hereby found and declared as follows:

     (1) Energy costs for public buildings and public projects are skyrocketing and will likely

continue to increase.

     (2) Energy use by public buildings and public projects contributes substantially to the

problems of pollution and global warming.

     (3) Public buildings and public projects can be built and renovated using high-

performance methods that save energy,; reduce water consumption,; improve indoor air quality,

and water,; preserve the environment,; and make workers and students more productive.

     (4) This law is necessary to more efficiently spend public funds.


 

 

 

 

 

296)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

37-24-3

394 and 418

 

 

37-24-3. Definitions.

     For purposes of this chapter, the following definitions shall apply:

     (1) "Construction" means the process of building, altering, repairing, improving, or

demolishing forty percent (40%) or more of any public structures or buildings, or other public

improvements of any kind to any public real property.

     (2) "Department" means the department of administration.

     (3) "Equivalent standard" means a high-performance, green building standard, other than

LEED, LEED for Neighborhood Development, and SITES, which that provides a rating system

or measurement tool, that, when used, leads to outcomes, similar or equivalent to, LEED, LEED

for Neighborhood Development, and SITES outcomes, in terms of green-building, green-

infrastructure, and green-site performance; current accepted equivalent standards include green

globes, Northeast collaborative high-performance schools protocol; or other equivalent high-

performance, green-building, green-infrastructure, and green-site standard standards accepted by

the department;.

     (4) "LEED-also, "LEED for Neighborhood Development,- and SITES- certified

standard" means the current version of the United States Green Building Council Leadership in

Energy and Environmental Design green building rating standard referred to as LEED, LEED for

Neighborhood Development, and SITES certified. SITES means the U.S. Green Building

Council's Sustainable Sites Initiative.

     (5) "Major facility project" means:

     (i) A building construction project larger than five thousand (5,000) gross square feet of

occupied or conditioned space, and its public real-property site; or

     (ii) A building renovation project is larger than ten thousand (10,000) gross square feet of

occupied or conditioned space, and its public real-property site.

     (6) "Public agency" means every state office, board, commission, committee, bureau,

department, or public institution of higher education.

     (7) "Public facility" means any public institution, public facility, public equipment, or

any physical asset owned, including its public real-property site, leased or controlled in whole or

in part by this state or any agency or political subdivision thereof.


 

 

297)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

37-24-4

394 and 418

 

 

37-24-4. Green building standards.

     (a) All major facility projects of public agencies shall be designed and constructed to at

least the LEED-, LEED for Neighborhood Development-, and SITES-, as provided herein,

certified or an equivalent high-performance, green-building standard. This provision applies to

major facility projects or other public improvements of any kind to any public real property that

have not entered the design phase prior to January 1, 2010, for LEED, and July 1, 2017, for

LEED for Neighborhood Development and SITES through December 31, 2020, or for up to four

(4) projects, whichever comes first, unless otherwise continued or expanded by the general

assembly.

     (b) All major facility projects of a public school district, where the project receives any

funding from the state, shall be designed, and constructed to at least the LEED-, LEED for

Neighborhood Development-, and SITES-, as provided herein, certified standard, or the Northeast

Collaborative for High-Performance Schools Protocol, Version 1.1 or above. This provision

applies to major facility projects or other public improvements of any kind to any public real

property that have not entered the design phase prior to January 1, 2010, LEED for Neighborhood

Development, and SITES through December 31, 2020 or for up to four (4) projects, whichever

comes first, unless otherwise continued or expanded by the general assembly.

     (c) A major facility project does not have to meet the LEED-, LEED for Neighborhood

Development-, and SITES-certified standard or an equivalent high-performance, green-building

standard if:

     (1) There is no appropriate LEED, LEED for Neighborhood Development, and SITES

standard or other high-performance, green-building standard for that type of building or

renovation project or other public improvements of any kind to any public real property. In such

case, the department will set lesser green-building standards that are appropriate to the project.

     (2) There is no practical way to apply the LEED, LEED for Neighborhood Development,

and SITES standard or other high-performance, green-building standard to a particular building

or renovation project or other public improvements of any kind to any public real property. In

such case, the department will set lesser green-building standards that are appropriate to the

project.

     (d) The provisions related to LEED for Neighborhood Development and SITES shall

continue through December 31, 2020, for up to four (4) projects selected by the department,

subject to evaluation and continuation by the general assembly thereafter.


 

 

298)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

37-24-5

394 and 418

 

 

37-24-5. Administration and reports.

     (a) The department shall promulgate such regulations as are necessary to enforce this

section. Those regulations shall include how the department will determine whether a project

qualifies for an exception from the LEED-, LEED for Neighborhood Development-, and SITES-

certified or equivalent high-performance, green-building standard, and the lesser green-building

standards that may be imposed on projects that are granted exceptions. Regulations for LEED for

Neighborhood Development and SITES shall be promulgated after December 2020 based on the

assessment by the department of up to four (4) eligible state projects selected by the department,

and upon continuation of the use of LEED for Neighborhood Development, and SITES by the

general assembly.

     (b) The department shall monitor and document ongoing operating savings that result

from major facility projects designed, constructed and certified as meeting the LEED-, LEED for

Neighborhood Development-, and SITES-certified standard and annually publish a public report

of findings and recommended changes in policy. The report shall also include a description of

projects that were granted exceptions from the LEED-, LEED for Neighborhood Development-,

and SITES-certified standard, the reasons for exception, and the lesser green-building standards

imposed.

     (c) In order to understand the capacity and cost, the department shall test the application

of LEED for Neighborhood Development, and SITES for up to four (4) state projects. The

department, with the assistance from the department of environmental management, shall assess

the costs and benefits in accordance with subsection (d) of this section and report to the general

assembly on or before December 31, 2020.

     (d) The annual LEED reports for 2017 through 2020 required under subsection (b) of this

section, shall include any assessment of costs and benefits of the LEED for Neighborhood

Development, and SITES standards. The purpose of the assessment is to determine whether the

department shall require LEED for Neighborhood Development, and SITES standards for major-

facility projects beyond December 31, 2020, along with determining any exceptions from the

standards that may be required.

     (c)(e) The department shall create a green buildings advisory committee composed of

representatives from the design, construction, lumber, and building materials industries involved

in public works contracting,; personnel from affected public agencies and school boards that

oversee public works projects,; and others at the department's discretion to provide advice on

implementing this section. The advisory committee shall make recommendations regarding an

education and training process and an ongoing evaluation or feedback process to help the

department implement this section.

     (f) The provisions related to LEED for Neighborhood Development and SITES shall

continue through December 31, 2020, for up to four (4) projects selected by the department,

subject to evaluation and continuation by the general assembly thereafter.


 

 

299)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

37-24-6

394 and 418

 

 

37-24-6. Protection from liability.

No person, corporation or entity shall be held liable for the failure of a major facility

project to meet the LEED-, LEED for Neighborhood Development-, and SITES-certified standard

or other standards established for the project as long as a good faith attempt was made to achieve

the standard set for the project.


 

 

300)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers

 

38-2-2

48 and 54

 

 

38-2-2. Definitions.

As used in this chapter:

      (1) "Agency" or "public body" means any executive, legislative, judicial, regulatory, or

administrative body of the state, or any political subdivision thereof; including, but not limited

to,: any department, division, agency, commission, board, office, bureau, authority,; any school,

fire, or water district, or other agency of Rhode Island state or local government which that

exercises governmental functions,; any authority as defined in § 42-35-1(b),; or any other public

or private agency, person, partnership, corporation, or business entity acting on behalf of and/or

in place of any public agency.

      (2) "Chief administrative officer" means the highest authority of the public body.

      (3) "Public business" means any matter over which the public body has supervision,

control, jurisdiction, or advisory power.

      (4) "Public record" or "public records" shall mean all documents, papers, letters, maps,

books, tapes, photographs, films, sound recordings, magnetic or other tapes, electronic data

processing records, computer stored data (including electronic mail messages, except specifically

for any electronic mail messages of or to elected officials with or relating to those they represent

and correspondence of or to elected officials in their official capacities), or other material

regardless of physical form or characteristics made or received pursuant to law or ordinance or in

connection with the transaction of official business by any agency. For the purposes of this

chapter, the following records shall not be deemed public:

      (A) (I) (a) All records relating to a client/attorney relationship and to a doctor/patient

relationship, including all medical information relating to an individual in any files.

      (b) Personnel and other personal individually-identifiable individually identifiable

records otherwise deemed confidential by federal or state law or regulation, or the disclosure of

which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy pursuant to 5 U.S.C. §

552 et. seq.; provided, however, with respect to employees, and employees of contractors and

subcontractors working on public works projects which that are required to be listed as certified

payrolls, the name, gross salary, salary range, total cost of paid fringe benefits, gross amount

received in overtime, and any other remuneration in addition to salary, job title, job description,

dates of employment and positions held with the state, municipality, employment contract, or public works

contractor or subcontractor on public works projects work location, and/or project, business

telephone number, the city or town of residence, and date of termination shall be public. For the

purposes of this section "remuneration" shall include any payments received by an employee as a

result of termination, or otherwise leaving employment, including, but not limited to, payments

for accrued sick and/or vacation time, severance pay, or compensation paid pursuant to a contract

buy-out provision.

      (II) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, or any other provision of the general

laws to the contrary, the pension records of all persons who are either current or retired members

of any public retirement systems, as well as all persons who become members of those retirement

systems after June 17, 1991, shall be open for public inspection. "Pension records" as used in this

section, shall include all records containing information concerning pension and retirement

benefits of current and retired members of the retirement systems and future members of said

systems, including all records concerning retirement credits purchased and the ability of any

member of the retirement system to purchase retirement credits, but excluding all information

regarding the medical condition of any person and all information identifying the member's

designated beneficiary or beneficiaries unless and until the member's designated beneficiary or

beneficiaries have received or are receiving pension and/or retirement benefits through the

retirement system.

      (B) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person, firm,

or corporation which that is of a privileged or confidential nature.

      (C) Child custody and adoption records, records of illegitimate births, and records of

juvenile proceedings before the family court.

      (D) All records maintained by law enforcement agencies for criminal law enforcement

and all records relating to the detection and investigation of crime, including those maintained on

any individual or compiled in the course of a criminal investigation by any law enforcement

agency. Provided, however, such records shall not be deemed public only to the extent that the

disclosure of the records or information (a) could reasonably be expected to interfere with

investigations of criminal activity or with enforcement proceedings,; (b) would deprive a person

of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication,; (c) could reasonably be expected to

constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy,; (d) could reasonably be expected to

disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a state, local, or foreign agency or

authority, or any private institution which that furnished information on a confidential basis, or

the information furnished by a confidential source,; (e) would disclose techniques and procedures

for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law

enforcement investigations or prosecutions; or (f) could reasonably be expected to endanger the

life or physical safety of any individual. Records relating to management and direction of a law

enforcement agency and records or reports reflecting the initial arrest of an adult and the charge

or charges brought against an adult shall be public.

      (E) Any records which that would not be available by law or rule of court to an

opposing party in litigation.

      (F) Scientific and technological secrets and the security plans of military and law

enforcement agencies, the disclosure of which would endanger the public welfare and security.

      (G) Any records which that disclose the identity of the contributor of a bona fide and

lawful charitable contribution to the public body whenever public anonymity has been requested

of the public body with respect to the contribution by the contributor.

      (H) Reports and statements of strategy or negotiation involving labor negotiations or

collective bargaining.

      (I) Reports and statements of strategy or negotiation with respect to the investment or

borrowing of public funds, until such time as those transactions are entered into.

      (J) Any minutes of a meeting of a public body which that are not required to be

disclosed pursuant to chapter 46 of title 42.

      (K) Preliminary drafts, notes, impressions, memoranda, working papers, and work

products; , including those involving research at state institutions of higher education on

commercial, scientific, artistic, technical, or scholarly issues, whether in electronic or other

format; provided, however, any documents submitted at a public meeting of a public body shall

be deemed public.

      (L) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to administer a

licensing examination, examination for employment or promotion, or academic examinations;

provided, however, that a person shall have the right to review the results of his or her

examination.

      (M) Correspondence of or to elected officials with or relating to those they represent and

correspondence of or to elected officials in their official capacities.

      (N) The contents of real estate appraisals, engineering, or feasibility estimates and

evaluations made for or by an agency relative to the acquisition of property or to prospective

public supply and construction contracts, until such time as all of the property has been acquired

or all proceedings or transactions have been terminated or abandoned; provided the law of

eminent domain shall not be affected by this provision.

      (O) All tax returns.

      (P) All investigatory records of public bodies, with the exception of law enforcement

agencies, pertaining to possible violations of statute, rule, or regulation other than records of final

actions taken, provided that all records prior to formal notification of violations or noncompliance

shall not be deemed to be public.

      (Q) Records of individual test scores on professional certification and licensing

examinations; provided, however, that a person shall have the right to review the results of his or

her examination.

      (R) Requests for advisory opinions until such time as the public body issues its opinion.

      (S) Records, reports, opinions, information, and statements required to be kept

confidential by federal law or regulation or state law, or rule of court.

      (T) Judicial bodies are included in the definition only in respect to their administrative

function provided that records kept pursuant to the provisions of chapter 16 of title 8 are exempt

from the operation of this chapter.

      (U) Library records which that, by themselves or when examined with other public

records, would reveal the identity of the library user requesting, checking out, or using any library

materials.

      (V) Printouts from TELE -- TEXT devices used by people who are deaf or hard of

hearing or speech impaired.

      (W) All records received by the insurance division of the department of business

regulation from other states, either directly or through the National Association of Insurance

Commissioners, if those records are accorded confidential treatment in that state. Nothing

contained in this title or any other provision of law shall prevent or be construed as prohibiting

the commissioner of insurance from disclosing otherwise confidential information to the

insurance department of this or any other state or country, at any time, so long as the agency or

office receiving the records agrees in writing to hold it confidential in a manner consistent with

the laws of this state.

      (X) Credit card account numbers in the possession of state or local government are

confidential and shall not be deemed public records.

      (Y) Any documentary material, answers to written interrogatories, or oral testimony

provided under any subpoena issued under Rhode Island general law § 9-1.1-6.

      (Z) Any individually identifiable evaluations of public school teachers made pursuant to

state or federal law or regulation.

      (AA) All documents prepared by school districts intended to be used by school districts

in protecting the safety of their students from potential and actual threats.


 

 

 301)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

38-2-16

304 and 310

 

 

38-2-16. 38 Studios, LLC investigation.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter or state law, any investigatory

records generated or obtained by the Rhode Island state police or the Rhode Island attorney

general in conducting an investigation surrounding the funding of 38 Studios, LLC by the Rhode

Island economic development corporation shall be made available to the public; provided,

however:

     (1) With respect to such records, birthdates, social security numbers, home addresses,

financial account number(s) or similarly sensitive personally-identifiable information, but not the

names of the individuals themselves, shall be redacted from those records prior to any release.

The provisions of §12-11.1-5.1 shall not apply to information disclosed pursuant to this section.

     SECTION 2. This act shall take effect upon passage.


 

 

302)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-26

82 and 90

 

 

39-1-26. Public utilities reserve fund created -- Appropriations -- Recovery of

expenses from utility companies.

     (a) There is hereby created a fund to be known as the public utilities reserve account, an

account within the public utilities commission in the general fund. Such account, hereinafter

referred to as the "fund", shall be used for the purpose of providing the financial means for the

commission and division to purchase materials, and to employ on a contract or other basis, legal

counsel, official stenographers, engineers, accountants, economists, and other expert witnesses,

and for other necessary expenses of the commission and division in investigations and hearings

related to applications and filings made by public utilities, or commission- or division-initiated

investigations into utility operating practices, or related appeals to state or federal courts or in

relevant regulatory matters before federal agencies. The general assembly shall annually

appropriate to the fund a sum equal to twenty-five one thousandths of one percent (.00025%) of

the gross, annual operating revenues of gas, electric, and telephone companies attributable to their

conduct of intrastate operations in this state during the year next preceding; provided, however,

that if at June 30, in any year the balance in the fund shall be in excess of one hundred thousand

dollars ($100,000), the amount of the excess shall forthwith be transferred to the general fund of

the state. Prebilled revenue shall be excluded from an excess balance to be transferred to the

general fund. The state controller is authorized and directed to draw his or her orders upon the

general treasurer for the payment from the fund of such sums as may be required from time to

time upon receipt by him or her of proper vouchers approved by the administrator.

     (b) The public utility making an application or filing to the commission or division, or

subject to a commission- or division-initiated investigation, or any public utility distributing

electricity or gas whose retail rates would be affected by a proceeding filing made by the

administrator or a federally regulated electric or gas company before an agency of the federal

government or a federal court, shall be charged with and shall pay a portion of the expenses

reasonably so incurred by the commission and by the division for the purchase of materials and

for the employment of legal counsel, official stenographers, engineers, accountants, and expert

witnesses, and for travel and other necessary expenses as are reasonably attributable to the

investigation or the hearing of the proposal by the commission and the division, or to the

administrator's representation of the state before the federal or state courts or an agency of the

federal government. The administrator or the commission chairperson, as appropriate, shall

ascertain the expenses and shall determine the amount to be paid by the public utility company or

companies, and bills shall be rendered therefor either at the conclusion of the investigation or

hearing, or from time to time during its progress, and the amount of each bill so rendered shall be

paid by the public utility to the administrator or the commission, as appropriate, within thirty (30)

days from the date of its rendition unless, within the thirty-(30) day (30) time period, the public

utility so billed shall request an opportunity to be heard by the commission as to the amount

thereof. The commission shall comply with any such request. Any amount of the bill not paid

within thirty (30) days from the date of service of the determination upon the hearing, or, if none

shall be requested, within thirty (30) days from the date of rendition of the bill, shall draw interest

at the rate of twelve percent (12%) per annum. At the discretion of the administrator, or the

commission chairperson, as appropriate, utility companies may be prebilled for contractual

services utilized by the commission or division. Any revenue received from public utilities not

expended upon the completion of the case will be promptly reimbursed to the utility company.

The total amount which that may be charged to any public utility under authority of this section

for proceedings before the commission or division or in related appeals before state or federal

courts in any calendar year shall not exceed five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) seven

hundred and fifty thousand dollars ($750,000), provided that any indirect cost recovery

obligations pursuant to § 35-4-27 shall constitute a separate and additional assessment to public

utilities to be added to the foregoing expense assessment limit; in addition, the total amount

which that may be charged against any public utility under authority of this section for the

administrator's representation of the state before agencies of the federal government in any

calendar year shall not exceed five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) two hundred and fifty

thousand dollars ($250,000). All moneys collected by the administrator or the commission

pursuant to this section shall be paid by him or her monthly to the general treasurer to be added to

the public utilities reserve fund.

     (c) The division of public utilities shall adopt by regulation, a fee schedule for all

telecommunications filings, including initial applications and annual registrations, by

telecommunications providers which that are not otherwise subject to the provisions of

subsections (a) or (b) of this section. The money assessed and paid shall be paid into the general

fund and shall not be a part of the public utilities reserve fund.

     (d) The general assembly shall annually appropriate such sums as it may deem necessary

for the salaries of the commissioners and their expenses incurred in the performance of their

duties, and for the operations of the commission and the division and payment of such office

expenses and assistance as from time to time may be required. The state controller is authorized

and directed to draw his or her orders upon the general treasurer for the payment of such sum, or

so much thereof, as may be required from time to time upon receipt by him or her of vouchers

approved by the administrator or his or her authorized agent.


 

 

303)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-43

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-43. [Repeal]


 

 

304)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-44

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-44. [Repeal]


 

 

305)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-45

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-45. [Repeal]


 

 

306)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-46

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-46. [Repeal]


 

 

307)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-47

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-47. [Repeal]


 

 

308)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-48

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-48. [Repeal]


  

309)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-49

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-49. [Repeal]


 

 

310)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-50

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-50. [Repeal]


 

 

311)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

31-1-51

18 and 31

 

 

31-1-51. [Repeal]


 

 

312)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-52

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-52. [Repeal]


 

 

313)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-53

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-53. [Repeal]


 

 

314)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-54

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-54. [Repeal]


 

 

315)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-55

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-55. [Repeal]


 

 

316)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-56

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-56. [Repeal]


 

 

317)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-57

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-57. [Repeal]


 

 

318)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-58

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-58. [Repeal]


 

 

319)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-59

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-59. [Repeal]


 

 

320)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-60

18 and 31

 

 

39-1-60. [Repeal]


 

 

321)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1.2-1

83 and 91

 

 

39-1.2-1. Definitions.

As used in this chapter:

     (1)(2) "Administrator" means the administrator of the division of public utilities and

carriers.

     (2)(3) "Approximate location of underground facilities" means a strip of land extending

not more than one and one-half (1 1/2) feet on either side of the underground facilities.

     (3)(4) "Association" means the group of public utilities formed pursuant to § 39-1.2-4 for

the purpose of receiving and giving notice of excavation activity within the state.

     (4)(5) "Damage" means and includes, but is not limited to, the substantial weakening of

structural or lateral support of a utility line, penetration, or destruction of any utility line

protective coating, housing, or other protective device or the severance, partial or complete, of

any utility line.

     (5)(6) "Demolition" means the wrecking, razing, rending, moving, or removing of any

structure.

     (6)(7) "Excavation" means an operation for the purpose of movement or removal of earth,

rock, or other materials in or on the ground, or otherwise disturbing the subsurface of the earth,

by the use of powered or mechanized equipment, including, but not limited to: digging, blasting,

auguring, back filling, test boring, drilling, pile driving, grading, plowing in, hammering, pulling

in, trenching, and tunneling; excluding the movement of earth by tools manipulated only by

human or animal power and the tilling of soil for agricultural purposes.

     (7)(8) "Governing authority" means the permit-issuing authority.

     (8)(11) "Person" means an individual, partnership, corporation, association, or a public

utility, including a person engaged as a contractor by a public agency and including a public

agency.

     (9)(12) "Public agency" means the state or any political subdivision thereof, including

any governmental agency.

     (10)(13) "Public utility" means the owner or operator of underground facilities for

furnishing electric, gas, telephone, or water service as defined in § 39-1-2(20); and also means

and includes, for the purposes of this chapter only, electric transmission companies and

nonregulated power producers, as defined in § 39-1-2(13) and (19); any cable television service;

and any water company which that voluntarily becomes a member of the association provided for

under § 39-1.2-4.

     (11)(14) "Public utility facilities" means the underground plant and equipment owned and

operated by a public utility for the purpose of furnishing electricity, gas, water, cable television

or telephone service; including the underground plant and equipment owned and operated by any

water company, not subject to regulation by the administrator of the division of the public

utilities, which that voluntarily joins the association provided for under § 39-1.2-4. Utility

facilities shall include active, newly installed, and inactive or abandoned, utility facilities.

     (12)(1) "Abandoned utility facilities" means any known underground or submerged

utility line or facility that has been permanently taken out of service. For excavation purposes, the

abandoned underground utility facilities should always be considered to be active utility service.

     (13)(10) "Inactive utility facilities" means any underground or submerged utility facilities

line or facility that has been temporarily taken out of service with the expectation of becoming

usable in the future.

     (14)(9) "Immediate danger to life and health" means likely to cause death or immediate

or delayed permanent adverse health effects or prevent escape from such an environment.


 

 

322)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1.2-5

83 and 91

 

 

39-1.2-5. Notice of excavation.

     (a) Except as provided in § 39-1.2-9, any person, public agency, or public utility

responsible for excavating within one hundred feet (100') or for discharging explosives within

one hundred feet (100') of a public utility facility shall notify the association of the proposed

excavation or discharge at least seventy-two (72) hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and

holidays, but not more than thirty (30) days before commencing the excavation or discharge of

explosives. Actual excavation must thereupon commence within thirty (30) days and be

completed within sixty (60) days, including Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays, or the excavator

must renotify the association. Each public utility shall, upon receipt of each notice of excavation,

mark within seventy-two (72) hours or, where applicable in accordance with § 39-1.2-12, re-mark

within forty-eight (48) hours, the location of all underground facilities.

     (b) Each excavator shall provide a description of the excavation location that shall

include:

     (1) The name of the city or town where the excavation will take place;

     (2) The name of the street, way, or route number where appropriate;

     (3) The name of the streets at the nearest intersection to the excavation;

     (4) The numbered address of buildings closest to the excavation; and

     (5) Any other description that will accurately define the excavation location, including

landmarks and utility pole numbers.

     (c) If an excavator determines that a public utility facility has been mismarked, the

excavator may notify the association and the appropriate public utility shall remark re-mark no

later than three (3) hours after receipt of notification from the association. The failure to mark or

re-mark the location of all underground facilities upon each notice of excavation shall constitute a

separate violation of this chapter. Where an excavation is to be made by a contractor as part of the

work required by a contract with the state or with any political subdivision thereof or other public

agency for the construction, reconstruction, relocation, or improvement of a public way or for the

installation of a railway track, conduit, sewer, or water main, the contractor shall be deemed to

have complied with the requirements of this section by giving one such notice to the association

as required by this section, except when unanticipated obstructions are encountered, setting forth

the location and the approximate time required to perform the work involved. In addition, the

initial notice shall indicate whether the excavation is anticipated to involve blasting and, if so, the

date on which and specific location at which the blasting is to occur. If after the commencement

of an excavation it is found there is an unanticipated obstruction requiring blasting, the excavator

shall give at least four (4) hours notice to the association before commencing the blasting. When

demolition of a building containing a public utility facility is proposed, the public utility or

utilities involved will be given written notice by registered mail at least ten (10) days prior to the

commencement of the demolition of the building. All notices shall include the name, address, and

telephone number of the entity giving notice; the name of the person, public agency, or public

utility performing the work; and the commencement date and proposed type of excavation,

demolition, or discharge of explosives. The association shall immediately transmit the

information to the public utilities whose facilities may be affected. An adequate record shall be

maintained by the association to document compliance with the requirements of this chapter.


 

 

323)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1.2-11

83 and 91

 

 

39-1.2-11. Damage -- Notice to public utility.

     (a) Upon the occurrence of any contact with, or damage to, any pipe, cable, or its

protective coating, or any other underground facility of a public utility, the appropriate and/or

affected public utility shall be notified immediately by the person or public agency responsible

for the operation causing the contact or damage prior to backfilling the excavation. Upon the

receipt of the notice, the public utility shall immediately dispatch personnel to the subject location

to effect temporary or permanent repair of the damage. Under no circumstances shall the

excavator backfill or conceal the damaged area until the public utility arrives at the subject

location. Upon the occurrence of a serious electrical short, or the escape of dangerous fluids or

gases from a broken line, the person or public agency responsible for the operations causing the

damage shall evacuate the immediate area while awaiting the arrival of the public utility

personnel. call 911 if the damage presents an immediate danger to life and health of employees or

pedestrians in the surrounding area. In the event of an immediate danger to life and health

occurrence, the area shall be evacuated until proper emergency services arrive.

     (b) Any person, public agency, or public utility shall report all suspected violations of this

chapter to the division of public utilities within thirty (30) days after learning of the

circumstances constituting the suspected violation.


 

 

 

324)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-3-1.2

390 and 422

 

 

39-3-1.2. Aggregation of electrical load by municipality or group of municipalities.

     (a) The legislative authority of a municipality may adopt an ordinance or resolution,

under which it may aggregate in accordance with this section one or more classes of the retail

electrical loads located, respectively, within the municipality or town and, for that purpose, may

enter into service agreements to facilitate for those loads the sale and purchase of electricity. The

legislative authority also may exercise this authority jointly with any other legislative authority.

An ordinance or resolution under this section shall specify whether the aggregation will occur

only with the prior consent of each person owning, occupying, controlling, or using an electric

load center proposed to be aggregated or will occur automatically for all persons pursuant to the

opt-out requirements of this section. Nothing in this section, however, authorizes the aggregation

of retail electric loads of an electric load center that is located in the certified territory of a

nonprofit electric supplier or an electric load center served by transmission or distribution

facilities of a municipal electric utility. If an ordinance or resolution adopted under this section

specifies that aggregation will occur automatically as described in this section, the ordinance or

resolution shall direct the board of canvassers to submit the question of the authority to aggregate

to the electors of the respective municipality or town at a special election on the day of the next

primary or general election in the municipality or town. The legislative authority shall certify a

copy of the ordinance or resolution to the board of canvassers not less than seventy-five (75) days

before the day of the special election. No ordinance or resolution adopted under this section that

provides for an election under this section shall take effect unless approved by a majority of the

electors voting upon the ordinance or resolution at the election held pursuant to this section.

     No legislative authority pursuant to an ordinance or resolution under this section that

provides for automatic aggregation as described in this section, shall aggregate the electrical load

of any electric load center located within its jurisdiction unless it in advance clearly discloses to

the person owning, occupying, controlling, or using the load center that the person will be

enrolled automatically in the aggregation program and will remain so enrolled unless the person

affirmatively elects by a stated procedure not to be so enrolled. The disclosure shall state

prominently the rates, charges, and other terms and conditions of enrollment. The stated

procedure shall allow any person enrolled in the aggregation program the opportunity, at a

minimum, to opt-out of the program every two (2) years, without paying a switching fee. Any

person that leaves the aggregation program pursuant to the stated procedure shall default to the

last resort service until the person chooses an alternative supplier.

     A governmental aggregator under this section is not a public utility engaging in the

wholesale purchase and resale of electricity, and the aggregated service is not a wholesale utility

transaction. A governmental aggregator shall be subject to supervision and regulation by the

commission only to the extent of any competitive retail electric service it provides and

commission authority.

     A town may initiate a process to authorize aggregation by a majority vote of a town

meeting or of the town council. A city may initiate a process to authorize aggregation by a

majority vote of the city council, with the approval of the mayor, or the city manager. Two (2) or

more municipalities may, as a group, initiate a process jointly to authorize aggregation by a majority

vote of each particular municipality as required in this section.

     Upon the applicable requisite authority under this section, the legislative authority shall

develop a plan of operation and governance for the aggregation program so authorized. Before

adopting a plan under this section, the legislative authority shall hold at least two (2) one public

hearings hearing on the plan. Before the first hearing, the legislative authority shall publish notice

of the hearings once a week for two (2) consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation

in the jurisdiction. The notice shall summarize the plan and state the date, time, and location of

each any hearing. A municipality or group of municipalities establishing load aggregation

pursuant to this section shall, in consultation with the commission, develop a plan, for review by

its citizens, detailing the process and consequences of aggregation. The plan shall identify which

classes of customers may participate, based on their applicable electric distribution company

tariff or rate schedule. Any municipal load aggregation plan established pursuant to this section

shall provide for universal access to all applicable customers and equitable treatment of

applicable classes of customers and shall meet any requirements established by law or the

commission concerning aggregated service. The plan shall be filed with the commission, for its

final review and approval, and shall include, without limitation, an organizational structure of the

program, its operations, and its funding; methods of the process for establishing rates and

allocating costs among participants; the methods for entering and terminating agreements with

other entities; the rights and responsibilities of program participants; and termination of the

program. The plan must also include the terms and conditions under which retail customers who

have chosen to opt-out of the aggregated service may take service from the aggregated entity. At

the time of the legislative authority's filing of the plan with the commission, a copy of the

proposed plan filing shall be provided to the electric distribution company whose customers

would be included in the plan. Prior to its decision, the commission shall conduct a public

hearing. Following approval of the plan, the legislative authority may solicit bids from

nonregulated power producers pursuant to the methods established by the plan. The legislative

authority shall report the results of this solicitation and proposed agreement awards to the

commission, which shall have five (5) business days in which it may suspend such awards if the

solicitation or awards are not in conformance with the plan or if the cost for energy would in the

first year exceed the cost of that energy on the standard offer, as established pursuant to this

chapter, for citizens in the municipality or group of municipalities, unless the applicant can

demonstrate that the cost for energy under the aggregation plan will be lower than the standard

offer in the subsequent years or the applicant can demonstrate that the excess cost is due to the

purchase of renewable energy as described by the commission. If the commission does not

suspend the proposed contract awards within five (5) business days of filing, the legislative

authority shall have the right to award the proposed agreementsThe legislative authority shall

have the right to terminate the operation of the plan by placing its customers on last-resort

service. If the legislative authority terminates the operation of the plan and places customers on

last-resort service, a municipality seeking to form a new municipal aggregation load must submit

a new plan to the commission for approval, in accordance with this section, before the customers

may enroll in a new aggregation program.

     Any retail customer in a municipality with an approved aggregation plan may elect

instead to receive retail supply from another licensed retail supplier or from the local distribution

company. Within thirty (30) days of the date the aggregated entity is fully operational, ratepayers

who have not affirmatively elected an alternative authorized supplier shall be transferred to the

aggregated entity subject to the opt-out provision in this section. Following adoption of

aggregation as specified above, the program shall allow any retail customer to opt-out and choose

any supplier or provider that the retail customer wishes. Nothing in this section shall be construed

as authorizing any city or town or any municipal retail load aggregator to restrict the ability of

retail electric customers to obtain or receive service from any authorized provider of it.

     It shall be the duty of the aggregated entity to fully inform participating ratepayers in

advance of automatic enrollment that they are to be automatically enrolled and that they have the

right to opt-out of the aggregated entity without penalty. In addition, such disclosure shall

prominently state all charges to be made and shall include full disclosure of the standard-offer

rate, how to access it, and the fact that it is available to them without penalty, if they are currently

on standard-offer service. The commission shall furnish, without charge, to any citizen a list of all

other supply options available to them in a meaningful format that shall enable comparison of

price and product.

     The municipality or group of municipalities shall, within two (2) years of approval of its

plan, or such further time as the commission may allow, provide written notice to the commission

that its plan is implemented. The commission may revoke certification of the aggregation plan if

the municipality or group of municipalities fails to substantially implement the plan.

     (b) The commission shall may, from time to time, promulgate rules by which the

legislative authority may request information from the electric-distribution company or

companies whose customers would be included in its plan. These rules shall ensure that

municipalities have reasonable and timely access to information pertinent to the formation of the

plan and solicitation of bids to serve customers, that confidentiality of individuals is protected,

that charges for production of data are reasonable and not unduly burdensome to the legislative

authority.


 

 

325)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-3-15

18 and 31

 

 

39-3-15. Security issues for which permission required.

A public utility, as defined in § 39-1-2, may not, without application to and authority

from the division, issue stocks, bonds, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness, payable more

than twelve (12) months from the date of issue, when necessary for the acquisition of property,

the construction, completion, extension, or improvement of its facilities or for the improvement or

maintenance of its service, or for the reorganization or readjustment of its indebtedness and/or

capitalization, or for the discharge or lawful refunding of its obligations, or for the reimbursement

of money actually expended from income or from any other money in the treasury of the public

utility not secured or obtained from the issue of stocks, bonds, notes, or other evidences of

indebtedness of the public utility.

     This section shall not apply to, and a public utility shall not be required to obtain the

approval of the division for, the issuance of transition bonds or engaging in any other transactions

that are set forth in an application for a securitization order that is approved by the commission

pursuant to § 39-1-46.


 

 

326)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-3-24

18 and 31

 

 

39-3-24. Transactions between utilities for which approval required.

With the consent and approval of the division, but not otherwise:

     (1) Any two (2) or more public utilities doing business in the same municipality or

locality within this state, or any two (2) or more public utilities whose lines intersect or parallel

each other within this state, or furnish a like service or product within this state, may enter into

contracts with each other that will enable the public utilities to operate their lines or plants in

connection with each other.

     (2) Any public utility may purchase or lease all or any part of the property, assets, plant,

and business of any other public utility or merge with any other public utility, and in connection

therewith may exercise and enjoy all of the rights, powers, easements, privileges, and franchises

theretofore exercised and enjoyed by any other public utility with respect to the property, assets,

plant, and business so purchased, leased, or merged.

     (3) Any public utility may merge with any other public utility or sell or lease all or any

part of its property, assets, plant, and business to any other public utility, provided that the merger

or a sale or lease of all or substantially all of its property, assets, plant, and business shall be

authorized by a vote of at least two-thirds (2/3) in interest of its stockholders at a meeting duly

called for the purpose. Any stockholder who shall not have voted in favor of the merger, sale or

lease, either in person or by proxy, shall be entitled to the rights, and the corporation shall be

subject to the duties, obligations, and liabilities set forth in §§ 7-1.2-1201 and 7-1.2-1202 with

respect to dissenting stockholders and to corporations which that sell, lease, or exchange their

entire assets respectively.

     (4) Any public utility may directly or indirectly purchase the stock of any other public

utility.

     (5) This section shall not apply to, and a public utility shall not be required to obtain the

consent and approval of the division for, the issuance of transition bonds or engaging in any other

transactions that are set forth in an application for a securitization order that is approved by the

commission pursuant to § 39-1-46.


 

 

327)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-3-28

18 and 31

 

 

39-3-28. Filing of agreements with affiliates.

The original or a verified copy of any contract or arrangement and of any modification

thereof or a verified summary of any unwritten contract or arrangement, the consideration of

which exceeds five hundred dollars ($500), hereafter entered into between a public utility and an

affiliate providing for the furnishing of managerial, supervisory, construction, engineering,

accounting, purchasing, financial, or any other services, either to or by a public utility or an

affiliate, shall be filed by the public utility with the division within ten (10) days after the date on

which the contract is executed or the arrangement entered into. The division may also require a

public utility to file in such form as the division may require full information with respect to any

purchase from or sale to an affiliate, whether or not made in pursuance of a continuing contract or

arrangement.

     This section and §§ 39-3-29 -- 39-3-32, inclusive, shall not apply to, and a public utility

shall not be required to file with the division, any agreements or arrangements that are set forth in

an application for a securitization order that is approved by the commission pursuant to § 39-1-

46.


 

 

328)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-16-4

283 and 297

 

 

39-16-4. Composition of board.

     (a) The board shall consist of five (5) seven (7) members, one member to be appointed by

the town councils respectively council of East Greenwich, West Warwick, and Coventry, and one

member two (2) members by the city council of the city of Warwick, and one additional member

shall be appointed by the council of the above named town or city having the greatest number of

inhabitants as shown by the United States census in effect when the appointment shall be made,

who are customers of the water authority. and two (2) members appointed by the town councils of

the towns of Coventry and West Warwick. The successor and successors of the original fifth

member shall be elected by the other members of the authority in the same manner, meaning that

the fifth member shall always be chosen from the town or city having the greatest number of

water takers of the authority at the time or times of the successive elections. The successors of the

other members shall be appointed in the same manner as described above. by their respective city

and town councils. A majority of the governing body appointing a member may remove the

member for willful misconduct.

     (b) The members of the board shall appoint a member to serve as chair of the board, and

such appointment shall be made at the board's first meeting after the effective date of this section.

The chair appointed shall serve for a seven-(7) year (7) term, at which time the board shall

appoint a new chair. If a chair is unable to complete their term, a new chair shall be appointed to

serve a seven-(7) year (7) term.

     (c) Each member shall serve for a term of ten (10) seven (7) years, except that all

vacancies occurring during a term shall be filled for the unexpired term. A member shall hold

office until his or her successor has been duly appointed and has qualified. Each member of the

authority shall take an oath to administer the duties of his or her office faithfully and impartially,

and the oath shall be filed in the office of the secretary of state.

     (c)(d) Three (3) Four (4) members of the authority shall constitute a quorum and the vote

of three (3) four (4) members shall be necessary for any action taken by the authority. No vacancy

in the membership of the authority shall impair the right of a quorum to exercise all the rights and

perform all the duties of the authority.

     (d)(e) In the event of a vacancy occurring in the board by reason of the death, resignation,

or removal for willful misconduct of a member, the governing body of the town or city which

that appointed the member, shall appoint a new member for the unexpired term.

     (e)(f) In the month of January, the board shall make an annual report to the town councils

of East Greenwich, West Warwick, and Coventry, and to the city council of Warwick, of its

activities for the preceding fiscal year. Each report shall set forth a complete operating and

financial statement covering its operations during the year. The authority shall cause an annual

audit of the books, records, and accounts of the authority to be made.


 

 

329)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-18-4

193 and 241

 

 

39-18-4. Powers and duties of the authority.

     (a) The authority is hereby authorized and empowered:

     (1) To adopt bylaws for the regulation of its affairs and the conduct of its business;

     (2) To adopt an official seal and alter the seal at pleasure;

     (3) To maintain an office at such place or places within the state as it may designate;

     (4) To sue and be sued in its own name, plead and to be implead; provided, however, that

any and all actions against the authority shall be brought only in the county in which the principal

office of the authority shall be located;

     (5) To acquire, purchase, hold, use, and dispose of any property, real, personal, or mixed,

tangible or intangible, or any interest therein necessary or desirable for carrying out the purposes

of the authority, and, to lease as lessee or lessor any property, real, personal, or mixed, or any

interest therein for such term and at such rental as the authority may deem fair and reasonable,

and to sell, transfer, convey, mortgage, or give a security interest in any property, real, personal,

or mixed, tangible or intangible, or any interest therein, at any time acquired by the authority;

     (6) To employ, in its discretion, planning, architectural, and engineering consultants,

attorneys, accountants, construction, financial, transportation, and traffic experts and consultants,

superintendents, managers, and such other officers, employees, and agents as may be necessary in

its judgment, and to fix their compensation;

     (7) (i) To fix from time to time, subject to the provisions of this chapter, schedules and

such rates of fare and charges for service furnished or operated as in its judgment are best adopted

to insure ensure sufficient income to meet the cost of service; provided, however, the authority is

not empowered to operate a passenger vehicle under its control in competition with passenger

vehicles of a private carrier over routes which that the private carrier operates pursuant to a

certificate of public convenience and necessity issued to the private carrier by the division of

public utilities and carriers; and provided further that the authority shall not require any person

who meets the means-test criteria as defined by the Rhode Island Department of Elderly Affairs

and who is either sixty-five (65) years of age, or over, or who is disabled to pay more than one-

half (1/2) of any fare for bus rides; provided, however, that under no circumstances shall fares or

charges for special service routes be discounted. Any person who is either sixty-five (65) years of

age, or over, or who is disabled, who does not satisfy the means-test criteria as heretofore

provided, shall only be required to pay one-half (1/2) of the fare or charge for bus rides during

off-peak hours, but shall not be eligible for a reduction during peak hours. For the purposes of

this chapter, "peak hours,"," off-peak hours" and "special service routes" shall be determined

annually by the authority. The authority, in conjunction with the department of human services,

shall establish an advisory committee comprised of seniors/persons with disabilities constituent

users of the authority's services to assist in the implementation of this section;

     (ii) Any person who accompanies and is assisting a person with a disability when the

person with a disability uses a wheelchair shall be eligible for the same price exemptions

extended to a person with a disability by subsection (a) (7)(i). The cost to the authority for providing

the service to the elderly shall be paid by the state;

     (iii) Any person who accompanies and is assisting a passenger who is blind or visually

impaired shall be eligible for the same price exemptions extended to the passenger who is blind or

visually impaired by subsection (a)(7)(i). The cost to the authority for providing the service to the

elderly shall be paid by the state;

     (iv) The authority shall be authorized and empowered to charge a fare for any paratransit

services required by the Americans with Disabilities Act, 42 U.S.C. § 12101 et seq., in

accordance with 49 C.F.R. Part 37’

     (8) To borrow money and to issue bonds of the authority for any of its purposes

including, without limitation, the borrowing of money in anticipation of the issuance of bonds or

the receipt of any operating revenues or other funds or property to be received by the authority,

and the financing of property to be owned by others and used, in whole or substantial part, by the

authority for any of its purposes, all as may from time to time, be authorized by resolution of the

authority; the bonds to contain on their face a statement to the effect that neither the state nor any

municipality or other political subdivision of the state shall be obligated to pay the same or the

interest thereon;

     (9) To enter into management contracts for the operation, management, and supervision

of any or all transit properties under the jurisdiction of the authority, and to make and enter into

all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of its duties and the

execution of its powers under this chapter;

     (10) Without limitation of the foregoing, to borrow money from, to receive and accept

grants for or in aid of the purchase, leasing, improving, equipping, furnishing, maintaining,

repairing, constructing, and operating of transit property, and to enter into contracts, leases, or

other transactions with any federal agency; and to receive and accept from the state, from any

municipality, or other political subdivision thereof, and from any other source, aid or

contributions of either money, property, labor, or other things of value, to be held, used and

applied only for the purposes for which the grants and contributions may be made;

     (11) To acquire in the name of the authority, by negotiated purchase or otherwise, on

such terms and conditions and in such manner as it may deem proper, or by the exercise of the

power of condemnation to the extent only and in the manner as provided in this chapter, such

public and private lands, including public parks, playgrounds or reservations, or parts thereof, or

rights therein, rights-of-way, property rights, easements, and interests as it may deem necessary

for carrying out the provisions of this chapter; provided, however, that all public property

damaged in carrying out the powers granted by this chapter shall be restored or repaired and

placed in its original condition as nearly as practicable;

     (12) To contract with any municipality, public or private company or organization,

whereby the authority will receive a subsidy to avoid discontinuance of service, and each

municipality within the state is hereby authorized to make and enter into such contracts and to

make, grant, or give to the authority a subsidy in such amount and for such period of time as it

may deem advisable;

     (13) To operate service to nearby Massachusetts and nearby Connecticut terminals for the

purpose of deboarding Rhode Island passengers at major traffic generating locations for the

benefit of passengers and to board Rhode Islanders for the return trip, provided, however, that the

authority operate closed door in Massachusetts and nearby Connecticut to and from its destination

open-door service from Rhode Island to and from locations in Massachusetts and Connecticut

that are within five (5) miles of the Rhode Island border; and

     (14) To do all things necessary, convenient, or desirable to carry out the purpose of this

chapter.

     (b) To effectuate the purposes of this chapter the authority shall have the following

duties:

     (1) To participate in and contribute to transportation planning initiatives that are relevant

to the purposes of the authority;

     (2) To plan, coordinate, develop, operate, maintain, and manage a statewide public transit

system consistent with the purposes of the authority, including plans to meet demands for public

transit where such demand, current or prospective, exceeds supply and/or availability of public

transit services;

     (3) To work with departments, agencies, authorities and corporations of federal, state and

local government, public and private institutions, businesses, non-profit organization, users of the

system, and other entities and persons to coordinate public transit services and provide a seamless

network of mobility options.


 

 

330)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-18.1-5

135, 302 (article 4), and 326

 

 

39-18.1-5. Allocation of funds.

     (a) The monies in the highway maintenance fund to be directed to the department of

transportation pursuant to subdivision (a)(1) of this section shall be allocated through the

transportation improvement program process to provide the state match for federal transportation

funds, in place of borrowing, as approved by the state planning council. The expenditure of

moneys in the highway maintenance fund shall only be authorized for projects that appear in the

state's transportation improvement program.

     (b) Provided, however, that beginning with fiscal year 2015 and annually thereafter, the

department of transportation will allocate necessary funding to programs that are designed to

eliminate structural deficiencies of the state's bridge, road, and maintenance systems and

infrastructure.

     (c) Provided, further, that beginning July 1, 2015, five percent (5%) of available proceeds

in the Rhode Island highway maintenance account shall be allocated annually to the Rhode Island

public transit authority for operating expenditures.

     (d) Provided further that from July 1, 2017, through June 30, 2019, in addition to the

amount above, the Rhode Island public transit authority shall receive an amount of not less than

five million dollars ($5,000,000) each fiscal year.

     (e) Provided, further, that the Rhode Island public transit authority shall convene a

coordinating council consisting of those state agencies responsible for meeting the needs of low-

income seniors and persons with disabilities, along with those stakeholders that the authority

deems appropriate and are necessary to inform, develop, and implement the federally-required

Coordinated Public Transit Human Services Transportation Plan.

     The council shall develop, as part of the state's federally required plan, recommendations

for the appropriate and sustainable funding of the free-fare program for low-income seniors and

persons with disabilities, while maximizing the use of federal funds available to support the

transportation needs of this population.

     The council shall report these recommendations to the governor, the speaker of the house

of representatives, and the president of the senate, no later than November 1, 2018.


 

 

331)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-26.3-2

112 and 176

 

 

39-26.3-2. Definitions.

The following terms shall have the meanings given below for purposes of this chapter:

     (1) "Applicant" means an electric distribution customer or distributed-generation

developer who submits an application to the electric distribution company for the installation of a

renewable, distributed-generation interconnection to the distribution system for a renewable,

distributed-generation project that, as contemplated, meets the eligibility requirements for net

metering contained within title 39 or the eligibility requirements for a standard contract contained

within title 39.

     (2)(4) "Impact study" means an engineering study that includes an estimate of the cost of

interconnecting to the distribution system that would be assessed on the applicant for an

interconnection that is based on an engineering study of the details of the proposed generation

project. Such estimate generally will have a probability of accuracy of plus or minus twenty- five

percent (25%). Such an estimate may be relied upon by the applicant for purposes of determining

the expected cost of interconnection, but the distribution company may not be held liable or

responsible if the actual costs exceed the estimate as long as the estimate was provided in good

faith and the interconnection was implemented prudently by the electric distribution company.

     (3) (5)"Impact study fee" means a fee that shall be charged to the applicant to obtain an

impact study as specified in § 39-26.2-4 26.3-4of this chapter.

     (4) (2) "Feasibility study" means a high-level project assessment that includes an estimate of

the cost of interconnecting to the distribution system that would be assessed on the applicant for

an interconnection. Such estimate is not based on any engineering study, but is based on past

experience and judgment of the electric distribution company, taking into account the information

in the application, the location of the interconnection, and general knowledge of the distribution

and transmission system. Such estimate cannot be relied upon by the applicant for purposes of

holding the electric distribution company liable or responsible for its accuracy as long as the

electric distribution company has provided the estimate in good faith. The feasibility study

estimate shall be a range within which the electric distribution company believes the

interconnection costs are likely to be and shall include a disclaimer that explains the nature of the

estimate.

     (5)(3) "Feasibility study fee" means a fee that shall be charged to the applicant to obtain a

feasibility study as specified in § 39-26.2-4 26.3-4of this chapter.

     (6) "Renewable energy resource" means those resources set forth in §39-26-5.


 

 

332)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

39-26.3-4.1

112 and 176

 

 

39-26.3-4.1. Interconnection standards.

     (a) The electric distribution company may only charge an interconnecting, renewable-

energy customer for any system modifications to its electric power system specifically necessary

for and directly related to the interconnection.

     (b) If the public utilities commission determines that a specific system modification

benefiting other customers has been accelerated due to an interconnection request, it may order

the interconnecting customer to fund the modification subject to repayment of the depreciated

value of the modification as of the time the modification would have been necessary as

determined by the public utilities commission. Any system modifications benefiting other

customers shall be included in rates as determined by the public utilities commission.

     (c) If an interconnecting, renewable-energy customer is required to pay for system

modifications and a subsequent renewable energy or commercial customer relies on those

modifications to connect to the distribution system within ten (10) years of the earlier

interconnecting, renewable-energy customer's payment, the subsequent customer will make a

prorated contribution toward the cost of the system modifications which that will be credited to

the earlier interconnecting, renewable-energy customer as determined by the public utilities

commission.

     (d) An electric distribution company shall acknowledge to the interconnecting,

renewable-energy customer receipt of an application to initiate the interconnection process within

three (3) business days of receipt. The electric distribution company shall notify the

interconnecting, renewable-energy customer in writing within ten (10) business days of receipt

that the application is or is not complete and, if not, advise what is missing. Any disputes

regarding whether and when an application to initiate the interconnection process is complete

shall be resolved expeditiously at the public utilities commission. The maximum time allowed

between the date of the completed application and delivery of an executable interconnection

service agreement shall be one hundred seventy-five (175) calendar days or two hundred (200)

calendar days if a detailed study is required. All electric distribution company system

modifications must be completed by the date which is the later of: (1) No longer than two

hundred seventy (270) calendar days, or three hundred sixty (360) calendar days if substation

work is necessary, from the date of the electric distribution company's receipt of the

interconnecting, renewable-energy customer's executed interconnection service agreement; or (2)

The interconnecting, renewable-energy customer's agreed upon extension of the time between the

execution of the interconnection services agreement and interconnection as set forth in writing.

All deadlines herein are subject to all payments being made in accordance with the distributed

generation interconnection tariff on file with the public utilities commission and the

interconnection service agreement. These system modification deadlines cannot be extended due

to customer delays in providing required information, all of which must be requested and

obtained before completion of the impact study. The deadlines for completion of system

modifications will be extended only to the extent of events that are clearly not under the control

of the electric distribution company, such as extended prohibitive weather, union work stoppage

or force majeure, or third-party delays, including, without limitation, delays due to ISO-NE

requirements not attributable to electric distribution company actions, and which cannot be

resolved despite commercially reasonable efforts. The electric distribution company shall notify

the customer of the start of any claimed deadline extension as soon as practicable, its cause and

when it concludes, all in writing. Any actual damages that a court of competent jurisdiction

orders the electric distribution company to pay to an interconnecting, renewable-energy customer

as a direct result of the electric distribution company's failure to comply with the requirements of

this subsection shall be payable by its shareholders and may not be recovered from customers,

provided that the total amount of damages awarded for any and all such claims shall not exceed,

in the aggregate, an amount equal to the amount of the incentive the electric distribution company

would have earned as provided for in §§39-26.6-12(j)(3) and 39-26.1-4 in the year in which the

system modifications were required to be completed. In no event shall the electric distribution

company be liable to the interconnecting, renewable-energy customer for any indirect, incidental,

special, consequential, or punitive damages of any kind whatsoever as a result of the electric

distribution company's failure to comply with this section.

     (e) On or before September 1, 2017, the public utilities commission shall initiate a docket

to establish metrics for the electric distribution company's performance in meeting the time

frames set forth herein and in the distributed generation interconnection standards approved by

the public utilities commission. The public utilities commission may include incentives and

penalties in the performance metrics.

     (f) The proposed interconnection of any new renewable energy resource that replaces the

same existing renewable energy resource of the same or less nameplate capacity that has been in

operation in the twelve (12) months preceding notification of such replacement shall be subject to

a sixty-(60) day (60) review. The purpose of such sixty-(60) day (60) review is to allow the

electric distribution company to determine whether any system modifications are required to

support the interconnection of the replacement renewable energy resource. If there is a need for

system modifications because of an interconnection policy change implemented by the electric

distribution company, then the system modification may be included in rates as determined by the

public utilities commission. If there is a need for system modifications only because of a change

in the rating or utility disturbance response that adversely affects the impact of the facility on the

distribution system, then the interconnecting, renewable-energy customer shall be responsible for

the cost of the system modifications


 

 

 

 

 

333)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-26.4-2

188 and 306

 

 

39-26.4-2. Definitions.

Terms not defined in this section herein shall have the same meaning as contained in

chapter 26 of title 39 of the general laws. When used in this chapter:

     (1) "Community remote-net-metering system" means a facility generating electricity

using an eligible net-metering resource that allocates net-metering credits to a minimum of one

account for system associated with low or moderate housing eligible credit recipients, or three (3)

eligible credit-recipient customer accounts, provided that no more than fifty percent (50%) of the

credits produced by the system are allocated to one eligible credit recipient, and provided further

at least fifty percent (50%) of the credits produced by the system are allocated to the remaining

eligible credit recipients in an amount not to exceed that which is produced annually by twenty-

five kilowatt (25 kW) AC capacity. The community remote-net-metering system may transfer

credits to eligible credit recipients in an amount that is equal to or less than the sum of the usage

of the eligible credit recipient accounts measured by the three-year (3) average annual

consumption of energy over the previous three (3) years. A projected annual consumption of

energy may be used until the actual three-year (3) average annual consumption of energy over the

previous three (3) years at the eligible credit recipient accounts becomes available for use in

determining eligibility of the generating system. The community remote-net-metering system

may be owned by the same entity that is the customer of record on the net-metered account or

may be owned by a third party.

     (2) "Electric-distribution company" shall have the same meaning as § 39-1-2, but shall

not include block island power company or Pascoag utility district, each of whom shall be

required to offer net metering to customers through a tariff approved by the public utilities

commission after a public hearing. Any tariff or policy on file with the public utilities

commission on the date of passage of this chapter shall remain in effect until the commission

approves a new tariff.

     (3) "Eligible credit recipient" means one of the following eligible recipients in the

electric-distribution company's service territory whose electric service account or accounts may

receive net-metering credits from a community remote net-metering system. Eligible credit

recipients include the following definitions:

     (i) Residential accounts in good standing.

     (ii) "Low- or moderate-income housing eligible credit recipient" means an electric service

account or accounts in good standing associated with any housing development or developments

owned operated by a public agency, nonprofit organization, limited-equity housing cooperative,

or private developer, that receives assistance under any federal, state, or municipal government

program to assist the construction or rehabilitation of housing affordable to low- or moderate-

income households, as defined in the applicable federal or state statute, or local ordinance,

encumbered by a deed restriction or other covenant recorded in the land records of the

municipality in which the housing is located, that:

     (A) Restricts occupancy of no less than fifty percent (50%) of the housing to households

with a gross, annual income that does not exceed eighty percent (80%) of the area median income

as defined annually by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD);

     (B) Restricts the monthly rent, including a utility allowance, that may be charged to

residents, to an amount that does not exceed thirty percent (30%) of the gross, monthly income of

a household earning eight percent (80%) of the area, median income as defined annually by

HUD;

     (C) That has an original term of not less than thirty (30) years from initial occupancy.

Electric service account or accounts in good standing associated with housing developments that

are under common ownership or control may be considered a single low- or moderate-income

housing-eligible credit recipient for purposes of this section. The value of the credits shall be used

to provide benefits to tenants.

     (iii) "Educational institutions" means public and private schools at the primary,

secondary, and postsecondary levels.

     (4) "Eligible net-metering resource" means eligible renewable-energy resource, as

defined in § 39-26-5 including biogas created as a result of anaerobic digestion, but, specifically

excluding all other listed eligible biomass fuels.

     (5) "Eligible net-metering system" means a facility generating electricity using an eligible

net-metering resource that is reasonably designed and sized to annually produce electricity in an

amount that is equal to, or less than, the renewable self-generator's usage at the eligible net-

metering-system site measured by the three-year (3) average annual consumption of energy over

the previous three (3) years at the electric-distribution account(s) located at the eligible net-

metering-system site. A projected annual consumption of energy may be used until the actual

three-year (3) average annual consumption of energy over the previous three (3) years at the

electric-distribution account(s) located at the eligible net-metering-system site becomes available

for use in determining eligibility of the generating system. The eligible net-metering system may

be owned by the same entity that is the customer of record on the net-metered accounts or may be

owned by a third party that is not the customer of record at the eligible net-metering system site

and which may offer a third-party, net-metering financing arrangement or public entity, net-

metering financing arrangement, as applicable. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this

chapter, any eligible net-metering resource: (i) Owned by a public entity, educational institution,

hospital, nonprofit, or multi-municipal collaborative or (ii) Owned and operated by a renewable-

generation developer on behalf of a public entity, educational institution, hospital, nonprofit, or

multi-municipal collaborative through public entity net-metering financing arrangement shall be

treated as an eligible net-metering system and all accounts designated by the public entity,

educational institution, hospital, nonprofit, or multi-municipal collaborative for net metering shall

be treated as accounts eligible for net metering within an eligible net-metering-system site.

     (6) "Eligible net-metering-system site" means the site where the eligible net-metering

system or community remote net-metering system is located or is part of the same campus or

complex of sites contiguous to one another and the site where the eligible net-metering system or

community remote-net-metering system is located or a farm in which the eligible net-metering

system or community remote-net-metering system is located. Except for an eligible net-metering

system owned by or operated on behalf of a public entity, educational institution, hospital,

nonprofit, or multi-municipal collaborative through a public entity net-metering financing

arrangement, the purpose of this definition is to reasonably assure that energy generated by the

eligible net-metering system is consumed by net-metered electric service account(s) that are

actually located in the same geographical location as the eligible net-metering system. All energy

generated from any eligible net-metering system is, and will be considered, consumed at the

meter where the renewable-energy resource is interconnected for valuation purposes. Except for

an eligible net-metering system owned by, or operated on behalf of, a public entity, educational

institution, hospital, nonprofit, or multi-municipal collaborative through a public entity net-

metering financing arrangement, or except for a community remote-net-metering system, all of

the net-metered accounts at the eligible net-metering-system site must be the accounts of the same

customer of record and customers are not permitted to enter into agreements or arrangements to

change the name on accounts for the purpose of artificially expanding the eligible net-metering-

system site to contiguous sites in an attempt to avoid this restriction. However, a property owner

may change the nature of the metered service at the accounts at the site to be master metered in

the owner's name, or become the customer of record for each of the accounts, provided that the

owner becoming the customer of record actually owns the property at which the account is

located. As long as the net-metered accounts meet the requirements set forth in this definition,

there is no limit on the number of accounts that may be net metered within the eligible net-

metering-system site.

     (7) "Excess renewable net-metering credit" means a credit that applies to an eligible net-

metering system or community remote-net-metering system for that portion of the production of

electrical energy beyond one hundred percent (100%) and no greater than one hundred twenty-

five percent (125%) of the renewable self-generator's own consumption at the eligible net-

metering-system site or the sum of the usage of the eligible credit recipient accounts associated

with the community remote-net-metering system during the applicable billing period. Such excess

renewable net-metering credit shall be equal to the electric-distribution company's avoided cost

rate, which is hereby declared to be the electric-distribution company's standard offer service

kilowatt hour (kWh) charge for the rate class and time-of-use billing period (if applicable)

applicable to the customer of record for the eligible net-metering system or applicable to the

customer of record for the community remote-net-metering system. The commission shall have

the authority to make determinations as to the applicability of this credit to specific generation

facilities to the extent there is any uncertainty or disagreement.

     (8) "Farm" shall be defined in accordance with § 44-27-2, except that all buildings

associated with the farm shall be eligible for net-metering credits as long as: (i) The buildings are

owned by the same entity operating the farm or persons associated with operating the farm; and

(ii) The buildings are on the same farmland as the project on either a tract of land contiguous

with, or reasonably proximate to, such farmland or across a public way from such farmland.

     (9) "Hospital" means and shall be defined and established as set forth in chapter 17 of

title 23.

     (9)(10) "Multi-municipal collaborative" means a group of towns and/or cities that enter

into an agreement for the purpose of co-owning a renewable-generation facility or entering into a

financing arrangement pursuant to subdivision (16)(18).

     (10)(11) "Municipality" means any Rhode Island town or city, including any agency or

instrumentality thereof, with the powers set forth in title 45 of the general laws.

     (11)(12) "Net metering" means using electrical energy generated by an eligible, net-

metering system for the purpose of self-supplying electrical energy and power at the eligible net-

metering-system site, or with respect to a community remote-net-metering system, for the

purpose of generating net-metering credits to be applied to the electric bills of the eligible credit

recipients associated with the community net-metering system. The amount so generated will

thereby offset consumption at the eligible net-metering system site through the netting process

established in this chapter, or with respect to a community remote-net-metering system, the

amounts generated in excess of that amount will result in credits being applied to the eligible

credit-recipient accounts associated with the community remote-net-metering system.

     (12)(13) "Net-metering customer" means a customer of the electric-distribution company

receiving and being billed for distribution service whose distribution account(s) are being net

metered.

     (14) "Nonprofit" means a nonprofit corporation as defined and established through

chapter 6 of title 7, and shall include religious organizations that are tax exempt pursuant to 26

U.S.C. §501(d).

     (13)(15) "Person" means an individual, firm, corporation, association, partnership, farm,

town or city of the State of Rhode Island, multi-municipal collaborative, or the State of Rhode

Island or any department of the state government, governmental agency, or public instrumentality

of the state.

     (14)(16) "Project" means a distinct installation of an eligible net-metering system or a

community remote-net-metering system. An installation will be considered distinct if it is

installed in a different location, or at a different time, or involves a different type of renewable

energy.

     (15)(17) "Public entity" means the federal government, the state of Rhode Island,

municipalities, wastewater treatment facilities, public transit agencies, or any water distributing

plant or system employed for the distribution of water to the consuming public within this state

including the water supply board of the city of Providence.

     (16)(18) "Public entity net-metering Net-metering financing arrangement" means

arrangements entered into by a public entity, educational institution, hospital, nonprofit, or multi-

municipal collaborative with a private entity to facilitate the financing and operation of a net-

metering resource, in which the private entity owns and operates an eligible net-metering resource

on behalf of a public entity, educational institution, hospital, nonprofit, or multi-municipal

collaborative, where: (i) The eligible net-metering resource is located on property owned or

controlled by the public entity, educational institution, hospital, or one of the municipalities, as

applicable, and (ii) The production from the eligible net-metering resource and primary

compensation paid by the public entity, educational institution, hospital, nonprofit, or multi-

municipal collaborative to the private entity for such production is directly tied to the

consumption of electricity occurring at the designated net-metered accounts.

     (17)(19) "Renewable net-metering credit" means a credit that applies to an eligible net-

metering system or a community remote-net-metering system up to one hundred percent (100%)

of either the renewable self-generator's usage at the eligible net-metering-system site or the sum

of the usage of the eligible credit-recipient accounts associated with the community remote net-

metering system over the applicable billing period. This credit shall be equal to the total kilowatt

hours of electrical energy generated up to the amount consumed on-site, and/or generated up to

the sum of the eligible credit-recipient account usage during the billing period multiplied by the

sum of the distribution company's:

     (i) Standard offer service kilowatt hour charge for the rate class applicable to the net-

metering customer, except that for remote public entity and multi-municipality collaborative net-

metering systems that submit an application for an interconnection study on or after July 1, 2017,

and community remote-net-metering systems, the standard offer service kilowatt-hour charge

shall be net of the renewable energy standard charge or credit;

     (ii) Distribution kilowatt-hour charge;

     (iii) Transmission kilowatt-hour charge; and

     (iv) Transition kilowatt-hour charge.

     Notwithstanding the foregoing, except for systems that have requested an interconnection

study for which payment has been received by the distribution company, or if an interconnection

study is not required, a completed and paid interconnection application, by December 31, 2018,

the renewable net-metering credit for all remote public entity and multi-municipal collaborative

net-metering systems shall not include the distribution kilowatt hour charge commencing on

January 1, 2050.

     (18)(20) "Renewable self-generator" means an electric distribution service customer of

record for the eligible net-metering system or community remote-net-metering system at the

eligible net-metering-system site which system is primarily designed to produce electrical energy

for consumption by that same customer at its distribution service account(s), and/or, with respect

to community remote-net-metering systems, electrical energy which generates net-metering

credits to be applied to offset the eligible credit-recipient account usage.

     (19)(21) "Third party" means and includes any person or entity, other than the renewable

self-generator, who or that owns or operates the eligible net-metering system or community

remote-net-metering system on the eligible net-metering-system site for the benefit of the

renewable self-generator.

     (20)(22) "Third-party, net-metering financing arrangement" means the financing of

eligible net-metering systems or community remote-net-metering systems through lease

arrangements or power/credit purchase agreements between a third party and renewable self-

generator, except for those entities under a public entity net-metering finance arrangement. A

third party engaged in providing financing arrangements related to such net-metering systems

with a public or private entity is not a public utility as defined in § 39-1-2.


 

 

334)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-26.4-3

155 and 164, and 188 and 306

 

 

39-26.4-3. Net metering.

     (a) The following policies regarding net metering of electricity from eligible net-metering

systems and community remote-net-metering systems and regarding any person that is a

renewable self-generator shall apply:

     (1) (i) The maximum, allowable capacity for eligible net-metering systems, based on

nameplate capacity, shall be ten megawatts (10 MW), effective sixty (60) days after passage. The

aggregate amount of net metering in the Block Island Power Company and the Pascoag Utility

District shall not exceed three percent (3%) of peak load for each utility district; and

     (ii) Through December 31, 2018, the maximum, aggregate amount of community remote-

net-metering systems built shall be thirty megawatts (30 MW). Any of the unused MW amount

after December 31, 2018, shall remain available to community remote-net-metering systems until

the MW aggregate amount is interconnected. After December 31, 2018, the commission may

expand or modify the aggregate amount after a public hearing upon petition by the office of

energy resources. The commission shall determine within six (6) months of such petition being

docketed by the commission whether the benefits of the proposed expansion exceed the cost. This

aggregate amount shall not apply to any net- metering financing arrangement involving public entity

facilities, or multi-municipal collaborative facilities, educational institutions, the federal

government, hospitals, or nonprofits. By June 30, 2019, the commission shall conduct a study

examining the cost to all customers of the inclusion of the distribution charge as a part of the net-

metering calculation.

     (2) For ease of administering net-metered accounts and stabilizing net-metered account

bills, the electric-distribution company may elect (but is not required) to estimate for any twelve-

month (12) period:

     (i) The production from the eligible net-metering system or community remote-net-

metering system; and

     (ii) Aggregate consumption of the net-metered accounts at the eligible net-metering-

system site or the sum of the consumption of the eligible credit-recipient accounts associated with

the community remote-net-metering system, and establish a monthly billing plan that reflects the

expected credits that would be applied to the net-metered accounts over twelve (12) months. The

billing plan would be designed to even out monthly billings over twelve (12) months, regardless

of actual production and usage. If such election is made by the electric-distribution company, the

electric-distribution company would reconcile payments and credits under the billing plan to

actual production and consumption at the end of the twelve-month (12) period and apply any

credits or charges to the net-metered accounts for any positive or negative difference, as

applicable. Should there be a material change in circumstances at the eligible net-metering system

site or associated accounts during the twelve-month (12) period, the estimates and credits may be

adjusted by the electric-distribution company during the reconciliation period. The electric-

distribution company also may elect (but is not required) to issue checks to any net-metering

customer in lieu of billing credits or carry-forward credits or charges to the next billing period.

For residential-eligible net-metering systems and community-remote-net-metering systems

twenty-five kilowatts (25 kw) or smaller, the electric-distribution company, at its option, may

administer renewable net-metering credits month to month allowing unused credits to carry

forward into the following billing period.

     (3) If the electricity generated by an eligible net-metering system or community remote-

net-metering system during a billing period is equal to, or less than, the net-metering customer's

usage at the eligible net-metering-system site or the sum of the usage of the eligible credit-

recipient accounts associated with the community remote-net-metering system during the billing

period, the customer shall receive renewable net-metering credits, that shall be applied to offset

the net-metering customer's usage on accounts at the eligible net-metering-system site, or shall be

used to credit the eligible credit-recipient's electric account.

     (4) If the electricity generated by an eligible net-metering system or community remote-

net-metering system during a billing period is greater than the net-metering customer's usage on

accounts at the eligible net-metering-system site or the sum of the usage of the eligible credit-

recipient accounts associated with the community remote-net-metering system during the billing

period, the customer shall be paid by excess renewable net-metering credits for the excess

electricity generated up to an additional twenty-five percent (25%) beyond the net-metering

customer's usage at the eligible net-metering-system site, or the sum of the usage of the eligible

credit-recipient accounts associated with the community remote net-metering system during the

billing period; unless the electric-distribution company and net-metering customer have agreed to

a billing plan pursuant to subdivision (2).

     (5) The rates applicable to any net-metered account shall be the same as those that apply

to the rate classification that would be applicable to such account in the absence of net-metering,

including customer and demand charges, and no other charges may be imposed to offset net-

metering credits.

     (b) The commission shall exempt electric-distribution company customer accounts

associated with an eligible, net-metering system from back-up or standby rates commensurate

with the size of the eligible net-metering system, provided that any revenue shortfall caused by

any such exemption shall be fully recovered by the electric-distribution company through rates.

     (c) Any prudent and reasonable costs incurred by the electric-distribution company

pursuant to achieving compliance with subsection (a) and the annual amount of any renewable

net-metering credits or excess, renewable net-metering credits provided to accounts associated

with eligible net-metering systems or community remote-net-metering systems, shall be

aggregated by the distribution company and billed to all distribution customers on an annual basis

through a uniform, per-kilowatt-hour (kwh) surcharge embedded in the distribution component of

the rates reflected on customer bills.

     (d) The billing process set out in this section shall be applicable to electric-distribution

companies thirty (30) days after the enactment of this chapter.


 

 

335)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-26.5-6

184, 261, and 480

 

 

39-26.5-6. Priority of PACE lien.

     (a) A PACE lien on a residential property shall be: subordinate to all liens on the

residential property in existence at the time the residential PACE lien is filed; subordinate to a

first mortgage on the residential property recorded after such PACE lien is filed; and superior to

any other lien on the residential property recorded after such PACE lien is filed. This subsection shall not

affect the status or priority of any other municipal or statutory lien.

     (b) At the time of a transfer of property ownership of a residential property, including by

foreclosure, the past-due balances of any special assessment under this chapter shall be due for

payment. In the event of a foreclosure action, the past-due balances shall include all payments on

a PACE assessment that are due and unpaid as of the date of the foreclosure. Unless otherwise

agreed by the PACE lender, all payments on the PACE assessment that become due after the date

of transfer by foreclosure or otherwise shall continue to be secured by a PACE lien on the PACE

property and shall be the responsibility of the transferee.

     (c) A PACE lien on a commercial property shall be: senior to all liens on the commercial

property in existence at the time the PACE lien is filed, subject to the consent of the senior

existing mortgage holder holders on the property; senior to all liens filed or recorded after the

time the PACE lien is created; but junior to a municipal tax lien.

     (d) At the time of a transfer of property ownership of a commercial property, including

by tax sale, in accordance with §44-9-32, or foreclosure, the past-due balances of any PACE

assessment under this chapter shall be due for payment. Unless otherwise agreed by the PACE

lender, all payments of PACE assessments that become due after the date of transfer by tax sale,

in accordance with §44-9-32, or foreclosure, or otherwise shall be secured by a PACE lien on the

PACE property and shall be the responsibility of the transferee.


 

 

336)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-26.6-12

17 and 56

 

 

39-26.6-12. Annual bidding and enrollments.

     (a) With the exception of the first program year (2015), the electric-distribution company,

in consultation with the board and office, shall conduct at least three (3) tariff enrollments for

each distributed-generation class each program year. For the first program year, the board may

recommend that either two (2) or three (3) enrollments be conducted.

     (b) During each program year, the tariff enrollments shall have both an annual targeted

amount of nameplate megawatts ("annual MW target") and a nameplate megawatt target for each

separate enrollment event ("enrollment MW target"). The enrollment MW target shall comprise

the specific portion of the annual MW target sought to be obtained in that enrollment. The

enrollment MW targets shall be recommended by the board each year, subject to commission

approval. The board shall also recommend a megawatt target for each class ("class MW target")

that comprises a specified portion of the enrollment MW target, subject to commission approval.

If the electric-distribution company, the office, and the board mutually agree, they may reallocate

megawatts during an enrollment from one class to another without commission approval if there

is an over-subscription in one class and an under-subscription in another, provided that the annual

MW Target is not being exceeded, except as provided in § 39-26.6-7.

     (c) The annual MW targets shall be established as follows; provided, however, that at

least three megawatts (3 MW) of nameplate capacity shall be carved out exclusively for small-

scale solar projects in each of the first four (4) program years:

     (1) For the first program year (2015), the annual MW target shall be twenty-five (25)

nameplate megawatts;

     (2) For the second program year, the annual targets shall be forty (40) nameplate

megawatts;

     (3) For the third and fourth program years, the annual target shall be forty (40) nameplate

megawatts, subject to the conditions set forth in § 39-26.6-12(f) subsection (f) of this section

having been met for the applicable prior program year as determined in the manner specified in §

39-26.6-12(g) subsection (g) of this sectionand

     (4) For the fifth program year, the annual target shall be set to obtain the balance of

capacity needed to achieve one hundred sixty (160) nameplate megawatts within the five-year (5)

distributed-generation growth program, subject to § 39-26.6-12 subsection (e) and the conditions set forth in

§ 39-26.6-12 subsection (f) having been met for the fourth program year as determined in the manner

specified in § 39-26.6-12 subsection(g).; and

     (5) From the year 2020 through the year 2029, the annual target for each program year

shall be an additional forty (40) nameplate megawatts above the annual target for the preceding

program year.

     (d) During the fifth year of the distributed-generation growth program, the board may

recommend to the commission an extension of time in the event that additional time is required to

achieve the full one hundred sixty (160) nameplate megawatt target of the program. The

commission shall approve the recommendation of the board; provided, however, that the

commission may make any modifications to the board's recommendation that the commission

deems appropriate, consistent with the legislative purposes of this chapter as set forth herein.

     (e) To the extent there was a shortfall of capacity procured under chapter 26.2 of title 39

from distributed generation procurements in 2014, such shortfall amount may be added to the one

hundred sixty megawatt (160MW) target for acquisition in the fifth program year under this

chapter. In no event shall the electric-distribution company be required to exceed the aggregate

amount of one hundred sixty (160) nameplate capacity plus any such shortfall amount over the

five (5) years, but may do so voluntarily, in consultation with the board and subject to

commission approval.

     (f) The conditions specified in subsections (c)(3) and (c)(4) of this section are as follows:

(1) That it is reasonable to conclude that the bid prices submitted in the procurements for the

large-scale solar and commercial-scale solar classes were reasonably competitive in the

immediately preceding program year; (2) That it is reasonable to conclude that the annual MW

target specified for the next program year is reasonably achievable; and (3) That the electric-

distribution company was able to, or with reasonably prudent efforts should have been able to,

perform the studies and system upgrades on a timely basis necessary to accommodate the number

of applications associated with the targets without materially adversely affecting other electric-

distribution construction projects needed to provide reliable and safe electric-distribution service.

To the extent the board or the commission concludes that any of these conditions have not been

met for the applicable program year, the board may recommend, and/or the commission may

adopt, a new annual MW target, based on the factors set forth in section 39-26.6-12(h) subsection

(h) of this section.

     (g) Before the third, fourth, and fifth program years, each year the board shall review the

conditions specified in § 39-26.6-12(f) subsection (f) of this section and make a recommendation

to the commission for findings as to whether they have been met for the applicable year. The

recommendation shall be filed with the commission, with copies to the office and the electric-

distribution companies, and any person who has made a written request to the commission to be

included in such notification, such list which may be obtained from the commission clerk, and a

notice of such filing shall be posted by the commission on its website. If no party files an

objection to the recommended findings within ten (10) business days of the posting, the

commission may accept them without hearings. If an objection is filed with a reasonable

explanation for its basis, the commission shall hold hearings and make the factual determination

of whether the conditions have been met.

     (h) In the event that the conditions in § 39-26.6-12(f) subsection (f) of this section have

not been met for any program year, then the board and the commission shall take into account the

factors set forth below in setting the annual MW target for the following year. In addition, for

every program year the board and the commission shall take into account these factors in setting

the class MW targets, and the enrollment MW targets for the following year: (1) That the new

annual, class, and enrollment levels reasonably assure that competition among projects for the

applicable bidding classifications remains robust and likely to yield reasonable and competitive

program costs; (2) That, assuming prudent management of the program, the electric-distribution

company should be able to perform the studies and system upgrades on a timely basis necessary

to accommodate the number of applications associated with the targets without materially

adversely affecting other electric-distribution construction projects needed to provide reliable and

safe electric-distribution service; and (3) Any other reasonable factors that are consistent with the

legislative purpose of this chapter as set forth herein, including the program purpose to facilitate

the development of renewable distributed generation in the load zone of the electric-distribution

company at reasonable cost.

     (i) The renewable energy growth program is intended to achieve at least an aggregate

amount of one hundred sixty (160) nameplate megawatts over five (5) years, plus any shortfall

amount added in pursuant to § 39-26.6-12(e) subsection (e) of this section. However, after the

second program year, the board may, based on market data and other information available to it,

including pricing received during previous program years, recommend changes to the annual

target for any program year above or below the specified targets in § 39-26.6-12(c) subsection (c)

of this section, if the board concludes that market conditions are likely to produce favorably low

or unfavorably high target pricing during the upcoming program year, provided that the

recommendation may not result in the five-year (5), one hundred sixty megawatt (160MW)

nameplate target, plus any shortfall added pursuant to § 39-26.6-12(e) subsection (e) of this

section, being exceeded. Any megawatt reduction in an annual target shall be added to the target

in the fifth year of the program (and any subsequent years if necessary) such that the overall

program target of one hundred sixty megawatt (160MW) nameplate capacity, plus any shortfall

added pursuant to § 39-26.6-12(e) subsection (e) of this section, is achieved. In considering such

issues, the board and the commission may take into account the reasonableness of current pricing

and its impact on all electric distribution customers and the legislative purpose of this chapter as

set forth herein, including the program purpose to facilitate the development of renewable

distributed generation in the load zone of the electric-distribution company at reasonable cost.

     (j) The provisions of § 39-26.1-4 shall apply to the annual value of performance-based

incentives (actual payments plus the value of net-metering credits, as applicable) provided by the

electric-distribution company to all the distributed-generation projects under this chapter, subject

to the following conditions:

     (1) The targets set for the applicable program year for the applicable project

classifications were met or, if not met, such failure was due to factors beyond the reasonable

control of the electric-distribution company;

     (2) The electric-distribution company has processed applications for service and

completed interconnections in a timely and prudent manner for the projects under this chapter,

taking into account factors within the electric-distribution company's reasonable control. The

commission is authorized to establish more specific performance standards to implement the

provisions of this chapter; and

     (3) The incentive shall be one and three-quarters percent (1.75%) of the annual value of

performance-based incentives. The commission is authorized to establish more specific

performance standards to implement the provisions of this paragraph.


 

 

337)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

39-32

309 and 331

 

 

CHAPTER 32

RHODE ISLAND SMALL CELL SITING ACT


 

 

338)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40-11-2

386 and 424

 

 

40-11-2. Definitions.

     When used in this chapter and unless the specific context indicates otherwise:

     (1) "Abused and/or neglected child" means a child whose physical or mental health or

welfare is harmed, or threatened with harm, when his or her parent or other person responsible for

his or her welfare:

     (i) Inflicts, or allows to be inflicted, upon the child physical or mental injury, including

excessive corporal punishment; or

     (ii) Creates, or allows to be created, a substantial risk of physical or mental injury to the

child, including excessive corporal punishment; or

     (iii) Commits, or allows to be committed, against the child, an act of sexual abuse; or

     (iv) Fails to supply the child with adequate food, clothing, shelter, or medical care,

though financially able to do so or offered financial or other reasonable means to do so; or

     (v) Fails to provide the child with a minimum degree of care or proper supervision or

guardianship because of his or her unwillingness or inability to do so by situations or conditions

such as, but not limited to: social problems, mental incompetency, or the use of a drug, drugs, or

alcohol to the extent that the parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare loses his or

her ability or is unwilling to properly care for the child; or

     (vi) Abandons or deserts the child; or

     (vii) Sexually exploits the child in that the person allows, permits, or encourages the child

to engage in prostitution as defined by the provisions in § 11-34.1-1 et seq., entitled "Commercial

Sexual Activity"; or

     (viii) Sexually exploits the child in that the person allows, permits, encourages, or

engages in the obscene or pornographic photographing, filming, or depiction of the child in a

setting that, taken as a whole, suggests to the average person that the child is about to engage in,

or has engaged in, any sexual act, or that depicts any such child under eighteen (18) years of age

performing sodomy, oral copulation, sexual intercourse, masturbation, or bestiality; or

     (ix) Commits, or allows to be committed, any sexual offense against the child as such

sexual offenses are defined by the provisions of chapter 37 of title 11, entitled "Sexual Assault",

as amended; or

     (x) Commits, or allows to be committed, against any child an act involving sexual

penetration or sexual contact if the child is under fifteen (15) years of age; or if the child is fifteen

(15) years or older, and (1) force or coercion is used by the perpetrator, or (2) the perpetrator

knows, or has reason to know, that the victim is a severely impaired person as defined by the

provisions of § 11-5-11, or physically helpless as defined by the provisions of § 11-37-6 11-37-

1(6).

     (2) "Child" means a person under the age of eighteen (18).

     (3) "Child protective investigator" means an employee of the department charged with

responsibility for investigating complaints and/or referrals of child abuse and/or neglect and

institutional child abuse and/or neglect.

     (4) "Department" means department of children, youth and families.

     (5) "Educational program" means any public or private school, including boarding

schools, or any home-schooling program.

     (6) "Health-care provider" means any provider of health care services involved in the

delivery or care of infants and/or care of children.

     (6)(7) "Institution" means any private or public hospital or other facility providing

medical and/or psychiatric diagnosis, treatment, and care.

     (7)(8) "Institutional child abuse and neglect" means situations of known or suspected

child abuse or neglect where the person allegedly responsible for the abuse or neglect is a foster

parent or the employee of a public or private residential child-care institution or agency; or any

staff person providing out-of-home care or situations where the suspected abuse or neglect occurs

as a result of the institution's practices, policies, or conditions.

     (8)(9) "Law-enforcement agency" means the police department in any city or town and/or

the state police.

     (9)(10) "Mental injury" includes a state of substantially diminished psychological or

intellectual functioning in relation to, but not limited to, such factors as: failure to thrive; ability

to think or reason; control of aggressive or self-destructive impulses; acting-out or misbehavior,

including incorrigibility, ungovernability, or habitual truancy; provided, however, that the injury

must be clearly attributable to the unwillingness or inability of the parent or other person

responsible for the child's welfare to exercise a minimum degree of care toward the child.

     (10)(11) "Person responsible for child's welfare" means the child's parent; guardian; any

individual, eighteen (18) years of age or older, who resides in the home of a parent or guardian

and has unsupervised access to a child; foster parent; an employee of a public or private

residential home or facility; or any staff person providing out-of-home care (out-of-home care

means child day care to include family day care, group day care, and center-based day care).

Provided, further, that an individual, eighteen (18) years of age or older, who resides in the home

of a parent or guardian and has unsupervised access to the child, shall not have the right to

consent to the removal and examination of the child for the purposes of § 40-11-6.

     (11)(12) "Physician" means any licensed doctor of medicine, licensed osteopathic

physician, and any physician, intern, or resident of an institution as defined in subdivision (6)

subsection (7).

     (12)(13) "Probable cause" means facts and circumstances based upon as accurate and

reliable information as possible that would justify a reasonable person to suspect that a child is

abused or neglected. The facts and circumstances may include evidence of an injury, or injuries,

and the statements of a person worthy of belief, even if there is no present evidence of injury.

     (13)(14) "Shaken-baby syndrome" means a form of abusive head trauma, characterized

by a constellation of symptoms caused by other than accidental traumatic injury resulting from

the violent shaking of and/or impact upon an infant or young child's head.


 

 

339)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40-11-6

386 and 424

 

 

40-11-6. Report by physicians and health care providers of abuse or neglect.

     (a) When any physician, or duly certified registered nurse practitioner, or other health-

care provider is involved in the delivery or care of infants born with, or identified as being

affected by, substance abuse or withdrawal symptoms resulting from prenatal drug exposure, or a

fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, or has cause to suspect that a child brought to him or her or

coming to him or her for examination, care, or treatment, is an abused or neglected child as

defined in this chapter, or when he or she determines that a child under the age of twelve (12)

years is suffering from any sexually transmitted disease, he or she shall report the incident or

cause a report thereof to be made to the department as provided in subsection (b).

     (b) An immediate oral report shall be made by telephone or otherwise, to both the

department and law enforcement agency, and shall be followed by a report, in writing, to the

department and law enforcement agency explaining the extent and nature of the abuse or neglect

the child is alleged to have suffered.

     (c) The department, upon receipt of such a report by a person other than a physician or

duly certified registered nurse practitioner alleging that a child has been physically abused, shall

investigate the report, and if the investigation reveals evidence of injury or that the child has been

the victim of sexual abuse, the department shall have the child examined by a licensed physician

or duly certified registered nurse practitioner. Any child protective investigator shall, with or

without the consent of the parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare, have the right

to remove the child from the place where the child may be to secure the examination required by

this subsection. Upon completion of the examination, it shall be mandatory for the physician or

duly certified registered nurse practitioner to make a written report of his or her findings to the

department.

     (d) The department shall promulgate rules and regulations to implement the provisions of

this section.


 

 

340)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40-11-14

127 and 147

 

 

40-11-14. Right to representation in court proceedings.

     (a) Any child who, is alleged to be abused or neglected as a subject of a petition filed in

family court under this chapter, shall have a guardian ad litem and/or a court-appointed special

advocate appointed by the court to represent this child, all in the discretion of the court.

     (b) A volunteer court-appointed special advocate may be assigned to assist the guardian

ad litem, in the court-appointed special advocate's office (CASA):

     (1) In order to assist the family court with the ability to ensure that these volunteers,

whose activity involves routine contact with minors, are of good moral character, all persons

seeking to volunteer for CASA shall be required to undergo a national criminal records check for

the purpose of determining whether the prospective volunteer has been convicted of any crime.

     (i) A national criminal records check shall include fingerprints submitted to the Federal

Bureau of Investigation (FBI) by the department of children, youth and families (DCYF) for a

national criminal records check. The national criminal records check shall be processed prior to

the commencement of volunteer activity.

     (ii) For the purposes of this section, "conviction" means, in addition to judgments of

conviction entered by a court subsequent to a finding of guilty or a plea of guilty, those instances

where the defendant has entered a plea of nolo contendere and has received a sentence of

probation and that sentence has not expired and those instances where a defendant has entered

into a deferred sentence agreement with the attorney general.

     (iii) For the purposes of this section, "disqualifying information" means information

produced by a national criminal records checks pertaining to conviction for the offenses

designated as "disqualifying information" pursuant to DCYF department of children, youth and

families policy.

     (iv) DCYF The department of children, youth and families (DCYF) shall inform the

applicant, in writing, of the nature of the disqualifying information; and, without disclosing the

nature of the disqualifying information, shall notify the family court, in writing, that disqualifying

information has been discovered.

     (v) In those situations in which no disqualifying information has been found, the DCYF

department of children, youth and families shall inform families shall inform the applicant and

the family court, in writing, of this fact.

     (vi) The family court shall maintain on file evidence that national criminal records checks

have completed on all volunteer court-appointed special advocates.

     (vii) The criminal record check shall be conducted without charge to the prospective

CASA volunteers. At the conclusion of the background check required pursuant to this section,

DCYF the department of children, youth and families shall promptly destroy the fingerprint

record of the applicant obtained pursuant to this chapter.

     (2) All persons seeking to volunteer for CASA must submit a satisfactory DCYF

clearance and participate in a program of training offered by the CASA office.

     (c) If the parent or other person responsible for the child's care is financially unable to

engage counsel as determined by the court, the court may, at the request of that person, and in its

discretion, appoint the public defender, or other counsel, to represent the person. The cost of other

counsel in those instances shall be paid by the state. In every court proceeding under this chapter

in which it is a party, the department shall be represented by its legal counsel.


 

 

341)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40.1-5-7

387 and 428

 

 

40.1-5-7. Emergency certification.

     (a) Applicants. (1) Any physician, who, after examining a person, has reason to believe

that the person is in need of immediate care and treatment, and is one whose continued

unsupervised presence in the community would create an imminent likelihood of serious harm by

reason of mental disability, may apply at a facility for the emergency certification of the person

thereto. The medical director, or any other physician employed by the proposed facility for

certification, may apply under this subsection if no other physician is available and he or she

certifies this fact. If an examination is not possible because of the emergency nature of the case

and because of the refusal of the person to consent to the examination, the applicant on the basis

of his or her observation may determine, in accordance with the above, that emergency

certification is necessary and may apply therefor. In the event that no physician is available, a

qualified mental health professional or police officer who believes the person to be in need of

immediate care and treatment, and one whose continued unsupervised presence in the community

would create an imminent likelihood of serious harm by reason of mental disability, may make

the application for emergency certification to a facility. Application shall in all cases be made to

the facility which that, in the judgment of the applicant at the time of application, would impose

the least restraint on the liberty of the person consistent with affording him or her the care and

treatment necessary and appropriate to his or her condition.

     (2) Whenever an applicant, not employed by a community mental health center

established pursuant to chapter 8.5 of this title, has reason to believe that the institute of mental

health is the appropriate facility for the person, the application shall be directed to the community

mental health center that serves the area in which the person resides, if the person is a Rhode

Island resident, or the area in which the person is physically present, if a nonresident, and the

qualified mental health professional(s) at the center shall make the final decision on the

application to the institute of mental health or may determine whether some other disposition

should be made.

     (b) Applications. An application for certification hereunder shall be in writing and filed

with the facility to which admission is sought. The application shall be executed within five (5)

days prior to the date of filing and shall state that it is based upon a personal observation of the

prospective patient by the applicant within the five-(5) day (5) period. It shall include a

description of the applicant's credentials and the behavior which that constitutes the basis for his

or her judgment that the prospective patient is in need of immediate care and treatment and that a

likelihood of serious harm by reason of mental disability exists, and shall include, as well, any

other relevant information which that may assist the admitting physician at the facility to which

application is made. Whenever practicable, prior to transporting or arranging for the transporting

of a prospective patient to a facility, the applicant shall telephone or otherwise communicate with

the facility to describe the circumstances and known clinical history to determine whether it is the

proper facility to receive the person, and to give notice of any restraint to be used or to determine

whether restraint is necessary.

     (c) Confirmation; discharge; transfer. Within one hour after reception at a facility, the

person regarding whom an application has been filed under this section shall be seen by a

physician. As soon as possible, but in no event later than twenty-four (24) hours after reception, a

preliminary examination and evaluation of the person by a psychiatrist or a physician under his or

her supervision shall begin. The psychiatrist shall not be an applicant hereunder. The preliminary

examination and evaluation shall be completed within seventy-two (72) hours from its inception

by the psychiatrist. If the psychiatrist determines that the patient is not a candidate for emergency

certification, he or she shall be discharged. If the psychiatrist(s) determines that the person who is

the subject of the application is in need of immediate care and treatment and is one whose

continued unsupervised presence in the community would create an imminent likelihood of

serious harm by reason of mental disability, he or she shall confirm the admission for care and

treatment under this section of the person to the facility, provided the facility is one which that

would impose the least restraint on the liberty of the person consistent with affording him or her

the care and treatment necessary and appropriate to his or her condition and that no suitable

alternatives to certification are available. If at any time the official in charge of a facility or his or

her designee determines that the person is not in need of immediate care and treatment, or is not

one whose continued unsupervised presence in the community would create an imminent

likelihood of serious harm by reason of mental disability, or suitable alternatives to certification

are available, he or she shall immediately discharge the person. In addition, the official may

arrange to transfer the person to an appropriate facility, if the facility to which he or she has been

certified is not one which that imposes the least restraint on the liberty of the person consistent

with affording him or her the care and treatment necessary and appropriate to his or her condition.

     (d) Custody. Upon the request of an applicant under this section, to be confirmed in

writing, it shall be the duty of any peace officer of this state or of any governmental subdivision

thereof to whom request has been made, to take into custody and transport the person to the

facility designated, the person to be expeditiously presented for admission thereto.

     (e) Ex parte court order. An applicant under this section may present a petition to any

judge of the district court or any justice of the family court, in the case of a person who is the

subject of an application, who has not yet attained his or her eighteenth birthday, for a warrant

directed to any peace officer of the state or any governmental subdivision thereof to take into

custody the person who is the subject of the application and immediately transport the person to a

designated facility. The application shall set forth that the person who is to be certified is in need

of immediate care and treatment and his or her continued unsupervised presence in the

community would create an imminent likelihood of serious harm by reason of mental disability,

and the reasons why an order directing a peace officer to transport the person to a designated

facility is necessary.

     (f) Notification of rights. No person shall be certified to a facility under the provisions of

this section unless appropriate opportunity is given to apply for voluntary admission under the

provisions of § 40.1-5-6 and unless he or she, or a parent, guardian, or next of kin, has been

informed, in writing, on a form provided by the department, by the official in charge of the

facility: (1) tThat he or she has a right to the voluntary admission; (2) tThat a person cannot be

certified until all available alternatives to certification have been investigated and determined to

be unsuitable; and (3) tThat the period of hospitalization or treatment in a facility cannot exceed

ten (10) days under this section, except as provided in subsection (g) of this section.

     (g) Period of treatment. A person shall be discharged no later than ten (10) days measured

from the date of his or her admission under this section, unless an application for a civil court

certification has been filed and set down for a hearing under the provisions of § 40.1-5-8, or the

person remains as a voluntary patient pursuant to § 40.1-5-6.


 

 

342)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40.1-5-7.1

387 and 428

 

 

40.1-5-7.1. Emergency transportation by police.

     (a) Any police officer may take an individual into protective custody and take or cause

such person to be taken to an emergency room of any hospital, by way of emergency vehicle, if

the officer has reason to believe that:

     (1) The individual is in need of immediate care and treatment, and is one whose

continued unsupervised presence in the community would create an imminent likelihood of

serious harm by reason of mental disability if allowed to be at liberty pending examination by a

licensed physician; or

     (2) The individual is in need of immediate assistance due to mental disability and

requests the assistance.

     (b) The officer making the determination to transport, will document the reason for the

decision in a police report and travel with the individual to the hospital to relay the reason for

transport to the attending medical staff.


 

 

343)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40.1-24.6

405 and 421

 

 

CHAPTER 24.6

SELF-INSURANCE OF DEVELOPMENTAL-DISABILITY AGENCIES


 

 

344)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40.1-29-2

124 and 143

 

 

40.1-29-2. Legislative purpose.

     The purpose of the council is to advise the governor and general assembly on policies,

goals, and operations of the behavioral health program, including the program areas of substance

abuse use disorder and mental health, and on other matters the director of mental health,

retardation, behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals refers to it and to

encourage public understanding and support of the behavioral health program.


 

 

345)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40.1-29-3

124 and 143, 168 and 172

 

 

40.1-29-3. Members.

     (a) The council shall consist of twenty-six (26) thirty-one (31) voting members.

     (1) There shall be four (4) members of the legislature, two (2) shall be from the senate

and shall be appointed by the lieutenant governor senate president to serve for their legislative

term, one from each of the major political parties, and two (2) shall be from the house of

representatives and shall be appointed by the speaker to serve for their legislative term, one from

each of the two (2) major political parties.

     (2) The non-legislative members shall be the executive director of the Drug and Alcohol

Treatment Association, the executive director of the Council of Community Mental Health

Organizations Substance Use and Mental Health Leadership Council of RI, the mental health

advocate, the child advocate, and a representative of the AFL-CIO to be appointed by the

governor.

     (3) The remaining eighteen (18) twenty-three (23) public members shall be appointed by

and serve at the pleasure of the governor and shall represent such community interests as

substance abuse use disorder treatment and prevention professionals, youth with behavioral health

challenges or their representatives, consumers of substance abuse use disorder programs and their

families, mental health treatment professionals, adult and elderly consumers of mental health

services and their families, families of children who are consumers of mental health and

substance use disorder abuse services, the judiciary, criminal justice officials, and local

government officials.

     (4) Not less than fifty (50%) percent of the public members shall be individuals who are

not state employees or providers of behavioral health services.

     (5) There shall be sufficient representation by the families of children who are consumers

of mental health and substance abuse use disorder services in order to ensure adequate

representation of such children.

     (6) Every effort shall be made to ensure that appointed members represent the cultural

diversity of the state.

     (7) All members shall have demonstrable expertise in, or experience with, substance

abuse use disorders or mental health services in Rhode Island. In addition, the directors or their

designees of the departments of children, youth, and families; corrections; education; health;

human services; elderly affairs and mental health, retardation, behavioral healthcare,

developmental disabilities and hospitals; and the division of elderly affairs; the attorney general

or designee, and the executive director of the Rhode Island justice commission shall serve as ex

officio and without a vote as members of the council.

     (b) Any vacancy which that may occur in the council shall be filled in the same manner

as the original appointments.

     (c) The governor shall designate one member as the chairperson of the council.

40.1-29-3. Members.

     (a) The council shall consist of twenty-six (26) members.

      (1) There shall be four (4) members of the legislature, two (2) shall be from the senate

and shall be appointed by the lieutenant governor senate president to serve for their legislative

term, one from each of the major political parties, and two (2) shall be from the house of

representatives and shall be appointed by the speaker to serve for their legislative term, one from

each of the two (2) major political parties.

      (2) The non-legislative members shall be the executive director of the Drug and Alcohol

Treatment Association, the executive director of the Council of Community Mental Health

Organizations, the mental health advocate, and a representative of the AFL-CIO to be appointed

by the governor.

      (3) The remaining eighteen (18) public members shall be appointed by and serve at the

pleasure of the governor and shall represent such community interests as substance abuse

treatment and prevention professionals, consumers of substance abuse programs and their

families, mental health treatment professionals, adult and elderly consumers of mental health

services and their families, families of children who are consumers of mental health and

substance abuse services, the judiciary, criminal justice officials and local government officials.

      (4) Not less than fifty (50%) percent of the public members shall be individuals who are

not state employees or providers of behavioral health services.

      (5) There shall be sufficient representation by the families of children who are

consumers of mental health and substance abuse services in order to ensure adequate

representation of such children.

      (6) Every effort shall be made to ensure that appointed members represent the cultural

diversity of the state.

      (7) All members shall have demonstrable expertise in, or experience with substance

abuse or mental health services in Rhode Island. In addition, the directors or their designees of the

departments of children, youth, and families; corrections; education; health; human services;

elderly affairs and mental health, retardation, and hospitals; the attorney general or designee and

the executive director of the Rhode Island justice commission shall serve as ex officio and

without a vote as members of the council.

      (b) Any vacancy which that may occur in the council shall be filled in the same manner

as the original appointments.

      (c) The governor shall designate one member as the chairperson of the council.


 

 

 

 

346)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40.1-29-4

124 and 143

 

 

40.1-29-4. Meetings.

The council shall meet at least six (6) times a year. Failure to attend three (3) meetings in

a year may result in a recommendation of removal from the council to the governor or other

appropriate appointing authority. A quorum at the meeting shall consist of seven (7) voting

members present.


 

 

347)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40.1-29.5

124 and 143

 

 

40.1-29-5. Functions.

The functions of the council shall be:

     (1) To review and evaluate the behavioral health needs and problems in the state and

propose such recommendations as are appropriate;

     (2) To stimulate and seek the development and coordination of all programs relating to

behavioral health, including, but not limited to, such areas as care and treatment, prevention,

manpower, research, and public education;

     (3) To encourage interdisciplinary approaches to combating, treating, and preventing

substance abuse use disorders and mental illness, focusing in particular on integrating support

systems for behavioral health care;

     (4) To act as the advisory committee to the department of mental health, retardation,

behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals and the governor on any funds

made available to the department by the federal government for substance abuse use disorders

and/or mental health treatment and prevention purposes;

     (5) To stimulate and investigate research as it affects planning and implementation of

behavioral health care systems in the health care environment;

     (6) To make an annual report to the governor and the general assembly during the month

of January, setting forth:

     (i) The nature and extent of the behavioral health care problems in the state;

     (ii) Such information and recommendations as the council deems necessary to deal with

the problems as documented;

     (iii) A review of the council's activities during the preceding year, including but not

limited to, reports relative to activity, performance and need;

     (iv) Any plans developed by the council to deal with the behavioral health care problems

identified by the council;

     (v) Other recommendations as may be appropriate and in the public interest.


 

 

348)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40.1-29-6

124 and 143

 

 

40.1-29-6. Staff and employees.

     The director of mental health, retardation, behavioral healthcare, developmental

disabilities and hospitals shall provide the council with such professional and secretarial staff and

other support as shall be appropriate for it to carry out its designated functions. The director of the

department of children, youth, and families and the director of the department division of elderly

affairs shall provide the council with such additional professional and secretarial staff and other

employees as shall be appropriate for the council to carry out functions related to the respective

responsibilities of these departments. All departments and agencies of the state shall furnish any

advice and information, documentary and otherwise, to the council that is deemed necessary to

fulfill the purpose and functions of the council.


 

 

349)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-6-15

192 and 251

 

 

42-6-15. Information technology projects.

     For all requests for proposals which are issued for information technology projects, a

corresponding information technology project manager shall be assigned.


 

 

 350)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-6.2-2

205 and 255

 

 

42-6.2-2. Purpose of the council.

     (a) The council shall have the following duties:

     (1) Assess, integrate, and coordinate climate change efforts throughout state agencies to

reduce emissions, strengthen the resilience of communities, and prepare for the effects of climate

change, including, but not limited to, coordinating vulnerability assessments throughout state

government;

     (2)(i) No later than December 31, 2016 December 31, 2017, submit to the governor and

general assembly a plan that includes strategies, programs, and actions to meet targets for

greenhouse gas emissions reductions as follows:

     (i)(A) Ten percent (10%) below 1990 levels by 2020;

     (ii)(B) Forty-five percent (45%) below 1990 levels by 2035;

     (iii)(C) Eighty percent (80%) below 1990 levels by 2050;

     (iv)(D) The plan shall also include procedures and metrics for periodic measurement, not

less frequently than once every five (5) years, of progress necessary to meet these targets and for

evaluating the possibility of meeting higher targets through cost-effective measures.

     (ii) The plan shall specifically study the effectiveness of the state and/or multi-state

carbon pricing program to incentivize institutions and industry to reduce carbon emissions. The

study shall include the effectiveness of allocating revenues generated from such carbon pricing

program to fund enhanced incentives to institutions and industry for targeted efficiency measures;

projected emissions reductions; economic impact to businesses; any economic benefits to Rhode

Island; and impacts to the state's economic competitiveness if the program were implemented.

     (3) Advance the state's understanding of the effects of climate change including, but not

limited to, sea level rise, coastal and shoreline changes, severe weather events, critical

infrastructure vulnerability, and ecosystem, economic, and health impacts, including the effects of

carbon pollution on children's health;

     (4) Identify strategies to prepare for these effects and communicate them to Rhode

Islanders, including strategies that incentivize businesses, institutions, and industry to adapt to

climate change;

     (5) Work with municipalities to support the development of sustainable and resilient

communities;

     (6) Identify and leverage federal, state, and private funding opportunities for emission

reduction and climate change preparedness and adaption work in Rhode Island;

     (7) Advise the governor, the general assembly, and the public on ways to ensure that

Rhode Island continues to be a national leader in developing and implementing strategies that

effectively address the challenges of climate change;

     (8) Work with other New England states to explore areas of mutual interest to achieve

common goals; and

     (9) Identify and facilitate opportunities to educate the public about climate change and

efforts throughout state agencies and municipalities to address climate change.

     (b) The council is encouraged to utilize the expertise of Rhode Island universities and

colleges in carrying out the duties described in subsection (a) of this section, specifically to

ensure that the state's efforts to mitigate and adapt to climate change are based on the best

available scientific and technical information, and to optimize the contribution by the universities

and colleges of their expertise and experience in research, analysis, modeling, mapping,

applications to on-the-ground situations, technical assistance, community outreach, and public

education.


 

 

351)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-11-2.5

192, 251, and 302

 

 

42-11-2.5. Information technology investment fund.

     (a) All sums from the sale of any land and the buildings and improvements thereon, and

other real property title to which is vested in the state, except as provided in subsection 37-7-

15(b), shall be transferred to an Information Technology Investment Fund restricted-receipt

account that is hereby established. This fund shall consist of such sums from the sale of any land

and the buildings and improvements thereon, and other real property title to which is vested in the

state, except as provided in subsection 37-7-15(b), as well as a share of E-911 Uniform

Emergency Telephone System surcharge revenues collected under the provisions of § 39-21.1-14.

This fund may also consist of such sums as the state may from time to time appropriate,; as well

as money received from the disposal of information technology equipment, loan, interest, and

service charge payments from benefiting state agencies,; as well as interest earnings, money

received from the federal government, gifts, bequest, donations, or to otherwise from any public

or private source. Any such funds shall be exempt from the indirect cost recovery provisions of §

35-4-27.

     (b) This fund shall be used for the purpose of acquiring information technology

improvements, including, but not limited to, hardware, software, consulting services, and ongoing

maintenance and upgrade contracts for state departments and agencies.

     (c) The division of information technology of the Rhode Island department of

administration shall adopt rules and regulations consistent with the purposes of this chapter and

chapter 35 of title 42, in order to provide for the orderly and equitable disbursement of funds from

this account.

     (d) For all requests for proposals which that are issued for information technology

projects, a corresponding information technology project manager shall be assigned.


 

 

352)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-17.1-2

180 and 382, 449 and 478

 

 

42-17.1-2. Powers and duties.

The director of environmental management shall have the following powers and duties:

     (1) To supervise and control the protection, development, planning, and utilization of the

natural resources of the state, such resources, including, but not limited to: water, plants, trees,

soil, clay, sand, gravel, rocks and other minerals, air, mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, fish,

shellfish, and other forms of aquatic, insect, and animal life;

     (2) To exercise all functions, powers, and duties heretofore vested in the department of

agriculture and conservation, and in each of the divisions of the department, such as the

promotion of agriculture and animal husbandry in their several branches, including the inspection

and suppression of contagious diseases among animals; the regulation of the marketing of farm

products; the inspection of orchards and nurseries; the protection of trees and shrubs from

injurious insects and diseases; protection from forest fires; the inspection of apiaries and the

suppression of contagious diseases among bees; the prevention of the sale of adulterated or

misbranded agricultural seeds; promotion and encouragement of the work of farm bureaus, in

cooperation with the University of Rhode Island, farmers' institutes, and the various organizations

established for the purpose of developing an interest in agriculture; together with such other

agencies and activities as the governor and the general assembly may, from time to time, place

under the control of the department; and as heretofore vested by such of the following chapters

and sections of the general laws as are presently applicable to the department of environmental

management and that were previously applicable to the department of natural resources and the

department of agriculture and conservation or to any of its divisions: chapters 1 through 22,

inclusive, as amended, in title 2 entitled "Agriculture and Forestry"; chapters 1 through 17,

inclusive, as amended, in title 4 entitled "Animals and Animal Husbandry"; chapters 1 through

19, inclusive, as amended, in title 20 entitled "Fish and Wildlife"; chapters 1 through 32,

inclusive, as amended, in title 21 entitled "Food and Drugs"; chapter 7 of title 23, as amended,

entitled "Mosquito Abatement"; and by any other general or public law relating to the department

of agriculture and conservation or to any of its divisions or bureaus;

     (3) To exercise all the functions, powers, and duties heretofore vested in the division of

parks and recreation of the department of public works by chapters 1, 2, and 5 in title 32 entitled

"Parks and Recreational Areas"; by chapter 22.5 of title 23, as amended, entitled "Drowning

Prevention and Lifesaving"; and by any other general or public law relating to the division of

parks and recreation;

     (4) To exercise all the functions, powers, and duties heretofore vested in the division of

harbors and rivers of the department of public works, or in the department itself by such as were

previously applicable to the division or the department, of chapters 1 through 22 and sections

thereof, as amended, in title 46 entitled "Waters and Navigation"; and by any other general or

public law relating to the division of harbors and rivers;

     (5) To exercise all the functions, powers, and duties heretofore vested in the department

of health by chapters 25, 18.9, and 19.5 of title 23, as amended, entitled "Health and Safety"; and

by chapters 12 and 16 of title 46, as amended, entitled "Waters and Navigation"; by chapters 3, 4,

5, 6, 7, 9, 11, 13, 18, and 19 of title 4, as amended, entitled "Animals and Animal Husbandry";

and those functions, powers, and duties specifically vested in the director of environmental

management by the provisions of § 21-2-22, as amended, entitled "Inspection of Animals and

Milk"; together with other powers and duties of the director of the department of health as are

incidental to, or necessary for, the performance of the functions transferred by this section;

     (6) To cooperate with the Rhode Island commerce corporation in its planning and

promotional functions, particularly in regard to those resources relating to agriculture, fisheries,

and recreation;

     (7) To cooperate with, advise, and guide conservation commissions of cities and towns

created under chapter 35 of title 45 entitled "Conservation Commissions", as enacted by chapter

203 of the Public Laws, 1960;

     (8) To assign or reassign, with the approval of the governor, any functions, duties, or

powers established by this chapter to any agency within the department, except as hereinafter

limited;

     (9) To cooperate with the water resources board and to provide to the board facilities,

administrative support, staff services, and such other services as the board shall reasonably

require for its operation and, in cooperation with the board and the statewide planning program,

to formulate and maintain a long-range guide plan and implementing program for development of

major water-sources transmission systems needed to furnish water to regional- and local-

distribution systems;

     (10) To cooperate with the solid waste management corporation and to provide to the

corporation such facilities, administrative support, staff services, and such other services within

the department as the corporation shall reasonably require for its operation;

     (11) To provide for the maintenance of waterways and boating facilities, consistent with

chapter 6.1 of title 46, by: (i) Establishing minimum standards for upland beneficial use and

disposal of dredged material; (ii) Promulgating and enforcing rules for water quality, ground

water protection, and fish and wildlife protection pursuant to § 42-17.1-24; (iii) Planning for the

upland beneficial use and/or disposal of dredged material in areas not under the jurisdiction of the

council pursuant to § 46-23-6(2); and (iv) Cooperating with the coastal resources management

council in the development and implementation of comprehensive programs for dredging as

provided for in §§ 46-23-6(1)(ii)(H) and 46-23-18.3; and (v) Monitoring dredge material

management and disposal sites in accordance with the protocols established pursuant to § 46-6.1-

5(3) and the comprehensive program provided for in § 46-23-6(1)(ii)(H); no powers or duties

granted herein shall be construed to abrogate the powers or duties granted to the coastal resources

management council under chapter 23 of title 46, as amended;

     (12) To establish minimum standards, subject to the approval of the environmental

standards board, relating to the location, design, construction, and maintenance of all sewage-

disposal systems;

     (13) To enforce, by such means as provided by law, the standards for the quality of air,

and water, and the design, construction, and operation of all sewage-disposal systems; any order

or notice issued by the director relating to the location, design, construction, or maintenance of a

sewage-disposal system shall be eligible for recordation under chapter 13 of title 34. The director

shall forward the order or notice to the city or town wherein the subject property is located and

the order or notice shall be recorded in the general index by the appropriate municipal official in

the land evidence records in the city or town wherein the subject property is located. Any

subsequent transferee of that property shall be responsible for complying with the requirements of

the order or notice. Upon satisfactory completion of the requirements of the order or notice, the

director shall provide written notice of the same, which notice shall be similarly eligible for

recordation. The original written notice shall be forwarded to the city or town wherein the subject

property is located and the notice of satisfactory completion shall be recorded in the general index

by the appropriate municipal official in the land evidence records in the city or town wherein the

subject property is located. A copy of the written notice shall be forwarded to the owner of the

subject property within five (5) days of a request for it, and, in any event, shall be forwarded to

the owner of the subject property within thirty (30) days after correction;

     (14) To establish minimum standards for the establishment and maintenance of salutary

environmental conditions, including standards and methods for the assessment and the

consideration of the cumulative effects on the environment of regulatory actions and decisions,

which standards for consideration of cumulative effects shall provide for: (i) Evaluation of

potential cumulative effects that could adversely effect public health and/or impair ecological

functioning; (ii) Analysis of such other matters relative to cumulative effects as the department

may deem appropriate in fulfilling its duties, functions and powers; which standards and methods

shall only be applicable to ISDS systems in the town of Jamestown in areas that are dependent for

water supply on private and public wells, unless broader use is approved by the general assembly.

The department shall report to the general assembly not later than March 15, 2008, with regard to

the development and application of such standards and methods in Jamestown;

     (15) To establish and enforce minimum standards for permissible types of septage,

industrial-waste disposal sites, and waste-oil disposal sites;

     (16) To establish minimum standards, subject to the approval of the environmental

standards board, for permissible types of refuse disposal facilities; the design, construction,

operation, and maintenance of disposal facilities; and the location of various types of facilities;

     (17) To exercise all functions, powers, and duties necessary for the administration of

chapter 19.1 of title 23 entitled "Rhode Island Hazardous Waste Management Act";

     (18) To designate, in writing, any person in any department of the state government or

any official of a district, county, city, town, or other governmental unit, with that official's

consent, to enforce any rule, regulation, or order promulgated and adopted by the director under

any provision of law; provided, however, that enforcement of powers of the coastal resources

management council shall be assigned only to employees of the department of environmental

management, except by mutual agreement or as otherwise provided in chapter 23 of title 46;

     (19) To issue and enforce such rules, regulations, and orders as may be necessary to carry

out the duties assigned to the director and the department by any provision of law; and to conduct

such investigations and hearings and to issue, suspend, and revoke such licenses as may be

necessary to enforce those rules, regulations, and orders. Any license suspended under such rules,

regulations, and/or orders shall be terminated and revoked if the conditions that led to the

suspension are not corrected to the satisfaction of the director within two (2) years; provided that

written notice is given by certified mail, return receipt requested, no less than sixty (60) days

prior to the date of termination.

     Notwithstanding the provisions of § 42-35-9 to the contrary, no informal disposition of a

contested licensing matter shall occur where resolution substantially deviates from the original

application unless all interested parties shall be notified of said proposed resolution and provided

with opportunity to comment upon said resolution pursuant to applicable law and any rules and

regulations established by the director;

     (20) To enter, examine, or survey, at any reasonable time, such places as the director

deems necessary to carry out his or her responsibilities under any provision of law subject to the

following provisions:

     (i) For criminal investigations, the director shall, pursuant to chapter 5 of title 12, seek a

search warrant from an official of a court authorized to issue warrants, unless a search without a

warrant is otherwise allowed or provided by law;

     (ii) (A) All administrative inspections shall be conducted pursuant to administrative

guidelines promulgated by the department in accordance with chapter 35 of title 42;

     (B) A warrant shall not be required for administrative inspections if conducted under the

following circumstances, in accordance with the applicable constitutional standards:

     (I) For closely regulated industries;

     (II) In situations involving open fields or conditions that are in plain view;

     (III) In emergency situations;

     (IV) In situations presenting an imminent threat to the environment or public health,

safety, or welfare;

     (V) If the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, property, site, or location

consents; or

     (VI) In other situations in which a warrant is not constitutionally required.

     (C) Whenever it shall be constitutionally or otherwise required by law, or whenever the

director in his or her discretion deems it advisable, an administrative search warrant, or its

functional equivalent, may be obtained by the director from a neutral magistrate for the purpose

of conducting an administrative inspection. The warrant shall be issued in accordance with the

applicable constitutional standards for the issuance of administrative search warrants. The

administrative standard of probable cause, not the criminal standard of probable cause, shall

apply to applications for administrative search warrants;

     (I) The need for, or reliance upon, an administrative warrant shall not be construed as

requiring the department to forfeit the element of surprise in its inspection efforts;

     (II) An administrative warrant issued pursuant to this subsection must be executed and

returned within ten (10) days of its issuance date unless, upon a showing of need for additional

time, the court orders otherwise;

     (III) An administrative warrant may authorize the review and copying of documents that

are relevant to the purpose of the inspection. If documents must be seized for the purpose of

copying, and the warrant authorizes such seizure, the person executing the warrant shall prepare

an inventory of the documents taken. The time, place, and manner regarding the making of the

inventory shall be set forth in the terms of the warrant itself, as dictated by the court. A copy of

the inventory shall be delivered to the person from whose possession or facility the documents

were taken. The seized documents shall be copied as soon as feasible under circumstances

preserving their authenticity, then returned to the person from whose possession or facility the

documents were taken;

     (IV) An administrative warrant may authorize the taking of samples of air, water, or soil

or of materials generated, stored, or treated at the facility, property, site, or location. Upon

request, the department shall make split samples available to the person whose facility, property,

site, or location is being inspected;

     (V) Service of an administrative warrant may be required only to the extent provided for

in the terms of the warrant itself, by the issuing court.

     (D) Penalties. Any willful and unjustified refusal of right of entry and inspection to

department personnel pursuant to an administrative warrant shall constitute a contempt of court

and shall subject the refusing party to sanctions, which in the court's discretion may result in up to

six (6) months imprisonment and/or a monetary fine of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per

refusal.

     (21) To give notice of an alleged violation of law to the person responsible therefor

whenever the director determines that there are reasonable grounds to believe that there is a

violation of any provision of law within his or her jurisdiction or of any rule or regulation adopted

pursuant to authority granted to him or her, unless other notice and hearing procedure is

specifically provided by that law. Nothing in this chapter shall limit the authority of the attorney

general to prosecute offenders as required by law;

     (i) The notice shall provide for a time within which the alleged violation shall be

remedied, and shall inform the person to whom it is directed that a written request for a hearing

on the alleged violation may be filed with the director within ten (10) days after service of the

notice. The notice will be deemed properly served upon a person if a copy thereof is served him

or her personally; or sent by registered or certified mail to his or her last known address; or if he

or she is served with notice by any other method of service now or hereafter authorized in a civil

action under the laws of this state. If no written request for a hearing is made to the director

within ten (10) days of the service of notice, the notice shall automatically become a compliance

order;

     (ii) (A) Whenever the director determines that there exists a violation of any law, rule, or

regulation within his or her jurisdiction that requires immediate action to protect the environment,

he or she may, without prior notice of violation or hearing, issue an immediate-compliance order

stating the existence of the violation and the action he or she deems necessary. The compliance

order shall become effective immediately upon service or within such time as is specified by the

director in such order. No request for a hearing on an immediate-compliance order may be made;

     (B) Any immediate-compliance order issued under this section without notice and prior

hearing shall be effective for no longer than forty-five (45) days; provided, however, that for

good cause shown, the order may be extended one additional period not exceeding forty-five (45)

days.

     (iii) The director may, at his or her discretion and for the purposes of timely and effective

resolution and return to compliance, cite a person for alleged noncompliance through the issuance

of an expedited citation in accordance with subsection 42-17.6-3(c);

     (iv) If a person upon whom a notice of violation has been served under the provisions of

this section or if a person aggrieved by any such notice of violation requests a hearing before the

director within ten (10) days of the service of notice of violation, the director shall set a time and

place for the hearing, and shall give the person requesting that hearing at least five (5) days

written notice thereof. After the hearing, the director may make findings of fact and shall sustain,

modify, or withdraw the notice of violation. If the director sustains or modifies the notice, that

decision shall be deemed a compliance order and shall be served upon the person responsible in

any manner provided for the service of the notice in this section;

     (v) The compliance order shall state a time within which the violation shall be remedied,

and the original time specified in the notice of violation shall be extended to the time set in the

order;

     (vi) Whenever a compliance order has become effective, whether automatically where no

hearing has been requested, where an immediate compliance order has been issued, or upon

decision following a hearing, the director may institute injunction proceedings in the superior

court of the state for enforcement of the compliance order and for appropriate temporary relief,

and in that proceeding, the correctness of a compliance order shall be presumed and the person

attacking the order shall bear the burden of proving error in the compliance order, except that the

director shall bear the burden of proving in the proceeding the correctness of an immediate

compliance order. The remedy provided for in this section shall be cumulative and not exclusive

and shall be in addition to remedies relating to the removal or abatement of nuisances or any

other remedies provided by law;

     (vii) Any party aggrieved by a final judgment of the superior court may, within thirty (30)

days from the date of entry of such judgment, petition the supreme court for a writ of certiorari to

review any questions of law. The petition shall set forth the errors claimed. Upon the filing of the

petition with the clerk of the supreme court, the supreme court may, if it sees fit, issue its writ of

certiorari.

     (22) To impose administrative penalties in accordance with the provisions of chapter 17.6

of this title and to direct that such penalties be paid into the account established by subdivision

(26); and

     (23) The following definitions shall apply in the interpretation of the provisions of this

chapter:

     (i) Director: The term "director" shall mean the director of environmental management of

the state of Rhode Island or his or her duly authorized agent;

     (ii) Person: The term "person" shall include any individual, group of individuals, firm,

corporation, association, partnership, or private or public entity, including a district, county, city,

town, or other governmental unit or agent thereof, and in the case of a corporation, any individual

having active and general supervision of the properties of such corporation;

     (iii) Service: (A) Service upon a corporation under this section shall be deemed to include

service upon both the corporation and upon the person having active and general supervision of

the properties of such corporation;

     (B) For purposes of calculating the time within which a claim for a hearing is made

pursuant to subdivision (21)(i), service shall be deemed to be the date of receipt of such notice or

three (3) days from the date of mailing of said notice, whichever shall first occur.

     (24) (i) To conduct surveys of the present private and public camping and other

recreational areas available and to determine the need for and location of such other camping and

recreational areas as may be deemed necessary and in the public interest of the state of Rhode

Island and to report back its findings on an annual basis to the general assembly on or before

March 1 of every year;

     (ii) Additionally, the director of the department of environmental management shall take

such additional steps, including, but not limited to, matters related to funding as may be necessary

to establish such other additional recreational facilities and areas as are deemed to be in the public

interest.

     (25) (i) To apply for and accept grants and bequests of funds, with the approval of the

director of administration, from other states, interstate agencies, and independent authorities, and

private firms, individuals, and foundations, for the purpose of carrying out his or her lawful

responsibilities. The funds shall be deposited with the general treasurer in a restricted receipt

account created in the natural resources program for funds made available for that program's

purposes or in a restricted receipt account created in the environmental protection program for

funds made available for that program's purposes. All expenditures from the accounts shall be

subject to appropriation by the general assembly, and shall be expended in accordance with the

provisions of the grant or bequest. In the event that a donation or bequest is unspecified, or in the

event that the trust account balance shows a surplus after the project as provided for in the grant

or bequest has been completed, the director may utilize said appropriated unspecified or

appropriated surplus funds for enhanced management of the department's forest and outdoor

public recreation areas, or other projects or programs that promote the accessibility of recreational

opportunities for Rhode Island residents and visitors;

     (ii) The director shall submit to the house fiscal advisor and the senate fiscal advisor, by

October 1 of each year, a detailed report on the amount of funds received and the uses made of

such funds.

     (26) To establish fee schedules by regulation, with the approval of the governor, for the

processing of applications and the performing of related activities in connection with the

department's responsibilities pursuant to subdivision subsection (12); chapter 19.1 of title 23, as

it relates to inspections performed by the department to determine compliance with chapter 19.1

and rules and regulations promulgated in accordance therewith; chapter 18.9 of title 23, as it

relates to inspections performed by the department to determine compliance with chapter 18.9

and the rules and regulations promulgated in accordance therewith; chapters 19.5 and 23 of title

23; chapter 12 of title 46, insofar as it relates to water-quality certifications and related reviews

performed pursuant to provisions of the federal Clean Water Act; the regulation and

administration of underground storage tanks and all other programs administered under chapter

12 of title 46 and § 2-1-18 et seq., and chapter 13.1 of title 46 and chapter 13.2 of title 46, insofar

as they relate to any reviews and related activities performed under the provisions of the

Groundwater Protection Act; chapter 24.9 of title 23 as it relates to the regulation and

administration of mercury-added products; and chapter 17.7 of this title, insofar as it relates to

administrative appeals of all enforcement, permitting and licensing matters to the administrative

adjudication division for environmental matters. Two (2) fee ranges shall be required: for

"Appeal of enforcement actions", a range of fifty dollars ($50) to one hundred dollars ($100), and

for "Appeal of application decisions", a range of five hundred dollars ($500) to ten thousand

dollars ($10,000). The monies from the administrative adjudication fees will be deposited as

general revenues and the amounts appropriated shall be used for the costs associated with

operating the administrative adjudication division.

     There is hereby established an account within the general fund to be called the water and

air protection program. The account shall consist of sums appropriated for water and air pollution

control and waste-monitoring programs and the state controller is hereby authorized and directed

to draw his or her orders upon the general treasurer for the payment of such sums, or such

portions thereof, as may be required, from time to time, upon receipt by him or her of properly

authenticated vouchers. All amounts collected under the authority of this subdivision for the

sewage-disposal-system program and fresh-waters wetlands program will be deposited as general

revenues and the amounts appropriated shall be used for the purposes of administering and

operating the programs. The director shall submit to the house fiscal advisor and the senate fiscal

advisor by January 15 of each year a detailed report on the amount of funds obtained from fines

and fees and the uses made of such funds.

     (27) To establish and maintain a list or inventory of areas within the state worthy of

special designation as "scenic" to include, but not be limited to, certain state roads or highways,

scenic vistas, and scenic areas, and to make the list available to the public;

     (28) To establish and maintain an inventory of all interests in land held by public and

private land trust and to exercise all powers vested herein to insure the preservation of all

identified lands;

     (i) The director may promulgate and enforce rules and regulations to provide for the

orderly and consistent protection, management, continuity of ownership and purpose, and

centralized records-keeping for lands, water, and open spaces owned in fee or controlled in full or

in part through other interests, rights, or devices such as conservation easements or restrictions,

by private and public land trusts in Rhode Island. The director may charge a reasonable fee for

filing of each document submitted by a land trust;

     (ii) The term "public land trust" means any public instrumentality created by a Rhode

Island municipality for the purposes stated herein and financed by means of public funds

collected and appropriated by the municipality. The term "private land trust" means any group of

five (5) or more private citizens of Rhode Island who shall incorporate under the laws of Rhode

Island as a nonbusiness corporation for the purposes stated herein, or a national organization such

as the nature conservancy. The main purpose of either a public or a private land trust shall be the

protection, acquisition, or control of land, water, wildlife, wildlife habitat, plants, and/or other

natural features, areas, or open space for the purpose of managing or maintaining, or causing to

be managed or maintained by others, the land, water, and other natural amenities in any

undeveloped and relatively natural state in perpetuity. A private land trust must be granted

exemption from federal income tax under Internal Revenue Code 501c(3) [26 U.S.C. § 501(c)(3)]

within two (2) years of its incorporation in Rhode Island or it may not continue to function as a

land trust in Rhode Island. A private land trust may not be incorporated for the exclusive purpose

of acquiring or accepting property or rights in property from a single individual, family,

corporation, business, partnership, or other entity. Membership in any private land trust must be

open to any individual subscribing to the purposes of the land trust and agreeing to abide by its

rules and regulations including payment of reasonable dues;

     (iii) (A) Private land trusts will, in their articles of association or their bylaws, as

appropriate, provide for the transfer to an organization, created for the same or similar purposes,

the assets, lands and land rights and interests held by the land trust in the event of termination or

dissolution of the land trust.

     (B) All land trusts, public and private, will record in the public records, of the appropriate

towns and cities in Rhode Island, all deeds, conservation easements, or restrictions or other

interests and rights acquired in land and will also file copies of all such documents and current

copies of their articles of association, their bylaws, and annual reports with the secretary of state

and with the director of the Rhode Island department of environmental management. The director

is hereby directed to establish and maintain permanently a system for keeping records of all

private and public land trust land holdings in Rhode Island.

     (29) The director will contact in writing, not less often than once every two (2) years,

each public or private land trust to ascertain: that all lands held by the land trust are recorded with

the director; the current status and condition of each land holding; that any funds or other assets

of the land trust held as endowment for specific lands have been properly audited at least once

within the two-year (2) period; the name of the successor organization named in the public or

private land trust's bylaws or articles of association; and any other information the director deems

essential to the proper and continuous protection and management of land and interests or rights

in land held by the land trust. In the event that the director determines that a public or private land

trust holding land or interest in land appears to have become inactive, he or she shall initiate

proceedings to effect the termination of the land trust and the transfer of its lands, assets, land

rights, and land interests to the successor organization named in the defaulting trust's bylaws or

articles of association or to another organization created for the same or similar purposes. Should

such a transfer not be possible, then the land trust, assets, and interest and rights in land will be

held in trust by the state of Rhode Island and managed by the director for the purposes stated at

the time of original acquisition by the trust. Any trust assets or interests other than land or rights

in land accruing to the state under such circumstances will be held and managed as a separate

fund for the benefit of the designated trust lands;

     (30) Consistent with federal standards, issue and enforce such rules, regulations, and

orders as may be necessary to establish requirements for maintaining evidence of financial

responsibility for taking corrective action and compensating third parties for bodily injury and

property damage caused by sudden and non-sudden accidental releases arising from operating

underground storage tanks;

     (31) To enforce, by such means as provided by law, the standards for the quality of air,

and water, and the location, design, construction, and operation of all underground storage

facilities used for storing petroleum products or hazardous materials; any order or notice issued

by the director relating to the location, design construction, operation, or maintenance of an

underground storage facility used for storing petroleum products or hazardous materials shall be

eligible for recordation under chapter 13 of title 34. The director shall forward the order or notice

to the city or town wherein the subject facility is located, and the order or notice shall be recorded

in the general index by the appropriate municipal officer in the land-evidence records in the city

or town wherein the subject facility is located. Any subsequent transferee of that facility shall be

responsible for complying with the requirements of the order or notice. Upon satisfactory

completion of the requirements of the order or notice, the director shall provide written notice of

the same, which notice shall be eligible for recordation. The original, written notice shall be

forwarded to the city or town wherein the subject facility is located, and the notice of satisfactory

completion shall be recorded in the general index by the appropriate municipal official in the

land-evidence records in the city or town wherein the subject facility is located. A copy of the

written notice shall be forwarded to the owner of the subject facility within five (5) days of a

request for it, and, in any event, shall be forwarded to the owner of the subject facility within

thirty (30) days after correction;

     (32) To manage and disburse any and all funds collected pursuant to § 46-12.9-4, in

accordance with § 46-12.9-5, and other provisions of the Rhode Island Underground Storage

Tank Financial Responsibility Act, as amended;

     (33) To support, facilitate, and assist the Rhode Island Natural History Survey, as

appropriate and/or as necessary, in order to accomplish the important public purposes of the

survey in gathering and maintaining data on Rhode Island natural history; making public

presentations and reports on natural history topics; ranking species and natural communities;

monitoring rare species and communities; consulting on open-space acquisitions and management

plans; reviewing proposed federal and state actions and regulations with regard to their potential

impact on natural communities; and seeking outside funding for wildlife management, land

management, and research;

     (34) To promote the effective stewardship of lakes, and ponds, rivers and streams

including, but not limited to, including collaboration with watershed organizations and

associations of lakefront property owners on planning and management actions that will prevent

and mitigate water quality degradation, reduce the loss of native habitat due to infestation of non-

native species, and abate nuisance conditions that result from excessive growth of algal or non-

native plant species as well as promote healthy freshwater riverine ecosystemsBy January 31,

2012, the director shall prepare and submit a report to the governor and general assembly that,

based upon available information, provides: (a) An assessment of lake conditions including a

description of the presence and extent of aquatic invasive species in lakes and ponds; (b)

Recommendations for improving the control and management of aquatic invasives species in

lakes and ponds; and (c) An assessment of the feasibility of instituting a boat-sticker program for

the purpose of generating funds to support implementation actions to control aquatic invasive

species in the freshwaters of the state; and

     (35) In implementing the programs established pursuant to this chapter, to identify

critical areas for improving service to customers doing business with the department, and to

develop and implement strategies to improve performance and effectiveness in those areas. Key

aspects of a customer-service program shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, the

following components:

     (a) Maintenance of an organizational unit within the department with the express purpose

of providing technical assistance to customers and helping customers comply with environmental

regulations and requirements;

     (b) Maintenance of an employee-training program to promote customer service across the

department;

     (c) Implementation of a continuous business process evaluation and improvement effort,

including process reviews to encourage development of quality proposals; ensure timely and

predictable reviews; and result in effective decisions and consistent follow up and implementation

throughout the department; and publish an annual report on such efforts;

     (d) Creation of a centralized location for the acceptance of permit applications and other

submissions to the department;

     (e) Maintenance of a process to promote, organize, and facilitate meetings prior to the

submission of applications or other proposals in order to inform the applicant on options and

opportunities to minimize environmental impact; improve the potential for sustainable

environmental compliance; and support an effective and efficient review and decision-making

process on permit applications related to the proposed project;

     (f) Development of single permits under multiple authorities otherwise provided in state

law to support comprehensive and coordinated reviews of proposed projects. The director may

address and resolve conflicting or redundant process requirements in order to achieve an effective

and efficient review process that meets environmental objectives; and

     (g) Exploration of the use of performance-based regulations coupled with adequate

inspection and oversight, as an alternative to requiring applications or submissions for approval

prior to initiation of projects. The department shall work with the office of regulatory reform to

evaluate the potential for adopting alternative compliance approaches and provide a report to the

governor and the general assembly by May 1, 2015.


 

 

353)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-17.1-4

180 and 382, and 191 and 242

 

 

42-17.1-4. Divisions within department.

     Within the department of environmental management there are established the following

divisions:

     (1) A division of parks and recreation that shall carry out those functions of the

department relating to the operation and maintenance of parks and recreation areas and the

establishment and maintenance of such additional recreation areas as may from time to time be

acquired and such other functions and duties as may from time to time be assigned by the

director;

     (2) A division of fish and wildlife that shall carry out those functions of the department

relating to the administration of hunting, fishing, and shell fisheries; the preservation of wetlands,

marsh lands, freshwater lakes, streams, ponds, and wildlife; and such other functions and duties

as may from time to time be assigned by the director;

     (3) A division of agriculture that shall carry out those functions of the department relating

to agriculture, and such other functions and duties as may from time to time be assigned by the

director, including, but not limited to, plant industry, farm viability, marketing and promotion,

farmland ecology and protection, plant and animal health and quarantine, pesticides, mosquito

abatement, pest survey and response, food policy and security, and, in collaboration with the

department of health, public health as it relates to farm production and direct marketing of farm

products, and those agreed upon through memorandum of agreement with the department of

health or other state agencies. The department of health shall continue to act as the lead agency

for all public health issues in the state pursuant to chapter 1 of title 23. Nothing herein contained

shall limit the department of health's statutory authority, nor shall any provision herein be

construed as a limitation upon the statutory authority of the department of health granted to the

department under title 23 of the general laws, nor shall any provision herein be construed to limit

the authority of the department of environmental management to enter into memoranda of

agreement with any governmental agency. The chief of the division of agriculture shall report

directly to the director.

     (4) A division of coastal resources that shall carry out those functions of the department

relating to harbors and harbor lines, pilotage, flood control, shore development, construction of

port facilities, and the registration of boats and such other functions and duties as may, from time

to time, be assigned by the director, except that the division shall not be responsible for the

functions of inspection of dams and reservoirs, approving plans for construction or improvement

of dams, reservoirs, and other structures in non-tidal waters, and the operation of stream-gauging

stations in cooperation with the United States Geological Survey, and provided, further, that the

division and its staff shall be responsible through the director of environmental management, to

the coastal resources management council, and the chief and the staff of the division shall serve

as staff to the council;

     (5) A division of planning and development that shall carry out those functions of the

department relating to planning, programming, acquisition of land, engineering studies, and such

other studies, as the director may direct, and that shall work with the board of governors for

higher education and the board of regents for elementary and secondary education, with

educational institutions at all levels, and with the public in the dissemination of information and

education relating to natural resources, and shall perform the publication and public relations

functions of the department, the functions of inspection of dams and reservoirs, approving plans

for construction or improvement of dams, reservoirs, and other structures in non-tidal waters, and

the operation of stream-gauging stations in cooperation with the United States Geological Survey;

     (6) A division of enforcement that shall enforce all of the laws and regulations of the

department and the coastal resources management council, that shall cooperate with the other

enforcement agencies of the state and its municipalities, and that shall administer all of the

policing, enforcing, licensing, registration, and inspection functions of the department and such

other functions and duties as may, from time to time, be assigned by the director;

     (7) A division of forest environment that shall carry out those functions of the department

relating to the administration of forests and natural areas, including programs for utilization,

conservation, forest fire protection, and improvements of these areas; assisting other agencies and

local governments in urban programs relating to trees, forests, green belts, and environment and

such other functions and duties as may, from time to time, be assigned by the director; and

     (8) (i) A division of boating safety that shall carry out those functions of the department

relating to the development and administration of a coordinated, safe boating program in

accordance with the Model Safe Boating Act of 1971 as approved by the National Association of

State Boating Law Administrators.

     (ii) Administration of the division of boating safety shall be the responsibility of the state

boating law administrator whose duties shall include:

     (A) The enforcement of all laws relating to the act; and

     (B) The powers vested in the state boating law administrator and boating safety

enforcement officer shall include the enforcement of laws, rules and regulations relating to

"Regulation of Boats," chapter 22 of title 46 and shall also include the power to:

     (I) Execute all warrants and search warrants for the violation of laws, rules, and

regulations relating to the act.

     (II) Serve subpoenas issued for the trial of all offenses hereunder.

     (III) To carry firearms or other weapons, concealed or otherwise, in the course of, and in

performance of, their duties under this chapter.

     (IV) To arrest without warrant and on view any person found violating any law, rule, or

regulation relating to the act; take that person before a court having jurisdiction for trial; detain

that person in custody at the expense of the state until arraignment; and to make and execute

complaints within any district to the justice or clerk of the court against any person for any of the

offenses enumerated under the act committed within the district.

     (V) Boating safety enforcement officers shall not be required to give surety for costs

upon any complaint made by him or her.

     (iii) The development and administration of a coordinated, safe boating program.

     (iv) The establishment and enforcement of such rules and regulations as are deemed

necessary to achieve the purposes of the Model Safe Boating Act as approved by the state boating

law administrators.

     (v) The state boating law administrator shall serve as the liaison to the United States

Coast Guard.

42-17.1-4. Divisions within department.

   (9) A division of marine fisheries management that shall carry out those functions of the

department relating to the administration, management, and harvest of marine animal and plant

species found in Rhode Island marine waters, including, but not limited to: stock assessments of

marine species; harvest of marine species regulated under a regional of federal fisheries

management plan; the review of aquaculture applications before the CRMC; a commercial fishing

licensing program; fixing seasons, bag limits, size limits, possession limits, and methods of taking

on any marine plant and animal species,; and such other related functions and duties as may be

assigned by the director.


 

 

354)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-17.6-3

128 and 145

 

 

42-17.6-3. Notice of violation and assessment of penalty.

     (a) Whenever the director seeks to assess an administrative penalty on any person, the

director shall cause to be served upon the person, either by service, in hand, or by certified mail,

return receipt requested, a written notice of its intent to assess an administrative penalty which

that shall include:

     (1) A concise statement of the alleged act or omission for which the administrative

penalty is sought to be assessed;

     (2) Each law, rule, regulation, order, permit, license, or approval which that has not been

complied with as a result of the alleged act or omission;

     (3) The amount which that the director seeks to assess as an administrative penalty for

each alleged act or omission;

     (4) A statement of the person's right to an adjudicatory hearing on the proposed

assessment;

     (5) The requirements the person must comply with to avoid being deemed to have waived

the right to an adjudicatory hearing; and

     (6) The manner of payment thereof if the person elects to pay the penalty and waive an

adjudicatory hearing.

     (b) After written notice of noncompliance or intent to assess an administrative penalty

has been given, each day thereafter during which the noncompliance occurs or continues shall

constitute a separate offense and shall be subject to a separate administrative penalty if reasonable

efforts have not been made to promptly come into compliance.

     (c) For purposes of timely and effective resolution and return to compliance, the director

may cite a person for alleged noncompliance through the issuance of an expedited citation, which

may include assessment of penalties up to two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) five

thousand dollars ($5,000). Each expedited citation shall include a concise statement of the alleged

act or omission that constitutes noncompliance and each law, rule, regulation, order, permit,

license, or approval which that has not been complied with; and that person alleged to be in

noncompliance shall have the right at any time to opt out of the alleged expedited citation

process. Failure to respond to an expedited citation shall be deemed as exercising the right to opt

out. An expedited citation shall not take effect without the voluntary agreement of the person

alleged to be in noncompliance. Expedited citations issued under this section without notice and

prior hearing shall be effective no longer than sixty (60) days from the date of receipt by the

person alleged to be in noncompliance. In the event that the alleged noncompliance and penalty is

unresolved and the expedited citation expires, the director retains the right to issue a separate

notice of violation and order and penalty, subject to appeal pursuant to § 42-17.6-4. A person

issued an expedited citation shall have the right at any time during the sixty-(60) day (60)

expedited citation process to request that the director issue a separate notice of violation and order

and penalty, subject to appeal pursuant to § 42-17.6-4.


 

 

355)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-18-8

343 and 349

 

 

42-18-8. Cooperation with the department of corrections.

The director of the department of health shall coordinate and cooperate with the director

of the department of corrections to ensure collaboration around existing department of health

programs and initiatives, with regard to people under the care of the department of corrections, on

probation, during incarceration, and upon release to the community.


 

 

356)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-23-2

168 and 172

 

 

42-23-2. Composition -- Tenure of members.

     (a) The commission on interstate cooperation shall consist of:

      (1) The governor, the lieutenant governor, the attorney general, and the speaker of the

house of representatives, and the senate president, ex officio;

      (2) Four (4) members of the senate to be appointed by the president of the senate, not

more than three (3) of whom shall be members of the same political party;

      (3) Four (4) members of the house of representatives to be appointed by the speaker, not

more than three (3) of whom shall be members of the same political party; and

      (4) Five (5) qualified electors of the state, not more than four (4) of whom shall be

members of the same political party, to be appointed by the governor.

      (b) Each member of the commission who holds public office shall serve during his or her

term of office and the other members shall serve during the pleasure of the governor.


 

 

 

 

357)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-46-6

214 and 333

 

 

42-46-6. Notice.

     (a) All public bodies shall give written notice of their regularly scheduled meetings at the

beginning of each calendar year. The notice shall include the dates, times, and places of the

meetings and shall be provided to members of the public upon request and to the secretary of

state at the beginning of each calendar year in accordance with subsection (f).

     (b) Public bodies shall give supplemental written public notice of any meeting within a

minimum of forty-eight (48) hours, excluding weekends and state holidays in the count of hours,

before the date. This notice shall include the date the notice was posted,; the date, time, and place

of the meeting,; and a statement specifying the nature of the business to be discussed. Copies of

the notice shall be maintained by the public body for a minimum of one year. Nothing contained

herein shall prevent a public body, other than a school committee, from adding additional items to

the agenda by majority vote of the members. School committees may, however, add items for

informational purposes only, pursuant to a request, submitted in writing, by a member of the

public during the public comment session of the school committee's meetings. Said informational

items may not be voted upon unless they have been posted in accordance with the provisions of

this section. Such additional items shall be for informational purposes only and may not be voted

on except where necessary to address an unexpected occurrence that requires immediate action to

protect the public or to refer the matter to an appropriate committee or to another body or official.

     (c) Written public notice shall include, but need not be limited to, posting a copy of the

notice at the principal office of the public body holding the meeting, or if no principal office

exists, at the building in which the meeting is to be held, and in at least one other prominent place

within the governmental unit, and electronic filing of the notice with the secretary of state

pursuant to subsection (f); however, nothing contained herein shall prevent a public body from

holding an emergency meeting, upon an affirmative vote of the majority of the members of the

body when the meeting is deemed necessary to address an unexpected occurrence that requires

immediate action to protect the public. If an emergency meeting is called, a meeting notice and

agenda shall be posted as soon as practicable and shall be electronically filed with the secretary of

state pursuant to subsection (e) and, upon meeting, the public body shall state for the record and

minutes why the matter must be addressed in less than forty-eight (48) hours in accordance with

§42-46-6(b) subsection (b) of this section and only discuss the issue or issues which that created

the need for an emergency meeting. Nothing contained herein shall be used in the circumvention

of the spirit and requirements of this chapter.

     (d) Nothing within this chapter shall prohibit any public body, or the members thereof,

from responding to comments initiated by a member of the public during a properly noticed open

forum even if the subject matter of a citizen's comments or discussions were not previously

posted, provided such matters shall be for informational purposes only and may not be voted on

except where necessary to address an unexpected occurrence that requires immediate action to

protect the public or to refer the matter to an appropriate committee or to another body or official.

Nothing contained in this chapter requires any public body to hold an open-forum session, to

entertain or respond to any topic nor does it prohibit any public body from limiting comment on

any topic at such an open-forum session. No public body, or the members thereof, may use this

section to circumvent the spirit or requirements of this chapter.

     (e) A school committee may add agenda items not appearing in the published notice

required by this section under the following conditions:

     (1) The revised agenda is electronically filed with the secretary of state pursuant to

subsection (f), and is posted on the school district's website and the two (2) public locations

required by this section at least forty-eight (48) hours in advance of the meeting in accordance

with §42-46-6(b) subsection (b) of this section;

     (2) The new agenda items were unexpected and could not have been added in time for

newspaper publication;

     (3) Upon meeting, the public body states for the record and minutes why the agenda

items could not have been added in time for newspaper publication and need to be addressed at

the meeting;

     (4) A formal process is available to provide timely notice of the revised agenda to any

person who has requested that notice, and the school district has taken reasonable steps to make

the public aware of this process; and

     (5) The published notice shall include a statement that any changes in the agenda will be

posted on the school district's web site and the two (2) public locations required by this section

and will be electronically filed with the secretary of state at least forty-eight (48) hours in advance

of the meeting in accordance with §42-46-6(b) subsection (b) of this section.

     (f) All notices required by this section to be filed with the secretary of state shall be

electronically transmitted to the secretary of state in accordance with rules and regulations which

that shall be promulgated by the secretary of state. This requirement of the electronic

transmission and filing of notices with the secretary of state shall take effect one year after this

subsection takes effect.

     (g) If a public body fails to transmit notices in accordance with this section, then any

aggrieved person may file a complaint with the attorney general in accordance with § 42-46-8.


 

 

358)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-46-7

214 and 333

 

 

42-46-7. Minutes.

     (a) All public bodies shall keep written minutes of all their meetings. The minutes shall

include, but need not be limited to:

     (1) The date, time, and place of the meeting;

     (2) The members of the public body recorded as either present or absent;

     (3) A record by individual members of any vote taken; and

     (4) Any other information relevant to the business of the public body that any member of

the public body requests be included or reflected in the minutes.

     (b) (1) A record of all votes taken at all meetings of public bodies, listing how each

member voted on each issue, shall be a public record and shall be available, to the public at the

office of the public body, within two (2) weeks of the date of the vote. The minutes shall be

public records and unofficial minutes shall be available, to the public at the office of the public

body, within thirty-five (35) days of the meeting or at the next regularly scheduled meeting,

whichever is earlier, except where the disclosure would be inconsistent with §§ 42-46-4 and 42-

46-5 or where the public body by majority vote extends the time period for the filing of the

minutes and publicly states the reason.

     (2) In addition to the provisions of subdivision subsection (b)(1), all volunteer fire

companies, associations, fire district companies, or any other organization currently engaged in

the mission of extinguishing fires and preventing fire hazards, whether it is incorporated or not,

and whether it is a paid department or not, shall post unofficial minutes of their meetings within

twenty-one (21) days of the meeting, but not later than seven (7) days prior to the next regularly

scheduled meeting, whichever is earlier, on the secretary of state's website.

     (c) The minutes of a closed session shall be made available at the next regularly

scheduled meeting unless the majority of the body votes to keep the minutes closed pursuant to

§§ 42-46-4 and 42-46-5.

     (d) All public bodies within the executive branch of the state government and all state

public and quasi-public boards, agencies and corporations, and those public bodies set forth in

subdivision (b)(2), shall keep official and/or approved minutes of all meetings of the body and

shall file a copy of the minutes of all open meetings with the secretary of state for inspection by

the public within thirty-five (35) days of the meeting; provided that this subsection shall not apply

to public bodies whose responsibilities are solely advisory in nature.

     (e) All minutes and unofficial minutes required by this section to be filed with the

secretary of state shall be electronically transmitted to the secretary of state in accordance with

rules and regulations which that shall be promulgated by the secretary of state. If a public body

fails to transmit minutes or unofficial minutes in accordance with this subsection, then any

aggrieved person may file a complaint with the attorney general in accordance with § 42-46-8.


 

 

359)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-56-1

343 and 349

 

 

42-56-1. Declaration of policy.

     (a) The legislature general assembly finds and declares that:

     (1) The state has a basic obligation to protect the public by providing institutional

confinement and care of offenders and, evidence-based probation and parole supervision and,

where appropriate, treatment in the community;

     (2) Efforts to rehabilitate and restore criminal offenders as law-abiding and productive

members of society are essential to the reduction of crime;

     (3) Upgrading of Maintaining the quality and effectiveness of correctional institutions

and rehabilitative services, both inside and outside correctional institutions, deserves priority

consideration as a means of lowering crime rates and of preventing offenders, particularly youths,

first-offenders, and misdemeanants, from becoming trapped in careers of crime; and

     (4) Correctional institutions, supervision, and services should be so diversified in

program and personnel as to facilitate individualized treatment.

     (b) The purpose of this chapter is to establish a department of state government to

provide for the supervision, custody, care, discipline, training, and treatment, and study of

persons committed to state correctional institutions or on probation or parole, so that those

persons may be prepared for release, aftercare, and supervision in the community.


 

 

360)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-56-5.1

346 and 352

 

 

42-56-5.1. Justice reinvestment.

     (a) The department, in conjunction with the performance management staff at the office

of management and budget, shall monitor the implementation of justice reinvestment policies for

the period from 2017 to 2022, utilizing a benefit-cost model, such as the one developed and

supported by the Pew-MacArthur Results First Initiative, including:

     (1) Adoption and use of screening and assessment tools to inform judicial and executive

branch decisions regarding arraignment and bail, pretrial conditions and supervision, probation

and parole supervision, correctional programs, and parole release;

     (2) Use of court rules designed to accelerate the disposition and improve the procedural

fairness of pretrial decisions, including violations of bail, filing, deferred sentence, and probation;

     (3) Use of judicial sentencing benchmarks designed to:

     (i) Guide purposeful, limited probation and suspended sentence terms; and

     (ii) Achieve proportionate sanctions for violations;

     (4) Progress by the department of corrections, division of rehabilitative services, in

achieving the initiatives required by §42-56-7;

     (5) The feasibility of implementing additional law enforcement training in responding to

people with behavioral health and substance abuse needs, and of providing for one or more

suitable locations for such people to be referred for treatment; and

     (6) Barriers to reentry and the availability and effectiveness of programs designed to

increase employability and employment of people in the criminal justice system.

     (b) The department shall attempt to report on data analyzing key decision points with

information broken out by offense, risk, and appropriate demographic data whenever available.

The report must provide, or report on efforts to provide, relevant measures including the

following:

     (1) The number of people for whom a pre-arraignment report is conducted under §12-13-

24.1, and the number who are affected by each subdivision of subsection (a) of this section;

     (2) The number of people who are eligible for pre-trial diversion opportunities and the

number of people selected for diversion programs;

     (3) Length of probation terms and suspended sentences imposed;

     (4) Sanctions imposed by probation officers and by courts and the violations triggering

the sanctions;

     (5) Pre-trial lengths of stay including length prior to probation violation hearings;

     (6) Volume and characteristics of people on probation caseloads, including limited and

high intensity caseloads;

     (7) Restitution amounts imposed and percentage of collections by increment of time

under correctional control;

     (8) Community-based cognitive behavioral treatment programs funded, including the

amount of funding received by each program and the number of high-risk probation clients

served;

     (9) Batterers intervention programs funded to increase or refine treatment, including the

amount of funding received by each program and the number of clients served; and

     (10) Amounts of victim restitution assessed and collected.


 

 

361)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-56-7

343 and 349

 

 

42-56-7. Parole and probation.

     (a) Authority. The division of rehabilitative services, subject to the authority of the

director, shall perform the functions relating to the parole and probation of adults as prescribed by

this chapter and chapters 18 and 19 of title 12, and under those rules and regulations adopted by

the director of corrections with the approval of the governor and the parole board in the executive

department.

     (b) Assessments. The division of rehabilitative services shall adopt risk and needs screens

and assessments and behavioral health assessments that are validated at least once every five (5)

years for the purpose of informing the following decisions:

     (1) Probation supervision intensity, case management, and treatment objectives, adopted

in collaboration with the superior courts;

     (2) Correctional treatment and classification; and

     (3) Parole supervision intensity, case management, and treatment objectives, adopted in

collaboration with the parole board, and parole release decisions, adopted in collaboration with,

and for implementation by, the parole board.

     (c) Special conditions. The assessment implemented under subsection (b)(1) of this

section should be performed prior to placement on probation, whenever possible, to support

judicial decisions affecting conditions of supervision under §12-19-8.1.

     (d) Supervision. The division of rehabilitative services shall:

     (1) Provide limited supervision for probationers who qualify based on offense level, time

under supervision without a violation, and the results from a validated risk and needs assessment;

     (2) Provide high-intensity supervision and treatment for probationers who, based on

screening and assessments, are high risk to re-offend and present high needs for behavioral health

services;

     (3) Collaborate with the executive office of health and human services to implement

Medicaid payment incentives designed to ensure timely access to quality behavioral health

treatment and cognitive-behavioral programs for probationers; and

     (4) Require that program providers serving probationers pursuant to a contract with the

department use cognitive-behavioral programs to reduce criminal thinking.

     (e) Behavioral change guidelines. The division of rehabilitative services shall adopt

guidelines for probation and parole officers, governing:

     (1) Incentives for compliance and risk-reducing behavior;

     (2) Swift, certain, and proportionate non-confinement sanctions in response to

corresponding violations of probation conditions; and

     (3) The use of confinement as a sanction after the consideration of all other appropriate

non-confinement sanctions in response to corresponding violations of probation conditions.

     (f) Training. The division of rehabilitative services shall organize and conduct evidence-

based training programs for probation and parole officers. The training shall include:

     (1) Scoring and use of validated risk and needs assessments under subsection (b) of this

section;

     (2) Risk-based supervision strategies;

     (3) Cognitive behavioral interventions;

     (4) Targeting criminal risk factors to reduce recidivism;

     (5) Use of incentives for compliance and risk-reducing behavior;

     (6) Use of and swift, certain, and proportionate sanctions in response to corresponding

violations of probation conditions pursuant to subsection (d)(2) of this section;

     (7) Recognizing symptoms of substance use and mental health needs and making

treatment referrals; and

     (8) De-escalating erratic criminal behavior.

     (g) All probation and parole officers employed on or after the effective date of this act

shall complete the training requirements set forth in this section. Selected probation and parole

officers shall become trainers to ensure sustainability of these training requirements.

     (h) Information. The division of rehabilitative services shall develop or adopt an

automated case management and reporting system for probation and parole officers.

     (i) Implementation. Deadlines for implementation of this section by the department of

corrections shall be as follows: subsection (b) (initial assessment validation), subsection (c)

(special condition recommendations), subsection (d) (supervision intensity), and subsection (f)

(for training of existing probation and parole officers), one year from the effective date of this

section; subsection (e) (behavior change guidelines), six (6) months from the effective date of this

section; subsections (f) and (g) (for training of new probation and parole officers) and subsection

(h) (case management system), two (2) years from the effective date of this section.


 

 

362)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-56-20.2

346 and 352

 

 

42-56-20.2. Community confinement.

     (a) Persons subject to this section. Every person who shall have been adjudged guilty of

any crime after trial before a judge, a judge and jury, or before a single judge entertaining the

person's plea of nolo contendere or guilty to an offense ("adjudged person"), and every person

sentenced to imprisonment in the adult correctional institutions ("sentenced person") including

those sentenced or imprisoned for civil contempt, and every person awaiting trial at the adult

correctional institutions ("detained person") who meets the criteria set forth in this section shall

be subject to the terms of this section except:

     (1) Any person who is unable to demonstrate that a permanent place of residence

("eligible residence") within this state is available to that person; or

     (2) Any person who is unable to demonstrate that he or she will be regularly employed,

or enrolled in an educational or vocational training program within this state, and within thirty

(30) days following the institution of community confinement; or

     (3) (i) Any adjudged person or sentenced person or detained person who has been

convicted, within the five (5) years next preceding the date of the offense for which he or she is

currently so adjudged or sentenced or detained, of a violent felony.

     A "violent felony" as used in this section shall mean any one of the following crimes or

an attempt to commit that crime: murder, manslaughter, sexual assault, mayhem, robbery,

burglary, assault with a dangerous weapon, assault or battery involving serious bodily injury,

arson, breaking and entering into a dwelling, child molestation, kidnapping, DWI resulting in

death or serious injury, driving to endanger resulting in death or serious injury.; or

     (ii) Any person currently adjudged guilty of or sentenced for or detained on any capital

felony; or

     (iii) Any person currently adjudged guilty of or sentenced for or detained on a felony

offense involving the use of force or violence against a person or persons.

     These shall include, but are not limited to, those offenses listed in subsection (a)(3)(i) of

this section; or

     (iv) Any person currently adjudged guilty, sentenced, or detained for the sale, delivery, or

possession with intent to deliver a controlled substance in violation of § 21-28-4.01(a)(4)(i) or

possession of a certain enumerated quantity of a controlled substance in violation of §§ 21-28-

4.01.1 or 21-28-4.01.2.

     (v) Any person currently adjudged guilty of, or sentenced for, or detained on an offense

involving the illegal possession of a firearm.

     (b) Findings prior to sentencing to community confinement. In the case of adjudged

persons, if the judge intends to impose a sentence of community confinement, he or she shall first

make specific findings, based on evidence regarding the nature and circumstances of the offense

and the personal history, character, record, and propensities of the defendant which are relevant to

the sentencing determination, and these findings shall be placed on the record at the time of

sentencing. These findings shall include, but are not limited to:

     (1) A finding that the person does not demonstrate a pattern of behavior indicating a

propensity for violent behavior;

     (2) A finding that the person meets each of the eligibility criteria set forth in subsection

(a);

     (3) A finding that simple probation is not an appropriate sentence;

     (4) A finding that the interest of justice requires, for specific reasons, a sentence of non-

institutional confinement; and

     (5) A finding that the person will not pose a risk to public safety if placed in community

confinement.

     The facts supporting these findings shall be placed on the record, and shall be subject to

review on appeal.

     (c) Community confinement.

     (1) There shall be established within the department of corrections, a community

confinement program to serve that number of adjudged persons, sentenced persons, and

detainees, that the director of the department of corrections ("director") shall determine on or

before July 1 of each year. Immediately upon that determination, the director shall notify the

presiding justice of the superior court of the number of adjudged persons, sentenced persons, and

detainees that can be accommodated in the community confinement program for the succeeding

twelve (12) months. One-half (1/2) of all persons sentenced to community confinement shall be

adjudged persons, and the balance shall be detainees and sentenced persons. The director shall

provide to the presiding justice of the superior court and the family court on the first day of each

month a report to set forth the number of adjudged persons, sentenced persons, and detainees

participating in the community confinement program as of each reporting date. Notwithstanding

any other provision of this section, if on April 1 of any fiscal year less than one-half (1/2) of all

persons sentenced to community confinement shall be adjudged persons, then those available

positions in the community confinement program may be filled by sentenced persons or detainees

in accordance with the procedures set forth in subdivision subsection (c)(2) of this section.

     (2) In the case of inmates other than those classified to community confinement under

subsection (h) of this section, the director may make written application ("application") to the

sentencing judge for an order ("order") directing that a sentenced person or detainee be confined

within an eligible residence for a period of time, which in the case of a sentenced person, shall not

exceed the term of imprisonment. This application and order shall contain a recommendation for

a program of supervision and shall contain the findings set forth in subsections (b)(1), (b)(2),

(b)(3), (b)(4), and (b)(5) of this section and facts supporting these findings. The application and

order may contain a recommendation for the use of electronic surveillance or monitoring devices.

The hearing on this application shall be held within ten (10) business days following the filing of

this application. If the sentencing judge is unavailable to hear and consider the application the

presiding justice of the superior court shall designate another judge to do so.

     (3) In lieu of any sentence, which that may be otherwise imposed upon any person

subject to this section, the sentencing judge may cause an adjudged person to be confined within

an eligible residence for a period of time not to exceed the term of imprisonment otherwise

authorized by the statute the adjudged person has been adjudged guilty of violating.

     (4) With authorization by the sentencing judge, or, in the case of sentenced persons

classified to community confinement under subsection (h) of this section by the director of

corrections, or in accordance with the order, persons confined under the provisions of this chapter

may be permitted to exit the eligible residence in order to travel directly to and from their place of

employment or education or training and may be confined in other terms or conditions consistent

with the basic needs of that person that justice may demand, including the right to exit the eligible

residence to which that person is confined for certain enumerated purposes such as religious

observation, medical and dental treatment, participation in an education or vocational training

program, and counseling, all as set forth in the order.

     (d) Administration. (1) Community confinement. The supervision of persons confined

under the provisions of this chapter shall be conducted by the director, or his or her designee.

     (2) Intense surveillance. The application and order shall prescribe a program of intense

surveillance and supervision by the department of corrections. Persons confined under the

provisions of this section shall be subject to searches of their persons or of their property when

deemed necessary by the director, or his or her designee, in order to ensure the safety of the

community, supervisory personnel, the safety and welfare of that person, and/or to ensure

compliance with the terms of that person's program of community confinement; provided,

however, that no surveillance, monitoring or search shall be done at manifestly unreasonable

times or places nor in a manner or by means that would be manifestly unreasonable under the

circumstances then present.

     (3) The use of any electronic surveillance or monitoring device which is affixed to the

body of the person subject to supervision is expressly prohibited unless set forth in the application

and order or, in the case of sentenced persons classified to community confinement under

subsection (h), otherwise authorized by the director of corrections.

     (4) Regulatory authority. The director shall have full power and authority to enforce any

of the provisions of this section by regulation, subject to the provisions of the Administrative

Procedures Act, chapter 35 of title 42. Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary, the

department of corrections may contract with private agencies to carry out the provisions of this

section. The civil liability of those agencies and their employees, acting within the scope of their

employment, and carrying out the provision of this section, shall be limited in the same manner

and dollar amount as if they were agencies or employees of the state.

     (e) Violations. Any person confined pursuant to the provisions of this section, who is

found to be a violator of any of the terms and conditions imposed upon him or her according to

the order, or in the case of sentenced persons classified to community confinement under

subsection (h), otherwise authorized by the director of corrections, this section, or any rules,

regulations, or restrictions issued pursuant hereto shall be ineligible for parole, and shall serve the

balance of his or her sentence in a classification deemed appropriate by the director. If that

conduct constitutes a violation of § 11-25-2, the person, upon conviction, shall be subject to an

additional term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than twenty (20) years.

However, it shall be a defense to any alleged violation that the person was at the time of the

violation acting out of a necessary response to an emergency situation. An "emergency situation"

shall be construed to mean the avoidance by the defendant of death or of substantial personal

injury, as defined above, to him or herself or to others.

     (f) Costs. Each person confined according to this section shall reimburse the state for the

costs or a reasonable portion thereof incurred by the state relating to the community confinement

of those persons. Costs shall be initially imposed by the sentencing judge or in the order and shall

be assessed by the director prior to the expiration of that person's sentence. Once assessed, those

costs shall become a lawful debt due and owing to the state by that person. Monies received under

this section shall be deposited as general funds.

     (g) Severability. Every word, phrase, clause, section, subsection, and any of the

provisions of this section are hereby declared to be severable from the whole, and a declaration of

unenforceability or unconstitutionality of any portion of this section, by a judicial court of

competent jurisdiction, shall not affect the portions remaining.

     (h) Sentenced persons approaching release. Notwithstanding the provisions set forth

within this section, any sentenced person committed under the direct care, custody, and control of

the adult correctional institutions, who is within six (6) months of the projected good time release

date, provided that the person shall have completed at least one-half (1/2) of the full term of

incarceration, or any person who is sentenced to a term of six (6) months or less of incarceration,

provided that the person shall have completed at least three-fourths (3/4) of the term of

incarceration, may in the discretion of the director of corrections be classified to community

confinement. This provision shall not apply to any person whose current sentence was imposed

upon conviction of murder, first degree sexual assault or first degree child molestation.

     (i) Notification to police departments. The director, or his or her designee, shall notify the

appropriate police department when a sentenced, adjudged or detained person has been placed

into community confinement within that department's jurisdiction. That notice will include the

nature of the offense and the express terms and conditions of that person's confinement. That

notice shall also be given to the appropriate police department when a person in community

confinement within that department's jurisdiction is placed in escape status.

     (j) No incarceration credit for persons awaiting trial. No detainee shall be given

incarceration credit by the director for time spent in community confinement while awaiting trial.

     (k) No confinement in college or university housing facilities. Notwithstanding any

provision of the general laws to the contrary, no person eligible for community confinement shall

be placed in any college or university housing facility, including, but not limited to, dormitories,

fraternities or sororities. College or university housing facilities shall not be considered an

"eligible residence" for "community confinement."

     (l) A sentencing judge shall have authority to waive overnight stay or incarceration at the

adult correctional institution after the sentencing of community confinement. Such a waiver shall

be binding upon the adult correctional institution and the staff thereof, including, but not limited

to the community confinement program.


 

 

363)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-56-42

346 and 352

 

 

42-56-42. Severability.

If any provision of this chapter or its application to any person or circumstances is held

invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of the chapter which can be

given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this

chapter are declared to be severable.


 

 

364)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-58-1

168 and 172

 

 

42-58-1. Commission established.

There shall be an American and Canadian French cultural exchange commission to

consist of nine (9) members, all of whom shall be American citizens of French Canadian ancestry

and residents of the state; three (3) of whom shall be appointed by the speaker of the house of

representatives; three (3) of whom shall be appointed by the lieutenant governor senate president;

and three (3) of whom shall be appointed by the governor. This commission shall establish,

maintain, and develop cultural ties between French-Canadians and Franco-Americans; foster a

special interest in the historical and cultural background of both groups, as well as in the

economic, political, social, and artistic life of the countries involved; and shall help establish or

promote French language programs in the schools of the state.


 

 

365)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-64.13-12

216 and 268

 

 

42-64.13-12. Duty to streamline and coordinate interagency regulation for green

industries.

The office of regulatory reform shall, in consultation with the departments of

environmental management, labor and training, revenue, and the coastal resources management

council, and plant-based and agriculture industry representatives, reduce burdensome regulations,

improve interagency efficiency, and coordinate the regulatory process to facilitate further

economic growth within plant-based industries and agriculture.


 

 

366)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-64.14-6

134 and 151

 

 

42-64.14-6. The I-195 redevelopment district commission.

     (a) The powers of the district to achieve the purposes of this chapter shall be exercised by

a commission as herein provided:

     The I-195 redevelopment district commission shall consist of seven (7) voting members.

The governor of the State of Rhode Island shall appoint, with the advice and consent of the

senate, the seven (7) voting members of the commission.

     The mayor of the city of Providence shall, within thirty (30) days of passage of this act,

submit to the governor a list of names of at least six (6) individuals which that the governor shall

give due consideration to appointing three (3) individuals from the list. The speaker of the house

of representatives shall, within thirty (30) days of passage of this act, submit to the governor a list

of names of three (3) individuals of which the governor shall give due consideration to appointing

one individual from the list. The governor shall also appoint three (3) individuals without regard

to the lists submitted by the mayor of the city of Providence or the speaker of the house of

representatives and the governor shall designate one of the members to serve as chairperson of

the commission. The governor shall, within forty (40) days of passage of this act, submit to the

senate for advice and consent the initial list of individuals for appointment to the commission

including any individuals appointed by the governor from the lists presented by the mayor of the

city of Providence and the speaker of the house of representatives within the time limits set forth

in this subsection.

     Three (3) members shall be appointed for a term of two (2) years; three (3) members shall

be appointed for a term of three (3) years; and one member, who shall be the chair, shall be

appointed for a term of four (4) years. Appointments made thereafter shall be for four-(4) year (4)

terms. Any vacancy occurring in the commission shall be filled by the governor of the State of

Rhode Island in the same manner prescribed for the original appointments, including those seats

by recommendation of the mayor of the city of Providence and the speaker of the house of

representatives being selected from a similar prepared list from those parties. A member

appointed to fill a vacancy of a director appointed by the governor of the State of Rhode Island

shall be appointed for the unexpired portion of the term of office of the member whose vacancy is

to be filled. Members of the commission whose terms expire shall continue to serve until their

successors are appointed and qualified.

     In addition to these voting members, there shall be two (2) ex officio, non-voting

members as follows: the city of Providence planning director, or his or her designee, and the chief

executive officer of the Rhode Island commerce corporation, or his or her designee.

     (b) The commissioners shall receive no compensation for the performance of their duties

under this chapter, but each commissioner may be reimbursed for his or her reasonable expenses

incurred in carrying out those duties, however said reimbursement must be approved at a public

meeting of the commission. A commissioner may engage in private employment, or in a

profession or business.

     (c) The chairperson shall designate a vice chairperson from the commission who shall

serve at the pleasure of the chairperson. Four (4) voting commissioners shall constitute a quorum,

and any action to be taken by the commission under the provisions of this chapter may be

authorized by resolution approved by a majority of the commissioners present and entitled to vote

at any regular or special meeting at which a quorum is present. A vacancy in the membership of

the commission shall not impair the right of a quorum to exercise all of the rights and perform all

of the duties of the commission. Notwithstanding anything in this chapter to the contrary, in the

event that a vacancy is not filled within thirty (30) days of such vacancy, a quorum shall be

deemed to exist with a majority of the then duly authorized voting commissioners present.

     (d) The commission shall appoint a secretary and such additional officers and staff

members as they shall deem appropriate and shall determine the amount of reasonable

compensation, if any, each shall receive. The chair shall appoint the executive director with the

approval of the commission provided that the position of the executive director must be

advertised and the appointment must be approved at a public meeting of the commission. The

commission may vest in an executive director or the director's subordinates the authority to

recommend additional staff members and to determine the amount of compensation each

individual shall receive, which shall then be approved by the commission at a public meeting.

     (e) No full-time employee shall during the period of his or her employment by the

commission engage in any other private employment, profession, or business, except with the

approval of the commissioners.

     (f) Any action taken by the commission under the provisions of this chapter may be

authorized by vote at any regular or special meeting, and each vote shall take effect immediately,

unless otherwise expressly indicated by the commission.

     (g) Employees of the commission shall not, by reason of their employment, be deemed to

be employees of the state or the city for any purpose, any other provision of the general laws,

charter, or ordinance to the contrary notwithstanding, except for the provisions of the ethics code

as set forth in Rhode Island general law 36-14 chapter 14 of title 36. Further, no employee of the

commission shall be entitled to or accrue pension benefits with the city of Providence or state

during such employment.

     (h) It shall be the responsibility of the commission to conduct a training course for newly

appointed and qualified members within six (6) months of their qualification. The training shall

encompass ethics, including the minimum applicable standards established in the code of ethics

as set forth in chapter 14 of title 36 ("code of ethics").

     (i) The commission shall be subject to the provisions of the open meetings act contained

in chapter 46 of title 42 ("open meetings"); provided, however, weekends and state holidays shall

be excluded in the count of hours contained in §§42-46-6(b) and 42-46-6(c). Every meeting of the

commission shall be open unless it is closed pursuant to the exemptions as set forth in §42-46-5,

with the following exceptions:

     (1) For purposes of determining what constitutes a compliant closed or executive session,

the provisions as set forth in §42-46-5(a)(5) shall not apply to the commission. However, an

additional exemption to those provided for in §42-46-5, allowing for a closed or executive

session, shall apply to the commission in accordance with subsection (i)(2) of this section.

     (2) To consider the purchase, exchange, lease, or value of real property if the commission

declares in open session that an open meeting would have a detrimental effect on the negotiating

position of the commission with other parties to the negotiation; provided, however, any vote

taken in a closed session under this subsection, and any minutes of a closed session taken under

this subsection, shall be made public once the disclosure would no longer jeopardize the

commission's negotiating position.

     (j) In every case where the commission holds a closed or executives session, an audio

recording of the closed session shall be made. The audio recording shall be kept as minutes in

accordance with §42-46-7.

     (k) The commission shall be subject to the provisions set forth in chapter 2 of title 38

("access to public records").


 

 

367)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-64.14-7

134 and 151

 

 

42-64.14-7. Powers and duties of the commission.

The commission shall have all the rights and powers reasonably necessary to carry out

and effectuate this chapter, including, including, but not limited to, the rights and powers:

     (1) To sue and be sued, complain and defend, in its corporate name.

     (2) To have a seal which that may be altered at pleasure and to use the seal by causing it,

or a facsimile of the seal, to be impressed or affixed, or in any other manner reproduced.

     (3) To purchase, take, receive, lease, or otherwise acquire, own, hold, improve, use, and

otherwise deal in and with, real or personal property, or any interest in real or personal property,

wherever situated.

     (4) To acquire and to dispose of real property, subject to the provisions of this chapter,

without the necessity of obtaining the approval of the state properties committee or otherwise

complying with the provisions of title 37.

     (5) To sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, transfer, and otherwise dispose of

all or any part of its property and assets for any consideration and upon any terms and conditions

as the commission shall determine.

     (6) To make contracts and guarantees and incur liabilities, borrow money at any rates of

interest as the commission may determine.

     (7) To make and execute agreements of lease, conditional sales contracts, installment

sales contracts, loan agreements, mortgages, construction contracts, operation contracts, and other

contracts and instruments necessary or convenient in the exercise of the powers and functions of

the commission granted by this chapter.

     (8) To invest and reinvest its funds, and at its option to take and hold real and personal

property as security for the payment of funds so loaned or invested.

     (9) To acquire or contract to acquire, from any person, firm, corporation, municipality,

the federal government, or the state, or any agency of either the federal government or the state,

by grant, purchase, lease, gift, condemnation, or otherwise, or to obtain options for the acquisition

of any property, real or personal, improved or unimproved, and interests in land less than the fee

thereof; and to own, hold, clear, improve, develop, and rehabilitate, and to sell, assign, exchange,

transfer, convey, lease, mortgage, or otherwise dispose or encumber that property for the

purposes of carrying out the provisions and intent of this chapter, for any consideration as the

commission shall determine, and with the approval of the commission to retain a master

developer for all or any portion of a project. Any master developer position shall be subject to

advertising and solicitation of applicants shall be approved at a duly posted public meeting of the

commission.

     (10) To conduct its activities, carry on its operations, and have offices and exercise the

powers granted by this chapter, within the state.

     (11) To make and alter by-laws bylaws, not inconsistent with this chapter, for the

administration and regulation of the affairs of the district in a manner that is publicly accountable

and transparent.

     (12) To be a promoter, partner, member, associate, or manager of any partnership,

enterprise, or venture within the district and to engage in promotional, marketing, and similar

activities for the benefit of the district.

     (13) To enter into contracts, agreements, and cooperative agreements with the city and its

agencies and instrumentalities and the Sstate and its agencies and instrumentalities for the sharing

of personnel and other resources.

     (14) To have and exercise all powers reasonably necessary to effect its purposes;

provided, however, that the commission shall not have any power to create, empower or

otherwise establish any corporation, subsidiary corporation, corporate body, any form of

partnership, or any other separate entity without the express approval and authorization of the

general assembly.


 

 

368)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-65-1

168 and 172

 

 

42-65-1. Commission established.

     There shall be an American and Irish cultural exchange commission to consist of nine (9)

members, all of whom shall be American citizens descended from Irish ancestry and residents of

the state; three (3) of whom shall be appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives;

three (3) of whom shall be appointed by the lieutenant governor senate president; and three (3) of

whom shall be appointed by the governor. The commission shall establish, maintain, and develop

cultural ties between Irish and Irish-Americans; foster a special interest in the historical and

cultural background of both groups, as well as in the economic, political, social, and artistic life

of the countries involved; and shall help establish or promote Gaelic language programs in the

schools of the state.


 

 

369)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-72-5

127 and 147

 

 

42-72-5. Powers and scope of activities.

     (a) The department is the principal agency of the state to mobilize the human, physical,

and financial resources available to plan, develop, and evaluate a comprehensive and integrated

statewide program of services designed to ensure the opportunity for children to reach their full

potential. The services include prevention, early intervention, outreach, placement, care and

treatment, and after-care programs; provided, however, that the department notifies the state

police and cooperates with local police departments when it receives and/or investigates a

complaint of sexual assault on a minor and concludes that probable cause exists to support the

allegations(s). The department also serves as an advocate for the needs of children.

     (b) To accomplish the purposes and duties, as set forth in this chapter, the director is

authorized and empowered:

     (1) To establish those administrative and operational divisions of the department that the

director determines is in the best interests of fulfilling the purposes and duties of this chapter;

     (2) To assign different tasks to staff members that the director determines best suit the

purposes of this chapter;

     (3) To establish plans and facilities for emergency treatment, relocation, and physical

custody of abused or neglected children that may include, but are not limited to,

homemaker/educator child-case aides, specialized foster-family programs, day-care facilities,

crisis teams, emergency parents, group homes for teenage parents, family centers within existing

community agencies, and counseling services;

     (4) To establish, monitor, and evaluate protective services for children including, but not

limited to, purchase of services from private agencies and establishment of a policy and

procedure manual to standardize protective services;

     (5) To plan and initiate primary- and secondary-treatment programs for abused and

neglected children;

     (6) To evaluate the services of the department and to conduct periodic, comprehensive-

needs assessment;

     (7) To license, approve, monitor, and evaluate all residential and non-residential child

care institutions, group homes, foster homes, and programs;

     (8) To recruit and coordinate community resources, public and private;

     (9) To promulgate rules and regulations concerning the confidentiality, disclosure, and

expungement of case records pertaining to matters under the jurisdiction of the department;

     (10) To establish a minimum mandatory level of twenty (20) hours of training per year

and provide ongoing staff development for all staff; provided, however, all social workers hired

after June 15, 1991, within the department shall have a minimum of a bachelor's degree in social

work or a closely related field, and must be appointed from a valid, civil-service list;

     (11) To establish procedures for reporting suspected child abuse and neglect pursuant to

chapter 11 of title 40;

     (12) To promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for the execution of departmental

powers pursuant to the Administrative Procedures Act, chapter 35 of title 42;

     (13) To provide and act as a clearinghouse for information, data, and other materials

relative to children;

     (14) To initiate and carry out studies and analysis that will aid in solving local, regional,

and statewide problems concerning children;

     (15) To represent and act on behalf of the state in connection with federal-grant programs

applicable to programs for children in the functional areas described in this chapter;

     (16) To seek, accept, and otherwise take advantage of all federal aid available to the

department, and to assist other agencies of the state, local agencies, and community groups in

taking advantage of all federal grants and subventions available for children;

     (17) To review and coordinate those activities of agencies of the state, and of any

political subdivision of the state, that affect the full and fair utilization of community resources

for programs for children, and initiate programs that will help ensure utilization;

     (18) To administer the pilot, juvenile-restitution program, including the overseeing and

coordinating of all local, community-based restitution programs, and the establishment of

procedures for the processing of payments to children performing community service; and

     (19) To adopt rules and regulations that:

     (i) For the twelve-month (12) period beginning on October 1, 1983, and for each

subsequent twelve-month (12) period, establish specific goals as to the maximum number of

children who will remain in foster care for a period in excess of two (2) years; and

     (ii) Are reasonably necessary to implement the child-welfare services and foster-care

programs;

     (20) May establish and conduct seminars for the purpose of educating children regarding

sexual abuse;

     (21) To establish fee schedules by regulations for the processing of requests from

adoption placement agencies for adoption studies, adoption study updates, and supervision related

to interstate and international adoptions. The fee shall equal the actual cost of the service(s)

rendered, but in no event shall the fee exceed two thousand dollars ($2,000);

     (22) To be responsible for the education of all children who are placed, assigned, or

otherwise accommodated for residence by the department in a state-operated or -supported

community residence licensed by a Rhode Island state agency. In fulfilling this responsibility, the

department is authorized to enroll and pay for the education of students in the public schools or,

when necessary and appropriate, to itself provide education in accordance with the regulations of

the board of regents for elementary and secondary education either directly or through contract;

     (23) To develop multidisciplinary service plans, in conjunction with the department of

health, at hospitals prior to the discharge of any drug-exposed babies. The plan requires the

development of a plan using all health-care professionals;

     (24) To be responsible for the delivery of appropriate mental health services to seriously,

emotionally disturbed children and children with functional, developmental disabilities.

Appropriate mental health services may include hospitalization, placement in a residential

treatment facility, or treatment in a community-based setting. The department is charged with the

responsibility for developing the public policy and programs related to the needs of seriously,

emotionally disturbed children and children with functional, developmental disabilities;

     In fulfilling its responsibilities the department shall:

     (i) Plan a diversified and comprehensive network of programs and services to meet the

needs of seriously, emotionally disturbed children and children with functional, developmental

disabilities;

     (ii) Provide the overall management and supervision of the state program for seriously,

emotionally disturbed children and children with functional, developmental disabilities;

     (iii) Promote the development of programs for preventing and controlling emotional or

behavioral disorders in children;

     (iv) Coordinate the efforts of several state departments and agencies to meet the needs of

seriously, emotionally disturbed children and children with functional, developmental disabilities

and to work with private agencies serving those children;

     (v) Promote the development of new resources for program implementation in providing

services to seriously, emotionally disturbed children and children with functional, developmental

disabilities.

     The department shall adopt rules and regulations that are reasonably necessary to

implement a program of mental health services for seriously, emotionally disturbed children.

     Each community, as defined in chapter 7 of title 16, shall contribute to the department, at

least in accordance with rules and regulations to be adopted by the department, at least its average

per-pupil cost for special education for the year in which placement commences, as its share of

the cost of educational services furnished to a seriously, emotionally disturbed child pursuant to

this section in a residential treatment program which includes the delivery of educational services.

     "Seriously, emotionally disturbed child" means any person under the age of eighteen (18)

years, or any person under the age of twenty-one (21) years, who began to receive services from

the department prior to attaining eighteen (18) years of age and has continuously received those

services thereafter; who has been diagnosed as having an emotional, behavioral, or mental

disorder under the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual and that disability has

been on-going for one year or more or has the potential of being ongoing for one year or more;

and the child is in need of multi-agency intervention; and the child is in an out-of-home

placement or is at risk of placement because of the disability.

     A child with a "functional, developmental disability" means any person under the age of

eighteen (18) years or any person under the age of twenty-one (21) years who began to receive

services from the department prior to attaining eighteen (18) years of age and has continuously

received those services thereafter.

     The term "functional, developmental disability" includes autism spectrum disorders and

means a severe, chronic disability of a person that:

     (A) Is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or combination of mental physical

impairments;

     (B) Is manifested before the person attains age eighteen (18);

     (C) Is likely to continue indefinitely;

     (D) Results in age-appropriate, substantial, functional limitations in three (3) or more of

the following areas of major life activity.

     (I) Self-care;

     (II) Receptive and expressive language;

     (III) Learning;

     (IV) Mobility;

     (V) Self direction;

     (VI) Capacity for independent living; and

     (VII) Economic self-sufficiency; and

     (E) Reflects the person's need for a combination and sequence of special,

interdisciplinary, or generic care, treatment, or other services that are of life-long or extended

duration and are individually planned and coordinated.

     Funding for these clients shall include funds that are transferred to the department of

human services as part of the managed health-care-program transfer. However, the expenditures

relating to these clients shall not be part of the department of human services' caseload estimated

for the semi-annual, caseload-estimating conference. The expenditures shall be accounted for

separately;

     (25) To provide access to services to any person under the age of eighteen (18) years, or

any person under the age of twenty-one (21) years who began to receive child-welfare services

from the department prior to attaining eighteen (18) years of age, has continuously received those

services thereafter, and elects to continue to receive such services after attaining the age of

eighteen (18) years. The general assembly has included funding in the FY 2008 DCYF

department of children, youth and families budget in the amount of $10.5 million from all sources

of funds and $6.0 million from general revenues to provide a managed system to care for children

serviced between 18 to 21 years of age. The department shall manage this caseload to this level of

funding;

     (26) To initiate transition planning in cooperation with the department of behavioral

healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals and local school departments for any child

who receives services through DCYF the department of children, youth and families; is seriously,

emotionally disturbed or developmentally delayed pursuant to paragraph (b)(24)(v); and whose

care may or shall be administered by the department of behavioral healthcare, developmental

disabilities and hospitals after the age of twenty-one (21) years; the transition planning shall

commence at least twelve (12) months prior to the person's twenty-first birthday and shall result

in a collaborative plan submitted to the family court by both the department of behavioral

healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals and the department of children, youth and

families and shall require the approval of the court prior to the dismissal of the abuse, neglect,

dependency, or miscellaneous petition before the child's twenty-first birthday;

     (27) To develop and maintain, in collaboration with other state and private agencies, a

comprehensive continuum of care in this state for children in the care and custody of the

department or at risk of being in state care. This continuum of care should be family centered and

community based with the focus of maintaining children safely within their families or, when a

child cannot live at home, within as close proximity to home as possible based on the needs of the

child and resource availability. The continuum should include community-based prevention,

family support, and crisis-intervention services, as well as a full array of foster care and

residential services, including residential services designed to meet the needs of children who are

seriously, emotionally disturbed, children who have a functional, developmental disability, and

youth who have juvenile justice issues. The director shall make reasonable efforts to provide a

comprehensive continuum of care for children in the care and custody of the DCYF department

of children, youth and families, taking into account the availability of public and private resources

and financial appropriations and the director shall submit an annual report to the general assembly

as to the status of his or her efforts in accordance with the provisions of § 42-72-4(b)(13);

     (28) To administer funds under the John H. Chafee Foster Care Independence and

Educational and Training Voucher (ETV) Programs of Title IV-E of the Social Security Act [42

U.S.C. § 677] and the DCYF department of children, youth and families higher education

opportunity grant program as outlined in chapter 72.8 of title 42, in accordance with rules and

regulations as promulgated by the director of the department; and

     (29) To process nationwide, criminal-record checks on prospective foster parents and any

household member age 18 or older, prospective adoptive parents and any household member age

18 and older, operators of child-care facilities, persons seeking to act as volunteer court-appointed

special advocates, persons seeking employment in a child-care facility or at the training school

for youth or on behalf of any person seeking employment at the DCYF department of children,

youth and families, who are required to submit to nationwide, criminal-background checks as a

matter of law.

     (c) In order to assist in the discharge of his or her duties, the director may request from

any agency of the state information pertinent to the affairs and problems of children.

     (d) [Deleted by P.L. 2008, ch. 9, art. 16, § 2.]

     (e) [Deleted by P.L. 2008, ch. 9, art. 16, § 2.]


 

 

 

 

 

370)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-77-1

168 and 172

 

 

42-77-1. Commission established.

There shall be a minority groups advisory commission to consist of nine (9) members, all

of whom shall be members of minority groups; three (3) of whom shall be appointed by the

speaker of the house of representatives; three (3) of whom shall be appointed by the lieutenant

governor senate president; and three (3) of whom shall be appointed by the governor. The

commission shall establish, maintain, and develop cultural ties among various minority groups

located within the state; advise the governor and general assembly on any problem encountering

various groups of minorities, especially refugees; and foster a special interest in the historical and

cultural background of minority groups, as well as in the economic, political, social, and artistic

life of the countries involved.


 

 

371)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-159

397 and 420

 

 

CHAPTER 159

RHODE ISLAND SAILING EVENTS COMMISSION


 

 

372)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-3

453 and 467, 273 and 289, and 44

 

 

44-3-3. Property exempt.

     (a) The following property is exempt from taxation:

     (1) Property belonging to the state, except as provided in § 44-4-4.1;

     (2) Lands ceded or belonging to the United States;

     (3) Bonds and other securities issued and exempted from taxation by the government of

the United States or of this state;

     (4) Real estate, used exclusively for military purposes, owned by chartered or

incorporated organizations approved by the adjutant general and composed of members of the

national guard, the naval militia, or the independent chartered-military organizations;

     (5) Buildings for free public schools, buildings for religious worship, and the land upon

which they stand and immediately surrounding them, to an extent not exceeding five (5) acres so

far as the buildings and land are occupied and used exclusively for religious or educational

purposes;

     (6) Dwellings houses and the land on which they stand, not exceeding one acre in size, or

the minimum lot size for zone in which the dwelling house is located, whichever is the greater,

owned by, or held in trust for, any religious organization and actually used by its officiating

clergy; provided, further, that in the town of Charlestown, where the property previously

described in this paragraph is exempt in total, along with dwelling houses and the land on which

they stand in Charlestown, not exceeding one acre in size, or the minimum lot size for zone in

which the dwelling house is located, whichever is the greater, owned by, or held in trust for, any

religious organization and actually used by its officiating clergy, or used as a convent, nunnery, or

retreat center by its religious order;

     (7) Intangible personal property owned by, or held in trust for, any religious or charitable

organization, if the principal or income is used or appropriated for religious or charitable

purposes;

     (8) Buildings and personal estate owned by any corporation used for a school, academy,

or seminary of learning, and of any incorporated public charitable institution, and the land upon

which the buildings stand and immediately surrounding them to an extent not exceeding one acre,

so far as they are used exclusively for educational purposes, but no property or estate whatever is

hereafter exempt from taxation in any case where any part of its income or profits, or of the

business carried on there, is divided among its owners or stockholders; provided, however, that

unless any private nonprofit corporation organized as a college or university located in the town

of Smithfield reaches a memorandum of agreement with the town of Smithfield, the town of

Smithfield shall bill the actual costs for police, fire, and rescue services supplied, unless

otherwise reimbursed, to said corporation commencing March 1, 2014;

     (9) Estates, persons, and families of the president and professors for the time being of

Brown University for not more than ten thousand dollars ($10,000) for each officer, the officer's

estate, person, and family included, but only to the extent that any person had claimed and

utilized the exemption prior to, and for a period ending, either on or after December 31, 1996;

     (10) Property especially exempt by charter unless the exemption has been waived in

whole or in part;

     (11) Lots of land exclusively for burial grounds;

     (12) Property, real and personal, held for, or by, an incorporated library, society, or any

free public library, or any free public library society, so far as the property is held exclusively for

library purposes, or for the aid or support of the aged poor, or poor friendless children, or the poor

generally, or for a nonprofit hospital for the sick or disabled;

     (13) Real or personal estate belonging to, or held in trust for, the benefit of incorporated

organizations of veterans of any war in which the United States has been engaged, the parent

body of which has been incorporated by act of Congress, to the extent of four hundred thousand

dollars ($400,000) if actually used and occupied by the association; provided, that the city council

of the city of Cranston may by ordinance exempt the real or personal estate as previously

described in this subdivision located within the city of Cranston to the extent of five hundred

thousand dollars ($500,000);

     (14) Property, real and personal, held for, or by, the fraternal corporation, association, or

body created to build and maintain a building or buildings for its meetings or the meetings of the

general assembly of its members, or subordinate bodies of the fraternity, and for the

accommodation of other fraternal bodies or associations, the entire net income of which real and

personal property is exclusively applied or to be used to build, furnish, and maintain an asylum or

asylums, a home or homes, a school or schools, for the free education or relief of the members of

the fraternity, or the relief, support, and care of worthy and indigent members of the fraternity,

their wives, widows, or orphans, and any fund given or held for the purpose of public education,

almshouses, and the land and buildings used in connection therewith;

     (15) Real estate and personal property of any incorporated volunteer fire engine company

or incorporated volunteer ambulance or rescue corps in active service;

     (16) The estate of any person who, in the judgment of the assessors, is unable from

infirmity or poverty to pay the tax; provided, that in the town of Burrillville, the tax shall

constitute a lien for five (5) years on the property where the owner is entitled to the exemption. At

the expiration of five (5) years, the lien shall be abated in full. Provided, if the property is sold or

conveyed, or if debt secured by the property is refinanced during the five-year (5) period, the lien

immediately becomes due and payable; any person claiming the exemption aggrieved by an

adverse decision of an assessor shall appeal the decision to the local board of tax review and

thereafter according to the provisions of § 44-5-26;

     (17) Household furniture and family stores of a housekeeper in the whole, including

clothing, bedding, and other white goods, books, and all other tangible personal property items

that are common to the normal household;

     (18) Improvements made to any real property to provide a shelter and fallout protection

from nuclear radiation, to the amount of one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500); provided,

that the improvements meet applicable standards for shelter construction established, from time to

time, by the Rhode Island emergency management agency. The improvements are deemed to

comply with the provisions of any building code or ordinance with respect to the materials or the

methods of construction used and any shelter or its establishment is deemed to comply with the

provisions of any zoning code or ordinance;

     (19) Aircraft for which the fee required by § 1-4-6 has been paid to the tax administrator;

     (20) Manufacturer's inventory.

     (i) For the purposes of §§ 44-4-10, 44-5-3, 44-5-20, and 44-5-38, a person is deemed to

be a manufacturer within a city or town within this state if that person uses any premises, room,

or place in it primarily for the purpose of transforming raw materials into a finished product for

trade through any or all of the following operations: adapting, altering, finishing, making, and

ornamenting; provided, that public utilities; non-regulated power producers commencing

commercial operation by selling electricity at retail or taking title to generating facilities on or

after July 1, 1997; building and construction contractors; warehousing operations, including

distribution bases or outlets of out-of-state manufacturers; and fabricating processes incidental to

warehousing or distribution of raw materials, such as alteration of stock for the convenience of a

customer; are excluded from this definition;

     (ii) For the purposes of §§ 44-3-3, 44-4-10, and 44-5-38, the term "manufacturer's

inventory", or any similar term, means and includes the manufacturer's raw materials, the

manufacturer's work in process, and finished products manufactured by the manufacturer in this

state, and not sold, leased, or traded by the manufacturer or its title or right to possession

divested; provided, that the term does not include any finished products held by the manufacturer

in any retail store or other similar selling place operated by the manufacturer whether or not the

retail establishment is located in the same building in which the manufacturer operates the

manufacturing plant;

     (iii) For the purpose of § 44-11-2, a "manufacturer" is a person whose principal business

in this state consists of transforming raw materials into a finished product for trade through any or

all of the operations described in paragraph (i) of this subdivision. A person will be deemed to be

principally engaged if the gross receipts that person derived from the manufacturing operations in

this state during the calendar year or fiscal year mentioned in § 44-11-1 amounted to more than

fifty percent (50%) of the total gross receipts that person derived from all the business activities

in which that person engaged in this state during the taxable year. For the purpose of computing

the percentage, gross receipts derived by a manufacturer from the sale, lease, or rental of finished

products manufactured by the manufacturer in this state, even though the manufacturer's store or

other selling place may be at a different location from the location of the manufacturer's

manufacturing plant in this state, are deemed to have been derived from manufacturing;

     (iv) Within the meaning of the preceding paragraphs of this subdivision, the term

"manufacturer" also includes persons who are principally engaged in any of the general activities

coded and listed as establishments engaged in manufacturing in the Standard Industrial

Classification Manual prepared by the Technical Committee on Industrial Classification, Office

of Statistical Standards, Executive Office of the President, United States Bureau of the Budget, as

revised from time to time, but eliminating as manufacturers those persons, who, because of their

limited type of manufacturing activities, are classified in the manual as falling within the trade

rather than an industrial classification of manufacturers. Among those thus eliminated, and

accordingly also excluded as manufacturers within the meaning of this paragraph, are persons

primarily engaged in selling, to the general public, products produced on the premises from which

they are sold, such as neighborhood bakeries, candy stores, ice cream parlors, shade shops, and

custom tailors, except, that a person who manufactures bakery products for sale primarily for

home delivery, or through one or more non-baking retail outlets, and whether or not retail outlets

are operated by the person, is a manufacturer within the meaning of this paragraph;

     (v) The term "Person" means and includes, as appropriate, a person, partnership, or

corporation; and

     (vi) The department of revenue shall provide to the local assessors any assistance that is

necessary in determining the proper application of the definitions in this subdivision;

     (21) Real and tangible personal property acquired to provide a treatment facility used

primarily to control the pollution or contamination of the waters or the air of the state, as defined

in chapter 12 of title 46 and chapter 25 of title 23, respectively, the facility having been

constructed, reconstructed, erected, installed, or acquired in furtherance of federal or state

requirements or standards for the control of water or air pollution or contamination, and certified

as approved in an order entered by the director of environmental management. The property is

exempt as long as it is operated properly in compliance with the order of approval of the director

of environmental management; provided, that any grant of the exemption by the director of

environmental management in excess of ten (10) years is approved by the city or town in which

the property is situated. This provision applies only to water and air pollution control properties

and facilities installed for the treatment of waste waters and air contaminants resulting from

industrial processing; furthermore, it applies only to water or air pollution control properties and

facilities placed in operation for the first time after April 13, 1970;

     (22) New manufacturing machinery and equipment acquired or used by a manufacturer

and purchased after December 31, 1974. Manufacturing machinery and equipment is defined as:

     (i) Machinery and equipment used exclusively in the actual manufacture or conversion of

raw materials or goods in the process of manufacture by a manufacturer, as defined in subdivision

(20), and machinery, fixtures, and equipment used exclusively by a manufacturer for research and

development or for quality assurance of its manufactured products;

     (ii) Machinery and equipment that is partially used in the actual manufacture or

conversion of raw materials or goods in process of manufacture by a manufacturer, as defined in

subdivision (20), and machinery, fixtures, and equipment used by a manufacturer for research and

development or for quality assurance of its manufactured products, to the extent to which the

machinery and equipment is used for the manufacturing processes, research and development, or

quality assurance. In the instances where machinery and equipment is used in both manufacturing

and/or research and development and/or quality assurance activities and non-manufacturing

activities, the assessment on machinery and equipment is prorated by applying the percentage of

usage of the equipment for the manufacturing, research and development, and quality-assurance

activity to the value of the machinery and equipment for purposes of taxation, and the portion of

the value used for manufacturing, research and development, and quality assurance is exempt

from taxation. The burden of demonstrating this percentage usage of machinery and equipment

for manufacturing and for research and development and/or quality assurance of its manufactured

products rests with the manufacturer; and

     (iii) Machinery and equipment described in §§ 44-18-30(7) and 44-18-30(22) that was

purchased after July 1, 1997; provided that the city or town council of the city or town in which

the machinery and equipment is located adopts an ordinance exempting the machinery and

equipment from taxation. For purposes of this subsection, city councils and town councils of any

municipality may, by ordinance, wholly or partially exempt from taxation the machinery and

equipment discussed in this subsection for the period of time established in the ordinance and

may, by ordinance, establish the procedures for taxpayers to avail themselves of the benefit of

any exemption permitted under this section; provided, that the ordinance does not apply to any

machinery or equipment of a business, subsidiary, or any affiliated business that locates or

relocates from a city or town in this state to another city or town in the state;

     (23) Precious metal bullion, meaning any elementary metal that has been put through a

process of melting or refining, and that is in a state or condition that its value depends upon its

content and not its form. The term does not include fabricated precious metal that has been

processed or manufactured for some one or more specific and customary industrial, professional,

or artistic uses;

     (24) Hydroelectric power-generation equipment, which includes, but is not limited to,

turbines, generators, switchgear, controls, monitoring equipment, circuit breakers, transformers,

protective relaying, bus bars, cables, connections, trash racks, headgates, and conduits. The

hydroelectric power-generation equipment must have been purchased after July 1, 1979, and

acquired or used by a person or corporation who or that owns or leases a dam and utilizes the

equipment to generate hydroelectric power;

     (25) Subject to authorization by formal action of the council of any city or town, any real

or personal property owned by, held in trust for, or leased to an organization incorporated under

chapter 6 of title 7, as amended, or an organization meeting the definition of "charitable trust" set

out in § 18-9-4, as amended, or an organization incorporated under the not-for-profits statutes of

another state or the District of Columbia, the purpose of which is the conserving of open space, as

that term is defined in chapter 36 of title 45, as amended, provided the property is used

exclusively for the purposes of the organization;

     (26) Tangible personal property, the primary function of which is the recycling, reuse, or

recovery of materials (other than precious metals, as defined in § 44-18-30(24)(ii) and (iii)), from,

or the treatment of "hazardous wastes", as defined in § 23-19.1-4, where the "hazardous wastes"

are generated primarily by the same taxpayer and where the personal property is located at, in, or

adjacent to a generating facility of the taxpayer. The taxpayer may, but need not, procure an order

from the director of the department of environmental management certifying that the tangible

personal property has this function, which order effects a conclusive presumption that the tangible

personal property qualifies for the exemption under this subdivision. If any information relating

to secret processes or methods of manufacture, production, or treatment is disclosed to the

department of environmental management only to procure an order, and is a "trade secret" as

defined in § 28-21-10(b), it shall not be open to public inspection or publicly disclosed unless

disclosure is otherwise required under chapter 21 of title 28 or chapter 24.4 of title 23;

     (27) Motorboats as defined in § 46-22-2 for which the annual fee required in § 46-22-4

has been paid;

     (28) Real and personal property of the Providence Performing Arts Center, a non-

business corporation as of December 31, 1986;

     (29) Tangible personal property owned by, and used exclusively for the purposes of, any

religious organization located in the city of Cranston;

     (30) Real and personal property of the Travelers Aid Society of Rhode Island, a nonprofit

corporation, the Union Mall Real Estate Corporation, and any limited partnership or limited

liability company that is formed in connection with, or to facilitate the acquisition of, the

Providence YMCA Building;

     (31) Real and personal property of Meeting Street Center or MSC Realty, Inc., both not-

for-profit Rhode Island corporations, and any other corporation, limited partnership, or limited

liability company that is formed in connection with, or to facilitate the acquisition of, the

properties designated as the Meeting Street National Center of Excellence on Eddy Street in

Providence, Rhode Island;

     (32) The buildings, personal property, and land upon which the buildings stand, located

on Pomham Island, East Providence, currently identified as Assessor's Map 211, Block 01, Parcel

001.00, that consists of approximately twenty-one thousand three hundred (21,300) square feet

and is located approximately eight hundred sixty feet (860'), more or less, from the shore, and

limited exclusively to these said buildings, personal estate and land, provided that said property is

owned by a qualified 501(c)(3) organization, such as the American Lighthouse Foundation, and is

used exclusively for a lighthouse;

     (33) The Stadium Theatre Performing Arts Centre building located in Monument Square,

Woonsocket, Rhode Island, so long as said Stadium Theatre Performing Arts Center is owned by

the Stadium Theatre Foundation, a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (34) Real and tangible personal property of St. Mary Academy -- Bay View, located in

East Providence, Rhode Island;

     (35) Real and personal property of East Bay Community Action Program and its

predecessor, Self Help, Inc; provided, that the organization is qualified as a tax-exempt

corporation under § 501(c)(3) of the United States Internal Revenue Code;

     (36) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of the

Columbus Club of East Providence, a Rhode Island charitable nonprofit corporation;

     (37) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of the

Columbus Club of Barrington, a Rhode Island charitable nonprofit corporation;

     (38) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of Lodge 2337

BPO Elks, a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (39) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of the St.

Andrews Lodge No. 39, a Rhode Island charitable nonprofit corporation;

     (40) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of the Trustees

of Methodist Health and Welfare service a/k/a United Methodist Elder Care, a Rhode Island

nonprofit corporation;

     (41) Real and personal property located on the first floor of 90 Leonard Avenue within

the city of East Providence of the Zion Gospel Temple, Inc., a religious nonprofit corporation;

     (42) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of the Cape

Verdean Museum Exhibit, a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (43) The real and personal property owned by a qualified 501(c)(3) organization that is

affiliated and in good standing with a national, congressionally chartered organization and

thereby adheres to that organization's standards and provides activities designed for recreational,

educational, and character building purposes for children from ages six (6) years to seventeen

(17) years;

     (44) Real and personal property of the Rhode Island Philharmonic Orchestra and Music

School; provided, that the organization is qualified as a tax-exempt corporation under § 501(c)(3)

of the United States Internal Revenue Code;

     (45) The real and personal property located within the town of West Warwick at 211

Cowesett Avenue, Plat 29-Lot 25, which consists of approximately twenty-eight thousand seven

hundred fifty (28,750) square feet and is owned by the Station Fire Memorial Foundation of East

Greenwich, a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (46) Real and personal property of the Comprehensive Community Action Program, a

qualified tax-exempt corporation under § 501(c)(3) of the United States Internal Revenue Code;

     (47) Real and personal property located at 52 Plain Street, within the city of Pawtucket of

the Pawtucket Youth Soccer Association, a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (48) Renewable energy resources, as defined in § 39-26-5, used in residential systems

and associated equipment used therewith in service after December 31, 2015;

     (49) Renewable energy resources, as defined in § 39-26-5, if employed by a

manufacturer, as defined in § 44-3-3(a), shall be exempt from taxation in accordance with § 44-3-

3(a);

     (50) Real and personal property located at 415 Tower Hill Road within the town of North

Kingstown, of South County Community Action, Inc., a qualified tax-exempt corporation under §

501(c)(3) of the United States Internal Revenue Code;

     (51) As an effort to promote business growth, tangible business or personal property, in

whole or in part, within the town of Charlestown's community limits, subject to authorization by

formal action of the town council of the town of Charlestown;

     (52) All real and personal property located at 1300 Frenchtown Road, within the town of

East Greenwich, identified as assessor's map 027, plat 019, lot 071, and known as the New

England Wireless and Steam Museum, Inc., a qualified tax-exempt corporation under § 501(c)(3)

of the United States Internal Revenue Code;

     (53) Real and tangible personal property of Mount Saint Charles Academy located within

the city of Woonsocket, specifically identified as the following assessor's plats and lots: Logee

Street, plat 23, lot 62, Logee Street, plat 24, lots 304 and 305; Welles Street, plat 23, lot 310;

Monroe Street, plat 23, lot 312; and Roberge Avenue, plat 24, lot 47;

     (54) Real and tangible personal property of Steere House, a Rhode Island nonprofit

corporation, located in Providence, Rhode Island;

     (55) Real and personal property located within the town of West Warwick of Tides

Family Services, Inc., a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (56) Real and personal property of Tides Family Services, Inc., a Rhode Island nonprofit

corporation, located in the city of Pawtucket at 242 Dexter Street, plat 44, lot 444;

     (57) Real and personal property located within the town of Middletown of Lucy's Hearth,

a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation; and

     (58) Real and tangible personal property of Habitat for Humanity of Rhode Island--

Greater Providence, Inc., a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation, located in Providence, Rhode

Island. ; and

     (59)(61) Real and personal property of The Samaritans, Inc., a Rhode Island nonprofit

§501(c)(3) corporation located at 67 Park Place, Pawtucket, Rhode Island, to the extent the city

council of Pawtucket may from time to time determine.

     (b) Except as provided below, when a city or town taxes a for-profit hospital facility, the

value of its real property shall be the value determined by the most recent full revaluation or

statistical property update performed by the city or town; provided, however, in the year a

nonprofit hospital facility converts to or otherwise becomes a for-profit hospital facility, or a for-

profit hospital facility is initially established, the value of the real property and personal property

of the for-profit hospital facility shall be determined by a valuation performed by the assessor for

the purpose of determining an initial assessed value of real and personal property, not previously

taxed by the city or town, as of the most recent date of assessment pursuant to § 44-5-1, subject to

a right of appeal by the for-profit hospital facility which shall be made to the city or town tax

assessor with a direct appeal from an adverse decision to the Rhode Island superior court business

calendar.

     A "for-profit hospital facility" includes all real and personal property affiliated with any hospital

as identified in an application filed pursuant to chapters 23-17 and/or 23-17.14 17 or 17.14 of title 23.

Notwithstanding the above, a city or town may enter into a stabilization agreement with a for-

profit hospital facility under § 44-3-9 or other laws specific to the particular city or town relating

to stabilization agreements. In a year in which a nonprofit hospital facility converts to, or

otherwise becomes, a for-profit hospital facility, or a for-profit hospital facility is otherwise

established, in that year only the amount levied by the city or town and/or the amount payable

under the stabilization agreement for that year related to the for-profit hospital facility shall not be

counted towards determining the maximum tax levy permitted under § 44-5-2.

44-3-3. Property exempt.

 (59)(60) Real and personal property located at 321 Main Street, within the town of South

Kingstown, of the Contemporary Theatre Company, a qualified, tax-exempt corporation under

§501(c)(3) of the United States Internal Revenue Code.

44-3-3. Property exempt.

    (59) Real and personal property of the Artic Playhouse, a Rhode Island nonprofit

corporation, located in the town of West Warwick at 1249 Main Street.


 

 

373)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-4

457 and 472, 75 and 99

 

 

44-3-4. Veterans' exemptions.

     (a) (1) The property of each person who served in the military or naval service of the

United States in the war of the rebellion, the Spanish-American war, the insurrection in the

Philippines, the China-relief expedition, or World War I, and the property of each person who

served in the military or naval service of the United States in World War II at any time during the

period beginning December 7, 1941, and ending on December 31, 1946, and the property of each

person who served in the military or naval services of the United States in the Korean conflict at

any time during the period beginning June 27, 1950, and ending January 31, 1955, or in the

Vietnam conflict at any time during the period beginning February 28, 1961, and ending May 7,

1975, or who actually served in the Grenada or Lebanon conflicts of 1983-1984, or the Persian

Gulf conflict, the Haitian conflict, the Somalian conflict, and the Bosnian conflict, at any time

during the period beginning August 2, 1990, and ending May 1, 1994, or in any conflict or

undeclared war for which a campaign ribbon or expeditionary medal was earned, and who was

honorably discharged from the service, or who was discharged under conditions other than

dishonorable, or who, if not discharged, served honorably, or the property of the unmarried

widow or widower of that person, is exempted from taxation to the amount of one thousand

dollars ($1,000), except in:

     (i) Burrillville, where the exemption is four thousand dollars ($4,000);

     (ii) Cumberland, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

a maximum of twenty-three thousand seven hundred seventy-two dollars ($23,772);

     (iii) Cranston, where the exemption shall not exceed three thousand dollars ($3,000);

     (iv) Jamestown, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption not

exceeding five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (v) Lincoln, where the exemption shall not exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000); and

where the town council may also provide for a real estate tax exemption not exceeding ten

thousand dollars ($10,000) for those honorably discharged active duty veterans who served in

Operation Desert Storm;

     (vi) Newport, where the exemption is four thousand dollars ($4,000);

     (vii) New Shoreham, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption of a maximum of thirty-six thousand four hundred fifty dollars ($36,450);

     (viii) North Kingstown, where the exemption is ten thousand dollars ($10,000);

     (ix) North Providence, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption of a maximum of five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (x) [As amended by P.L. 2015, ch. 168, § 1]. Smithfield, where the exemption is ten

thousand dollars ($10,000);

     (x) [As amended by P.L. 2015, ch. 179, § 1]. Smithfield, where the exemption is four

thousand dollars ($4,000). Provided, effective July 1, 2016, the Smithfield town council may, by

ordinance, provide for an exemption of a maximum of ten thousand dollars ($10,000);

     (xi) Warren, where the exemption shall not exceed five thousand five hundred dollars

($5,500) on motor vehicles, or nine thousand five hundred eighty-four dollars ($9,584) on real

property;

     (xii) Westerly, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide an exemption of the

total value of the veterans' real and personal property to a maximum of forty thousand five

hundred dollars ($40,500);

     (xiii) Barrington, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

six thousand dollars ($6,000) for real property;

     (xiv) Exeter, where the exemption is five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (xv) Glocester, where the exemption shall not exceed thirty thousand dollars ($30,000);

     (xvi) West Warwick, where the city council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption

of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000);

     (xvii) Warwick, where the city council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of four thousand dollars ($4,000);

     (xviii) [As added by P.L 2016, ch. 238, § 1]. Charlestown, where the town council may,

by ordinance, provide for an additional exemption of a maximum of one hundred fifty dollars

($150) to any veteran of the United States armed services, regardless of their qualified service

dates, who was honorably discharged, or to the unmarried widow or widower of that person who

is not currently receiving this statutory exemption;

     (xix) [As added by P.L 2016, ch. 268, § 1]. Charlestown, where the town council may, by

ordinance, provide for an additional tax credit of one hundred fifty dollars ($150) to any veteran

of the United States armed services, regardless of their qualified service dates, who was

honorably discharged, or to the unmarried widow or widower of that person who is not currently

receiving this statutory exemption; and

     (xx) Narragansett, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption

of a maximum of twenty thousand dollars ($20,000) from the assessed value of real property, or

twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) from the assessed value of a motor vehicle.

     (2) The exemption is applied to the property in the municipality where the person resides,

and if there is not sufficient property to exhaust the exemption, the person may claim the balance

in any other city or town where the person may own property; provided, that the exemption is not

allowed in favor of any person who is not a legal resident of the state, or unless the person

entitled to the exemption has presented to the assessors, on or before the last day on which sworn

statements may be filed with the assessors for the year for which exemption is claimed, evidence

that he or she is entitled, which evidence shall stand so long as his or her legal residence remains

unchanged; provided, however, that in the town of South Kingstown, the person entitled to the

exemption shall present to the assessors, at least five (5) days prior to the certification of the tax

roll, evidence that he or she is entitled to the exemption; and, provided, further, that the

exemption provided for in this subdivision to the extent that it applies in any city or town, shall be

applied in full to the total value of the person's real and tangible personal property located in the

city or town; and, provided, that there is an additional exemption from taxation in the amount of

one thousand dollars ($1,000), except in:

     (i) Central Falls, where the city council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500);

     (ii) Cranston, where the exemption shall not exceed three thousand dollars ($3,000);

     (iii) Cumberland, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

a maximum of twenty-two thousand five hundred dollars ($22,500);

     (iv) Lincoln, where the exemption shall not exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000);

     (v) Newport, where the exemption is four thousand dollars ($4,000);

     (vi) New Shoreham, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption of a maximum of thirty-six thousand four hundred fifty dollars ($36,450);

     (vii) North Providence, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption of a maximum of five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (viii) Smithfield, where the exemption is four thousand dollars ($4,000);

     (ix) Warren, where the exemption shall not exceed eleven thousand dollars ($11,000);

and

     (x) Barrington, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

six thousand dollars ($6,000) for real property; of the property of every honorably discharged

veteran of World War I or World War II, Korean or Vietnam, Grenada or Lebanon conflicts, the

Persian Gulf conflict, the Haitian conflict, the Somalian conflict and the Bosnian conflict at any

time during the period beginning August 2, 1990, and ending May 1, 1994, or in any conflict or

undeclared war for which a campaign ribbon or expeditionary medal was earned, who is

determined by the Veterans Administration of the United States of America to be totally disabled

through service connected disability and who presents to the assessors a certificate from the

veterans administration that the person is totally disabled, which certificate remains effectual so

long as the total disability continues.

     (3) Provided, that:

     (i) Burrillville may exempt real property of the totally disabled persons in the amount of

six thousand dollars ($6,000);

     (ii) Cumberland town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of twenty-two thousand five hundred dollars ($22,500);

     (iii) Little Compton may, by ordinance, exempt real property of each of the totally

disabled persons in the amount of six thousand dollars ($6,000);

     (iv) Middletown may exempt the real property of each of the totally disabled persons in

the amount of five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (v) New Shoreham town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of thirty-six thousand four hundred fifty dollars ($36,450);

     (vi) North Providence town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (vii) Tiverton town council may, by ordinance, exempt real property of each of the totally

disabled persons in the amount of five thousand dollars ($5,000), subject to voters' approval at the

financial town meeting;

     (viii) West Warwick town council may exempt the real property of each of the totally

disabled persons in an amount of two hundred dollars ($200); and

     (ix) Westerly town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption on the total

value of real and personal property to a maximum of forty-six thousand five hundred dollars

($46,500).

     (4) There is an additional exemption from taxation in the town of:

     Warren, where its town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption not

exceeding eight thousand two hundred fifty dollars ($8,250), of the property of every honorably

discharged veteran of World War I or World War II, or Vietnam, Grenada or Lebanon conflicts,

the Persian Gulf conflict, the Haitian conflict, the Somalian conflict and the Bosnian conflict, at

any time during the period beginning August 2, 1990, and ending May 1, 1994, or in any conflict

or undeclared war for which a campaign ribbon or expeditionary medal was earned, who is

determined by the Veterans' Administration of the United States of America to be partially

disabled through a service connected disability and who presents to the assessors a certificate that

he is partially disabled, which certificate remains effectual so long as the partial disability

continues. Provided, however, that the Barrington town council may exempt real property of each

of the above named persons in the amount of three thousand dollars ($3,000); Warwick city

council may, by ordinance, exempt real property of each of the above-named persons and to any

person who served in any capacity in the military or naval service during the period of time of the

Persian Gulf conflict, whether or not the person served in the geographical location of the

conflict, in the amount of four thousand dollars ($4,000).

     (5) Lincoln . There is an additional exemption from taxation in the town of Lincoln for

the property of each person who actually served in the military or naval service of the United

States in the Persian Gulf conflict and who was honorably discharged from the service, or who

was discharged under conditions other than dishonorable, or who, if not discharged, served

honorably, or of the unmarried widow or widower of that person. The exemption shall be

determined by the town council in an amount not to exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000).

     (b) In addition to the exemption provided in subsection (a) of this section, there is a ten-

thousand dollar ($10,000) exemption from local taxation on real property for any veteran and the

unmarried widow or widower of a deceased veteran of the military or naval service of the United

States who is determined, under applicable federal law by the Veterans Administration of the

United States, to be totally disabled through service-connected disability and who, by reason of

the disability, has received assistance in acquiring "specially adopted housing" under laws

administered by the veterans' administration; provided, that the real estate is occupied as his or

her domicile by the person; and, provided, that if the property is designed for occupancy by more

than one family, then only that value of so much of the house as is occupied by the person as his

or her domicile is exempted; and, provided, that satisfactory evidence of receipt of the assistance

is furnished to the assessors except in:

     (1) Cranston, where the exemption shall not exceed thirty thousand dollars ($30,000);

     (2) Cumberland, where the town council may provide for an exemption not to exceed

seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500);

     (3) Newport, where the exemption is ten thousand dollars ($10,000) or ten percent (10%)

of assessed valuation, whichever is greater;

     (4) New Shoreham, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption

of a maximum of thirty-six thousand four hundred fifty dollars ($36,450);

     (5) North Providence, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption not to exceed twelve thousand five hundred dollars ($12,500);

     (6) Westerly, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of forty thousand five hundred dollars ($40,500);

     (7) Lincoln, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000); and

     (8) Narragansett, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

a maximum of fifty thousand dollars ($50,000).

     (c) In addition to the previously provided exemptions, any veteran of the military or

naval service of the United States who is determined, under applicable federal law by the

Veterans' Administration of the United States to be totally disabled through service-connected

disability may, by ordinance, passed in the city or town where the veteran's property is assessed,

receive a ten thousand dollar ($10,000) exemption from local taxation on his or her property

whether real or personal and if the veteran owns real property may be exempt from taxation by

any fire and/or lighting district; provided, that in the town of: North Kingstown, where the

amount of the exemption shall be eleven thousand dollars ($11,000) commencing with the

December 31, 2002, assessment; and for the town of Westerly, where the amount of the

exemption shall be thirty-nine thousand dollars ($39,000) commencing with the December 31,

2005, assessment; and in the town of Cumberland, where the amount of the exemption shall not

exceed forty-seven thousand five hundred forty-four dollars ($47,544); and the town of

Narragansett, where the amount of the exemption shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars

($20,000) from the assessed value of real property or twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) from the

assessed value of a motor vehicle; and in the city of Cranston, commencing with the December

31, 2016, assessment, where the exemption will not exceed two hundred fifty thousand dollars

($250,000) and be extended to the unmarried widow or widower of such veteran.

     (d) In determining whether or not a person is the widow or widower of a veteran for the

purposes of this section, the remarriage of the widow or widower shall not bar the furnishing of

the benefits of the section if the remarriage is void, has been terminated by death, or has been

annulled or dissolved by a court of competent jurisdiction.

     (e) In addition to the previously provided exemptions, there may by ordinance passed in

the city or town where the person's property is assessed, be an additional fifteen thousand dollars

($15,000) exemption from local taxation on real and personal property for any veteran of military

or naval service of the United States or the unmarried widow or widower of person who has been

or shall be classified as, or determined to be, a prisoner of war by the Veterans' Administration of

the United States, except in:

     (1) Westerly, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of sixty-eight thousand dollars ($68,000);

     (2) Cumberland, where the town council may by ordinance provide for an exemption of a

maximum of forty-seven thousand five hundred forty-four dollars ($47,544); and

     (3) Narragansett, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

a maximum of forty thousand dollars ($40,000).

     (f) Cities and towns granting exemptions under this section shall use the eligibility dates

specified in this section.

     (g) The several cities and towns not previously authorized to provide an exemption for

those veterans who actually served in the Persian Gulf conflict may provide that exemption in the

amount authorized in this section for veterans of other recognized conflicts.

     (h) Bristol, where the town council of Bristol may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption for any veteran and the unmarried widow or widower of a deceased veteran of military

or naval service of the United States who is determined, under applicable federal law by the

Veterans' Administration of the United States to be partially disabled through service connected

disability.

     (i) In addition to the previously provided exemption, any veteran who is discharged from

the military or naval service of the United States under conditions other than dishonorable, or an

officer who is honorably separated from military or naval service, who is determined, under

applicable federal law by the Veterans Administration of the United States to be totally and

permanently disabled through a service-connected disability, who owns a specially adapted

homestead that has been acquired or modified with the assistance of a special adaptive housing

grant from the Veteran's Administration and that meets Veteran's Administration and Americans

with disability act guidelines from adaptive housing or that has been acquired or modified using

proceeds from the sale of any previous homestead that was acquired with the assistance of a

special adaptive housing grant from the veteran's administration, the person or the person's

surviving spouse is exempt from all taxation on the homestead. Provided, that in the town of

Westerly where the amount of the above referenced exemption shall be forty-six thousand five

hundred dollars ($46,500).

     (j) The town of Coventry may provide by ordinance a one thousand dollars ($1,000)

exemption for any person who is an active member of the armed forces of the United States.

     (k) The town of Scituate may provide by ordinance, in lieu of a tax exemption that grants

to all disabled veterans with a one hundred percent (100%) service-connected disability, a tax

credit in an amount to be determined from time to time by the town council.

44-3-4. Veterans' exemptions.

 (j) The town of Coventry may provide by ordinance a one thousand dollars ($1,000)

exemption for any person who is an active member of the armed forces of the United States.


 

 

374)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-5

75 and 99

 

 

44-3-5. Gold star parents' exemption.

     (a) The property of every person whose son or daughter has served with the armed forces

of the United States of America and has lost his or her life as a result of his or her service with the

armed forces of the United States of America, providing the death was determined to be in the

line of duty, shall be exempted from taxation to the amount of three thousand dollars ($3,000) in

accordance with similar provisions of § 44-3-4 applying to honorably discharged veterans of the

armed forces; provided, that there shall be but one exemption granted where both parents of the

deceased son or daughter are living; provided:

     (1) Cranston. The city of Cranston may provide, by ordinance, an exemption from

taxation not to exceed forty-five hundred dollars ($4,500);

     (2) Warren. The town of Warren may provide, by ordinance, an exemption from taxation

not to exceed nine thousand two hundred fifteen dollars ($9,215) nine thousand seven hundred

eighty-three dollars ($9,783);

     (3) Cumberland. The town of Cumberland may provide, by ordinance, an exemption not

to exceed twenty-three thousand seven hundred seventy-two dollars ($23,772) for persons

receiving a gold star exemption;

     (4) North Providence. The town of North Providence may provide, by ordinance, an

exemption not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for persons receiving a gold star

exemption;

     (5) Smithfield. The town of Smithfield may provide, by ordinance, an exemption not to

exceed six thousand dollars ($6,000) for persons receiving a gold star exemption;

     (6) Westerly. The town of Westerly may provide, by ordinance, an exemption on the total

value of real and personal property not to exceed forty-six thousand five hundred dollars

($46,500);

     (7) Barrington. The town of Barrington may provide, by ordinance, an exemption not to

exceed six thousand dollars ($6,000) for real property for persons receiving a gold star

exemption;

     (8) Jamestown. The town of Jamestown may provide, by ordinance, an exemption on the

total value of real and personal property not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (9) Lincoln. The town of Lincoln may provide, by ordinance, an exemption not to exceed

five thousand dollars ($5,000) for persons receiving a gold star exemption;

     (10) West Warwick. The town of West Warwick may provide by ordinance, an

exemption not to exceed two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225) for persons receiving a gold star

exemption; and

     (11) Narragansett. The town of Narragansett may provide, by ordinance, an exemption

not to exceed twenty thousand dollars ($20,000) from the assessed value of real property, or

twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) from the assessed value of a motor vehicle, for persons

receiving a gold star exemption.

     (b) The adjustment shall be made to reflect the same monetary savings that appeared on

the property tax bill that existed for the year prior to reevaluation of the real property. If any

provision of this section is held invalid, the remainder of this section and the application of its

provisions shall not be affected by that invalidity.


 

375)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-12

75 and 99, 270 and 359

 

 

44-3-12. Visually impaired persons -- Exemption.

     (a) The property of each person who has permanent impairment of both eyes of the

following status: persons who are legally blind according to federal standards as certified by a

licensed physician or as certified by the Rhode Island services for the blind and visually impaired

shall be exempted from taxation to the amount of six thousand dollars ($6,000), except for the

towns of:

     Tiverton. Which exemption shall be seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500); and

     Warren. Which exemption shall be up to thirty-eight thousand five hundred twenty

dollars ($38,520) forty thousand eight hundred ninety-five dollars ($40,895); and

     Barrington. Which exemption shall be sixteen thousand dollars ($16,000) for real

property. The exemption shall apply to the property in the municipality where the person resides,

and if there is not sufficient property to exhaust the exemption, the person may proclaim the

balance in any city or town where he or she may own property; except for the town of

Cumberland, which exemption shall be up to forty-seven thousand five hundred forty-four dollars

($47,544); and

     Westerly. Which may provide, by ordinance, an exemption on the total value of real and

personal property not to exceed twenty-nine thousand dollars ($29,000). The city or town council

of any city or town may, by ordinance, increase the exemption within the city or town to an

amount not to exceed twenty-two thousand five hundred dollars ($22,500). The exemption shall

not be allowed in favor of any person who is not a legal resident of the state, or unless the person

entitled to the exemption shall have presented to the assessors, on or before the last day on which

sworn statements may be filed with the assessors for the year for which exemption is claimed,

due evidence that he or she is so entitled, which evidence shall stand so long as his or her legal

residence remains unchanged. The exemption provided for in this section, to the extent that it

shall apply to any city or town, shall be applied in full to the total value of the person's real and

tangible personal property located in the city or town and shall be applied to intangible personal

property only to the extent that there is not sufficient real property or tangible personal property

to exhaust the exemption. This exemption shall be in addition to any other exemption provided by

law except as provided in § 44-3-25.

     West Warwick. Which exemption shall be equal to three hundred thirty-five dollars

($335).

     (b) In each city or town that has not increased the exemption provided by subsection (a)

above the minimum of six thousand dollars ($6,000), except for the towns of:

     Tiverton. Which exemption shall be seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500); and

     Barrington. Which exemption shall be sixteen thousand dollars ($16,000) for real

property. The exemption shall increase automatically each year by the same percentage as the

percentage increase in the total amount of taxes levied by the city or town. The automatic

increase shall not apply to cities or towns that have increased the exemption provided by

subsection (a) above the minimum of six thousand dollars ($6,000), except for the towns of:

     Tiverton. Which exemption shall be seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500); and

     Barrington. Which exemption shall be sixteen thousand dollars ($16,000) for real

property. If the application of the automatic increase to an exemption of six thousand dollars

($6,000) on a continuous basis from December 31, 1987, to any subsequent assessment date

would result in a higher exemption than the exemption enacted by the city or town council, then

the amount provided by the automatic increase applies.

44-3-12. Visually impaired persons -- Exemption.

 

 

     a) The property of each person who has permanent impairment of both eyes of the

following status: persons who are is legally blind according to federal standards as certified by a

licensed physician or as certified by the Rhode Island services for the blind and visually impaired

shall be exempted from taxation to the amount of six thousand dollars ($6,000), except for the

towns of:

     Tiverton. Which exemption shall be seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500); and

     Warren. Which exemption shall be up to thirty-eight thousand five hundred twenty

dollars ($38,520); and

     Barrington. Which exemption shall be sixteen thousand dollars ($16,000) for real

property. The exemption shall apply to the property in the municipality where the person resides,

and if there is not sufficient property to exhaust the exemption, the person may proclaim the

balance in any city or town where he or she may own property; except for the town of

Cumberland, which exemption shall be up to forty-seven thousand five hundred forty-four dollars

($47,544); and

     Westerly. Which may provide, by ordinance, an exemption on the total value of real and

personal property not to exceed twenty-nine thousand dollars ($29,000). The city or town council

of any city or town may, by ordinance, increase the exemption within the city or town to an

amount not to exceed twenty-two thousand five hundred dollars ($22,500). The exemption shall

not be allowed in favor of any person who is not a legal resident of the state, or unless the person

entitled to the exemption shall have presented to the assessors, on or before the last day on which

sworn statements may be filed with the assessors for the year for which exemption is claimed,

due evidence that he or she is so entitled, which evidence shall stand so long as his or her legal

residence remains unchanged. The exemption provided for in this section, to the extent that it

shall apply to any city or town, shall be applied in full to the total value of the person's real and

tangible personal property located in the city or town and shall be applied to intangible personal

property only to the extent that there is not sufficient real property or tangible personal property

to exhaust the exemption. This exemption shall be in addition to any other exemption provided by

law except as provided in § 44-3-25.

     West Warwick. Which exemption shall be equal to three hundred thirty-five dollars

($335).

     (b) In each city or town that has not increased the exemption provided by subsection (a)

above the minimum of six thousand dollars ($6,000), except for the towns of:

     Tiverton. Which exemption shall be seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500); and

     Barrington. Which exemption shall be sixteen thousand dollars ($16,000) for real

property. The exemption shall increase automatically each year by the same percentage as the

percentage increase in the total amount of taxes levied by the city or town. The automatic

increase shall not apply to cities or towns that have increased the exemption provided by

subsection (a) above the minimum of six thousand dollars ($6,000), except for the towns of:

     Tiverton. Which exemption shall be seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500); and

     Barrington. Which exemption shall be sixteen thousand dollars ($16,000) for real

property. If the application of the automatic increase to an exemption of six thousand dollars

($6,000) on a continuous basis from December 31, 1987, to any subsequent assessment date

would result in a higher exemption than the exemption enacted by the city or town council, then

the amount provided by the automatic increase applies.


 

 

 

 

376)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-13

75 and 99

 

 

44-3-13. Persons over the age of 65 years -- Exemption.

     (a) Bristol. The town of Bristol may exempt from taxation the real estate situated in the

town owned and occupied by any resident over the age of sixty-five (65) years, as of the

preceding December 31st; or, over the age of seventy (70) years, as of the preceding December

31st; or, over the age of seventy-five (75) years, as of the preceding December 31st, and which

exemption is in addition to any and all other exemptions from taxation to which the resident may

otherwise be entitled. The exemption shall be applied uniformly and without regard to ability to

pay. Only one exemption shall be granted to cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety,

even though all the cotenants, joint tenants and tenants by the entirety are sixty-five (65) years of

age or over as of the preceding December 31st. The exemption applies to a life tenant who has the

obligation for payment of the tax on real estate. The town council of the town of Bristol shall, by

ordinance, establish the value of this exemption.

     (b) Central Falls. The city of Central Falls may, by ordinance, exempt from taxation, real

or personal property located within the city of any person sixty-five (65) years or over, which

exemption shall be in an amount not exceeding seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500) of

valuation and which exemption is in addition to any and all other exemptions from taxation and

tax credits to which the person may be entitled by this chapter or any other provision of law.

     (c) Cranston.

     (1) The city council of the city of Cranston may, by ordinance, exempt from valuation for

taxation the real property situated in the city and owned and occupied by any person over the age

of sixty-five (65) years which exemption is in an amount not exceeding nine thousand dollars

($9,000) and which exemption is in addition to any and all other exemptions from taxation to

which the person may be otherwise entitled. The exemption shall be applied uniformly and

without regard to ability to pay.

     (2) The city council of the city of Cranston may, by ordinance, exempt from valuation for

taxation the property subject to the excise tax situated in the city and owned by any person over

the age of sixty-five (65) years, not owning real property, which exemption is in an amount not

exceeding three thousand dollars ($3,000) and which exemption is in addition to any and all other

exemptions from taxation to which the person may be otherwise entitled. The exemption shall be

applied uniformly and without regard to ability to pay.

     (d) East Greenwich. The town council of the town of East Greenwich may, by ordinance,

and upon any terms and conditions that it deems reasonable, exempt from taxation the real estate

situated in the town of East Greenwich owned and occupied by any resident of the age of sixty-

five (65) to seventy (70) years, as of the preceding December 31st up to an amount of twenty-six

thousand dollars ($26,000); or, of the age of seventy (70) to seventy-five (75) years, as of the

preceding December 31st up to an amount of thirty-four thousand dollars ($34,000); or, of the age

of seventy-five (75) to eighty (80) years, as of the preceding December 31st up to an amount of

forty-two thousand dollars ($42,000); or, of the age of eighty (80) to eighty-five (85) years, as of

the preceding December 31st up to an amount of fifty thousand dollars ($50,000); or, of the age

of eighty-five (85) years or more, as of the preceding December 31st up to an amount of fifty-

eight thousand dollars ($58,000), and which exemption is in addition to any and all other

exemptions from taxation to which the resident may otherwise be entitled. The exemption shall

be applied uniformly and without regard to ability to pay. Only one exemption shall be granted to

cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety, even though all the cotenants, joint tenants,

and tenants by the entirety are eligible for an exemption pursuant to this subsection. The

exemption applies to a life tenant who has the obligation for payment of the tax on real estate.

     (e) Lincoln. The town council of the town of Lincoln may, by ordinance, exempt from

taxation the real property, situated in said town, owned and occupied for a period of five (5) years

by any person over the age of sixty-five (65) years, which exemption shall be in an amount not

exceeding twenty-four thousand four hundred and forty dollars ($24,440) of valuation, and which

exemption shall be in addition to any and all other exemptions from taxation to which said person

may be otherwise entitled. Said exemption shall be applied uniformly and without regard to

ability to pay.

     (f) North Providence. The town council of the town of North Providence may, by

ordinance, exempt from valuation for taxation the real property located within the town of any

person sixty-five (65) years or over, which exemption is in amount not exceeding ten thousand

dollars ($10,000) of valuation and which exemption shall be in addition to any and all other

exemptions from taxation and tax credits to which the person may be entitled by this chapter or

any other provision of law.

     (g) Tiverton. The town council of the town of Tiverton may, by ordinance, exempt from

taxation the real property situated in the town owned and occupied by any person over the age of

sixty-five (65) years, and which exemption is in an amount not exceeding ten thousand dollars

($10,000) of valuation, and which exemption is in addition to any and all other exemptions from

taxation to which the person may be otherwise entitled. The exemption shall be applied uniformly

and without regard to ability to pay. Only one exemption shall be granted to cotenants, joint

tenants, and tenants by the entirety, even though all of the cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by

the entirety are sixty-five (65) years of age or over. The exemption applies to a life tenant who

has the obligation for the payment of the tax on real property.

     (h) Warren. The town council of the town of Warren may, by ordinance, exempt from

taxation the real property situated in the town owned and occupied by any person over the age of

sixty-five (65) years, and which exemption is in amount not exceeding twenty-eight thousand

eight hundred seventy-six dollars ($28,876) thirty thousand six hundred fifty-six dollars

($30,656) of valuation and which exemption is in addition to any and all other exemptions from

taxation to which the person may be otherwise entitled. The exemption shall be applied uniformly

and without regard to ability to pay. Only one exemption shall be granted to cotenants, joint

tenants, and tenants by the entirety, even though all of the cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by

the entirety are sixty-five (65) years of age or over. The exemption applies to a life tenant who

has the obligation for the payment of the tax on the real property.

     (i) Warwick. The finance director of the city of Warwick may, by ordinance, exempt

from taxation owner occupied residential real property or personal property located within the

city of any person sixty-five (65) years or over, which exemption is in an amount not exceeding

twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) of valuation and which exemption is in addition to any and all

other exemptions from taxation and tax credits to which the person may be entitled by this

chapter or any other provision of law.

     (j) Westerly. The town council of the town of Westerly may, by ordinance, exempt from

taxation a real property situated in the town owned and occupied for a period of five (5) years

next prior to filing of an application for a tax exemption, by any person over the age of sixty-five

(65) years, and which exemption is in an amount and pursuant to any income limitations that the

council may prescribe in the ordinance from time to time, and which exemption is in addition to

any and all other exemptions from taxation to which the person may be otherwise entitled. The

exemption shall be applied uniformly and without regard to ability to pay. Only one exemption

shall be granted to cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety, even though all of the

cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety are sixty-five (65) years of age or over. The

exemption applies to a life tenant who has the obligation for the payment of the tax on real

property.


 

 

377)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-13.14

287 and 298

 

 

44-3-13.14. Foster -- Exemption of elderly and disabled persons.

The town council of the town of Foster may, by ordinance, issue a tax credit for real

property situated in the town of Foster which that is owned and occupied by resident owners as

follows:

     (1) Any owner of an owner-occupied, single-family dwelling that  who has attained the age of

sixty-seven (67) years, or more, or who is totally disabled and who is a resident of the town of

Foster, as provided in said ordinance, shall be entitled to a tax credit equal to the lesser of:

     (i) Five hundred dollars ($500); or

     (ii) Any increase in the "dollar amount" required to be paid by such owner on the said

property above the "dollar amount" required to be paid in taxes during the tax assessment next

following such owner's sixty-seventh birthday, or following the filing of a certificate evidencing

disability, as provided in said ordinance.

     (2) Any owner of an owner-occupied, single-family dwelling that who has attained the age of

seventy-seven (77) years, or more, and who is a resident of the town of Foster, as provided in said

ordinance, shall be entitled to a tax credit equal to the lesser of:

     (i) One thousand dollars ($1,000); or

     (ii) Any increase in the "dollar amount" required to be paid by such owner on the said

property above the "dollar amount" required to be paid in taxes during the tax assessment next

following such owner's seventy-seventh birthday, as provided in said ordinance.


 

 

 

 

 

378)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-15

75 and 99

 

 

44-3-15. Persons who are totally disabled.

The city or town councils of the various cities and towns may provide by ordinance for

the freezing of the rate and valuation of taxes on the real and personal property located in the city

or town of any head of a household who is one hundred percent (100%) disabled and unable to

work as of the date of the disability; provided, that in the town of Hopkinton, the determination of

disability must have been made by the Social Security Administration or the Veterans'

Administration, the applicant must meet income requirements established by ordinance which

may be amended from time to time and may include the aggregate income of the applicant and all

other persons residing with him or her and, upon attaining the age of sixty-five (65), the person

who is totally disabled is no longer entitled to this freeze of rate and valuation; provided, that the

freeze of rate and valuation on real property shall apply only to single-family dwellings in which

the person who is disabled resides; and provided, further, that the exemption shall not be allowed

unless the person entitled thereto shall have presented to the assessors, on or before the last day

on which sworn statements may be filed with the assessors for the year for which the foregoing is

claimed, due evidence that he or she is so entitled, which evidence shall stand so long as his or

her legal residence remains unchanged. The foregoing is in addition to any other exemption

provided by law; and provided further that in the town of Warren the exemption shall be in the

amount of nineteen thousand two hundred ninety-one dollars ($19,291) twenty thousand four

hundred eighty dollars ($20,480).


 

 

379)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-15.6

454 and 470

 

 

44-3-15.6. Bristol volunteer firefighters exemption.

The town of Bristol may establish, by ordinance, a program to provide property tax relief

for any individual who volunteers their his or her services as a firefighter or emergency medical

technician. Such tax relief may provide an abatement of up to two thousand five hundred dollars

($2,500) in property taxes due for any fiscal year. The criteria for providing such tax relief may

include, but not be limited to, years of service, rank, quantity of calls responded to, number of

training hours, and certification status.


 

 

380)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-30

365 and 440

 

 

44-3-30. Burrillville -- Property taxation of electricity generating facilities located in

the town.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of the general laws to the contrary, real and

personal property of any facility for the generation of electricity located in the town of Burrillville

and in operation prior to July 1, 2017, or subsequently expanded, are taxable by the town. As to

any facility for the generation of electricity located in the town of Burrillville, in operation prior

to or subsequent to July 1, 2017, the town council of the town of Burrillville is authorized to

determine, by ordinance or resolution, an amount of taxes to be paid each year on account of real

or personal property used in connection with any facility for the generation of electricity located

in the town, notwithstanding the valuation of the property or the rate of tax. The determination is

for a period not to exceed twenty-five (25) years. The town council of the town of Burrillville is

authorized to extend the determination by ordinance or resolution. The extension shall be for a

period not to exceed an additional twenty (20) years.


 

 

381)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-5-60

179 and 363

 

 

44-5-60. North Providence -- Homestead exemptions.

     (a) The mayor, upon approval of the town council of the town of North Providence, is

authorized to annually fix the amount, if any, of homestead exemption with respect to assessed

value from local taxation on taxable real property used for residential purposes in the town of

North Providence and to grant homestead exemptions to the owner or owners of residential real

estate in an amount not to exceed twenty percent (20%) of the assessed value. The exemption

only applies to class 3 residential property as defined in § 44-5-57 improved with a dwelling

house whose owner is a resident of North Providence and who occupies the property as his or her

principal residence. The dwelling house shall consist of no more than five (5) dwelling units. In

order to determine compliance with the homestead exemption as outlined in this subsection, the

town council shall provide, by resolution or ordinance, rules and regulations governing eligibility

for the exemption established by this section.

     (b) In the event property granted an exemption under this section is sold or transferred

during the year for which the exemption is claimed, the exemption is void for that portion of the

year following the sale or transfer and the buyer or transferee is liable to the town of North

Providence for any tax benefit received after the sale or transfer the town council of North

Providence may provide for a proration of the homestead exemption in cases where title to

property passes from those not entitled to claim an exemption to those who are entitled to claim

an exemption; provided, that there is a homestead exemption for owner-occupied residential and

commercial mixed-use (class 5) real estate in an amount not to exceed ten percent (10%) of the

assessed value.


                         

382)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-5-60.1

179 and 363

 

 

44-5-60.1. Johnston -- Homestead exemptions.

     (a) The mayor of the town of Johnston, upon approval of the town council, is authorized

to annually fix the amount, if any, of homestead exemption with respect to assessed value from

local taxation on taxable real property used for residential purposes in the town of Johnston and to

grant homestead exemptions to the owner(s) of that residential real estate in an amount not to

exceed twenty percent (20%) of the assessed value. That exemption only applies to class 3

residential property as defined in § 44-5-57 improved with a dwelling house whose owner is a

resident of Johnston and who occupies the property as his or her principal residence. The

dwelling house shall consist of no more than five (5) dwelling units. In order to determine

compliance with the homestead exemption as outlined in this section, the town council shall

provide, by resolution or ordinance, rules and regulations governing eligibility for the exemption

established by this section.

     (b) In the event property granted an exemption under this section is sold or transferred

during the year for which the exemption is claimed, the exemption is void for that portion of the

year following the sale or transfer, and the buyer or transferee shall be liable to the town of

Johnston for any tax benefit received after the sale or transfer the mayor of the town of Johnston,

upon approval of the town council, may provide for a proration of the homestead exemption in

cases where title to property passes from those not entitled to claim an exemption to those who

are entitled to claim an exemption. Provided, that there shall be a homestead exemption for

owner-occupied residential and commercial mixed-use (class 5) real estate in an amount not to

exceed ten percent (10%) of the assessed value.


 

383)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-5-61.1

452 and 466

 

 

44-5-61.1. Central Falls -- Exemption or stabilizing of taxes on qualifying property

located in the city.

Except as provided in this section, the city council of the city of Central Falls may vote to

authorize for a period not exceeding ten (10) twelve (12) years, and subject to the conditions

provided in this section, to exempt from payment, in whole or in part, real and personal

qualifying property, or to determine a stabilized amount, of taxes to be paid on account of the

qualifying property located within the city of Central Falls, notwithstanding the valuation of the

property or the rate of tax; provided, that after a public hearing, at least ten (10) days' notice of

which must be given in a newspaper having a general circulation in the city, the city council

determines that granting of the exemption or stabilization for qualifying property has inured or

will inure to the benefit of the city by reason of the willingness of the owners of qualifying

property to replace, reconstruct, expand or remodel existing buildings, facilities, machinery, or

equipment with modern buildings, facilities, fixtures, machinery, or equipment or to construct

new buildings or facilities or acquire new machinery or equipment for use in the buildings or

facilities or to reoccupy or reuse the buildings or facilities if they are vacant or abandoned for

manufacturing/warehousing or research and development, resulting in an increase in investment

by the owners in the city. For purposes of this section, "qualifying property" means any building

or structures used or intended to be used essentially for offices, manufacturing, or commercial

enterprises, including, but not limited to, financial service enterprises. Except as provided in this

section, property, the payment of taxes on which has been so exempted or which is subject to the

payment of a stabilized amount of taxes, shall not, during the period for which the exemption or

stabilization of the amount of taxes is granted, be further liable to taxation by the city so long as

that property is used or intended to be used for the manufacturing or commercial purposes for

which the exemption or stabilized amount of taxes was made.


 

 

384)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-5-65

179 and 363

 

 

44-5-65. East Greenwich -- Homestead exemption.

     (a) The town council of the town of East Greenwich is authorized to annually fix the

amount, if any, of a homestead exemption with respect to assessed value from local taxation on

taxable real property used for residential purposes in the town of East Greenwich and to grant

homestead exemptions to the owner or owners of residential real estate in an amount not to

exceed twenty percent (20%) of the assessed value. The exemption only applies to property used

exclusively for residential purposes, and improved with a dwelling containing less than five (5)

units. In order to determine compliance with the homestead exemption as outlined in this section,

the town council shall provide, by resolution or ordinance, rules and regulations governing

eligibility for the exemption established by this section.

     (b) In the event property granted an exemption under this section is sold or transferred

during the year for which the exemption is claimed, the town council of the town of East

Greenwich, upon approval of the town council, may provide for a proration of the homestead

exemption in cases where title to property passes from those not entitled to claim an exemption to

those who are entitled to claim an exemption.


 

 

385)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-5-70

179 and 363

 

 

44-5-70. East Providence -- Homestead exemption.

     (a) The city council of the city of East Providence is authorized to annually fix the

amount, if any, of a homestead exemption with respect to assessed value from local taxation on

taxable real property used for residential purposes in the city of East Providence and to grant

homestead exemptions to the owner or owners of residential real estate in an amount not to

exceed fifteen percent (15%) of the assessed value. The exemption only applies to property used

exclusively for residential purposes, and improved with a dwelling containing less than four (4)

units. In order to determine compliance with the homestead exemption as outlined in this section,

the city council shall provide, by resolution or ordinance, rules and regulations governing

eligibility for the exemption established by this section.

     (b) In the event property granted an exemption under this section is sold or transferred

during the year for which the exemption is claimed, the town council of the city of East

Providence, upon approval of the town council, may provide for a proration of the homestead

exemption in cases where title to property passes from those not entitled to claim an exemption to

those who are entitled to claim an exemption.


                                         

386)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-5-80

179 and 363

 

 

44-5-80. Homestead exemption in the town of West Greenwich.

     (a) Notwithstanding any other provisions of the general or special laws to the contrary,

the town council of the town of West Greenwich is authorized to annually fix the amount, if any,

of a homestead exemption with respect to assessed value from local taxation on taxable real

property used for residential purposes in the town of West Greenwich and to grant homestead

exemptions to the owner or owners of residential real estate in an amount not to exceed forty

percent (40%) of the assessed value. The exemption only applies to property used exclusively for

residential purposes, and improved with a dwelling containing less than five (5) units. In order to

determine compliance with the homestead exemption as outlined in this section, the town council

shall provide by ordinance rules and regulations governing eligibility for the exemption

established by this section.

     (b) In the event property granted an exemption under this section is sold or transferred

during the year for which the exemption is claimed, the town council of the town of West

Greenwich, upon approval of the town council, may provide for a proration of the homestead

exemption in cases where title to property passes from those not entitled to claim an exemption to

those who are entitled to claim an exemption.


 

 

387)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-5-85

179 and 363

 

 

44-5-85. Narragansett homestead exemption.

     (a) The town council of the town of Narragansett is authorized to annually fix the

amount, if any, of a homestead exemption, with respect to assessed value, from local taxation on

taxable real property used for residential purposes or mixed purposes, defined as a combination of

residential and commercial uses, in the town of Narragansett, and to grant homestead exemptions

to the owner, or owners, of residential real estate, or combination residential and commercial real

estate, in an amount not to exceed ten percent (10%) of the assessed value. The exemption shall

apply to property used exclusively for residential purposes, and improved with a dwelling

containing less than five (5) units, or real property used for a combination of residential and

commercial uses. When real property is used for mixed purposes, the percentage of the assessed

value shall be a prorated amount. The prorated amount shall be the percentage of square feet of

the parcel used for residential purposes, multiplied by the percentage of the homestead

exemption. In order to determine compliance with the homestead exemption as outlined in this

section, the town council shall provide, by resolution or ordinance, rules and regulations

governing eligibility for the exemption established by this section.

     (b) In the event property granted an exemption under this section is sold or transferred

during the year for which the exemption is claimed, the town council of the town of Narragansett,

upon approval of the town council, may provide for a proration of the homestead exemption in

cases where title to property passes from those not entitled to claim an exemption to those who

are entitled to claim an exemption.


 

 

388)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

44-5-86

455 and 468

 

 

44-5-86. The Neil J. Houston, Jr. Residential Re-entry Center.

     The city of Pawtucket is authorized to exempt from taxation, to the extent the city council

of the city of Pawtucket may from time to time determine, the real and personal property of the

Neil J. Houston, Jr. Residential Re-entry Center located at 67-85 Slater Street, Pawtucket, RI.


 

 

389)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-9-12

210 and 324

 

 

44-9-12. Collector's deed -- Rights conveyed to purchaser -- Recording.

     (a) The collector shall execute and deliver to the purchaser a deed of the land stating the

cause of sale; the price for which the land was sold; the places where the notices were posted; the

name of the newspaper in which the advertisement of the sale was published; the names and

addresses of all parties who were sent notice in accordance with the provisions of § 44-9-10 and

44-9-11; the residence of the grantee; and if notice of the sale was given to the Rhode Island

Housing and Mortgage Finance Corporation and/or to the department of elderly affairs under the

provisions of § 44-9-10. The deed shall convey the land to the purchaser, subject to the right of

redemption. The conveyed title shall, until redemption or until the right of redemption is

foreclosed, be held as security for the repayment of the purchase price with all intervening costs,

terms imposed for redemption, and charges, with interest; and the premises conveyed, both before

and after either redemption or foreclosure, shall also be subject to, and have the benefit of, all

easements and restrictions lawfully existing in, upon, or over the land or appurtenant to the land.

The deed is not valid unless recorded within sixty (60) days after the sale. If the deed is recorded,

it is prima facie evidence of all facts essential to the validity of the title conveyed by the deed. It

shall be the duty of the collector to record the deed within sixty (60) days of the sale and to

forward said deed promptly to the tax sale purchaser. The applicable recording fee shall be paid

by the purchaser. The purchaser shall be reimbursed for said fee upon redemption by the

redeeming party, if any. Except as provided, no sale shall give to the purchaser any right to either

the possession, or the rents or profits of the land until the expiration of one year after the date of

the sale, nor shall any sale obviate or transfer any responsibility of an owner of property to

comply with any statute of this state or ordinance of any municipality governing the use,

occupancy, or maintenance or conveyance of property until the right of redemption is foreclosed.

     (b) The rents to which the purchaser shall be entitled after the expiration of one year and

prior to redemption shall be those net rents actually collected by the former fee holder or a

mortgagee under an assignment of rents. Rents shall not include mere rental value of the land, nor

shall the purchaser be entitled to any rent for owner-occupied, single-unit residential property.

For purposes of redemption, net rents shall be computed by deducting from gross rents actually

collected any sums expended directly or on behalf of the tenant from whom the rent was

collected. Such expenditure shall include utilities furnished, repairs made to the tenanted unit, and

services provided for the benefit of the tenant. However, mortgagee payments, taxes, and sums

expended for general repair and renovation (i.e. capital improvements) shall not be deductible

expenses in the computation of the rent.

     (c) This tax title purchaser shall not be liable for any enforcement or penalties arising

from violations of environmental or minimum-housing standards prior to the expiration of one

year from the date of the tax sale, or five (5) years from the date of the tax sale if the Rhode

Island housing and mortgage finance corporation is the tax title purchaser pursuant to §44-9-8.3,

except for violations that are the result of intentional acts by the tax sale purchaser or his or her

agents.

     (d) Upon the expiration of one year after the date of the sale, the tax title holder shall be

jointly and severally liable with the owner for all responsibility and liability for the property and

shall be responsible to comply with any statute of this state or ordinance of any municipality

governing the use, occupancy, or maintenance or conveyance of the property even prior to the

right of redemption being foreclosed; except, however, that if the Rhode Island housing and mortgage

finance corporation is the tax title holder pursuant to §44-9-8.3, then joint and several liability

shall arise upon the expiration of five (5) years after the date of the sale. Nothing in this section

shall be construed to confer any liability upon a city or town that receives tax title as a result of

any bids being made for the land offered for sale at an amount equal to the tax and charges.

     (e) In the event that the tax lien is acquired by the Rhode Island housing and mortgage

finance corporation, and said corporation has paid the taxes due, title shall remain with the owner

of the property, subject to the right of the corporation to take the property in its own name,

pursuant to applicable statutes and any regulations duly adopted by the corporation. Upon such

notice by the corporation, the collector shall execute and deliver a deed to the corporation as

herein provided.


 

 

390)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

44-11-26.1

371 and 376

 

 

44-11-26.1. Revocation of articles or authority to transact business for nonpayment

of tax.

     (a) The tax administrator may, after July 15 of each year, make up a list of all

corporations which that have failed to pay the corporate tax defined in §44-11-2 for one year

after the tax became due and payable, and the failure is not the subject of a pending appeal. The

tax administrator shall certify to the correctness of the list. Upon receipt of the certified list, the

secretary of state may initiate revocation proceedings as defined in §§7-1.2-1310 and 7-1.2-1414.

     (b) With respect to any information provided by the division of taxation to the secretary

of state pursuant to this chapter, the secretary of state, together with the employees or agents

thereof, shall be subject to all state and federal tax confidentiality laws applying to the division of

taxation and the officers, agents, and employees thereof, and which restrict the acquisition, use,

storage, dissemination, or publication of confidential taxpayer data.


 

 

391)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-17-1

389 and 434

 

 

44-17-1. Companies required to file -- Payment of tax -- Retaliatory rates.

     (a) Every domestic, foreign, or alien insurance company, mutual association,

organization, or other insurer, including any health maintenance organization as defined in § 27-

41-2, any medical malpractice insurance joint underwriters association as defined in § 42-14.1-1,

any nonprofit dental service corporation as defined in § 27-20.1-2 and any nonprofit hospital or

medical service corporation as defined in chapters 19 and 20 of title 27, except companies

mentioned in § 44-17-6 and organizations defined in § 27-25-1, transacting business in this state,

shall, on or before April 15 in each year, file with the tax administrator, in the form that he or she

may prescribe, a return under oath or affirmation signed by a duly authorized officer or agent of

the company, containing information that may be deemed necessary for the determination of the

tax imposed by this chapter, and shall at the same time pay an annual tax to the tax administrator

of two percent (2%) of the gross premiums on contracts of insurance, except for ocean marine

insurance as referred to in § 44-17-6, covering property and risks within the state, written during

the calendar year ending December 31st next preceding.

     (b) Qualifying insurers for purposes of this subsection section means every domestic, foreign, or

alien insurance company, mutual association, organization, or other insurer and excludes:

     (1) Health maintenance organizations, as defined in § 27-41-2;

     (2) Nonprofit dental service corporations, as defined in § 27-20.1-2; and

     (3) Nonprofit hospital or medical service corporations, as defined in §§ 27-19-1 and 27-

20-1.

     (c) For tax years 2018 and thereafter, the rate of taxation may be reduced as set forth

below and, if so reduced, shall be fully applicable to qualifying insurers instead of the two percent

(2%) rate listed in subsection (a). In the case of foreign or alien companies, except as provided in

§ 27-2-17(d), the tax shall not be less in amount than is imposed by the laws of the state or

country under which the companies are organized upon like companies incorporated in this state

or upon its agents, if doing business to the same extent in the state or country. The tax rate shall

not be reduced for gross premiums written on contracts of health insurance as defined in § 42-14-

5(c) but shall remain at two percent (2%) or the appropriate retaliatory tax rate, whichever is

higher.

     (d) For qualifying insurers, the premium tax rate may be decreased based upon Rhode

Island jobs added by the industry as detailed below:

     (1) A committee shall be established for the purpose of implementing tax rates using the

framework established herein. The committee shall be comprised of the following persons or their

designees: the secretary of commerce, the director of the department of business regulation, the

director of the department of revenue, and the director of the office of management and budget.

No rule may be issued pursuant to this section without the prior, unanimous approval of the

committee.;

     (2) On the timetable listed below, the committee shall determine whether qualifying

insurers have added new qualifying jobs in this state in the preceding calendar year. A qualifying

job for purposes of this section is one in which a person is employed for consideration for at least

thirty-five (35) hours a week earning no less than the median hourly wage as reported by the

United States Bureau of Labor Statistics for the state of Rhode Island any employee with total

annual wages equal to or greater than forty percent (40%) of the average annual wages of the

Rhode Island insurance industry, as published by the annual employment and wages report of the

Rhode Island department of labor and training, in NAICS code 5241.;

     (3) If the committee determines that there has been a sufficient net increase in qualifying

jobs in the preceding calendar year(s) to offset a material reduction in the premium tax, it shall

calculate a reduced premium tax rate. Such rate shall be determined via a method selected by the

committee and designed such that the estimated personal income tax generated by the increase in

qualifying jobs is at least one hundred and twenty-five percent (125%) of the anticipated

reduction in premium tax receipts resulting from the new rate. For purposes of this calculation,

the committee may consider personal income tax withholdings or receipts, but in no event may

the committee include for the purposes of determining revenue neutrality income taxes that are

subject to segregation pursuant to § 44-48.3-8(f) or that are otherwise available to the general

fund.;

     (4) Any reduced rate established pursuant to this section must be established in a

rulemaking proceeding pursuant to chapter 35 of title 42, subject to the following conditions:

     (i) Any net increase in qualifying jobs and the resultant premium tax reduction and

revenue impact shall be determined in any rulemaking proceeding conducted under this section

and shall be set forth in a report included in the rulemaking record, which report shall also include

a description of the data sources and calculation methods used. The first such report shall also

include a calculation of the baseline level of employment of qualifying insurers for the calendar

year 2015.; and

     (ii) Notwithstanding any provision of the law to the contrary, no rule changing the tax

rate shall take effect until one hundred and twenty (120) days after notice of the rate change is

provided to the speaker of the house, the president of the senate, the house and senate fiscal

advisors, and the auditor general, which notice shall include the report required under the

preceding provision.

     (5) For each of the first three (3) rulemaking proceedings required under this section, the

tax rate may remain unchanged or be decreased consistent with the requirements of this section,

but may not be increased. These first three (3) rulemaking proceedings shall be conducted by the

division of taxation and occur in the following manner:

     (i) The first rulemaking proceeding shall take place in calendar year 2017. This

proceeding shall establish a rule that sets forth: (A) A new premium tax rate, if allowed under the

requirements of this section, which rate shall take effect in 2018, and (B) A method for

calculating the number of jobs at qualifying insurers.;

     (ii) The second rulemaking proceeding shall take place in calendar year 2018. This

proceeding shall establish a rule that sets forth: (A) A new premium tax rate, if allowed under the

requirements of this section, which rate shall take effect in 2019, and (B) The changes, if any, to

the method for calculating the number of jobs at qualifying insurers.; and

     (iii) The third rulemaking proceeding shall take place in calendar year 2019. This

proceeding shall establish a rule that sets forth: (A) A new premium tax rate, if allowed under the

requirements of this section, which rate shall take effect in 2020, and (B) The changes, if any, to

the method for calculating the number of jobs at qualifying insurers.

     (6) The tax rate established in the regulation following regulatory proceedings that take

place in 2019 shall remain in effect through and including 2023. In calendar year 2023, the

department of business regulation will conduct a rulemaking proceeding and issue a rule that sets

forth: (A) A new premium tax rate, if allowed under the requirements of this section, which rate

shall take effect in 2024, and (B) The changes, if any, to the method for calculating the number of

jobs at qualifying insurers. A rule issued by the department of business regulation may decrease

the tax rate if the requirements for a rate reduction contained in this section are met, or it may

increase the tax rate to the extent necessary to achieve the overall revenue level sought when the

then-existing tax rate was established. Any rate established shall be no lower than one percent

(1%) and no higher than two percent (2%). This proceeding shall be repeated every three (3)

calendar years thereafter, however, the base for determination of job increases or decreases shall

remain the number of jobs existing during calendar year 2022.;

     (7) No reduction in the premium tax rate pursuant to this section shall be allowed absent a

determination that qualifying insurers have added in this state at least three hundred fifty (350)

new, full-time, qualifying jobs above the baseline level of employment of qualifying insurers for

the calendar year 2015.;

     (8) Notwithstanding any provision of this section to the contrary, the premium tax rate

shall never be set lower than one percent (1%).;

     (9) The division of taxation may adopt implementation guidelines, directives, criteria,

rules and regulations pursuant to chapter 35 of title 42 as are necessary to implement this section.;

and

     (10) The calculation of revenue impacts under this section is at the sole discretion of the

committee established under subsection (d)(1). Notwithstanding any provision of law to the

contrary, any administrative action or rule setting a tax rate pursuant to this section or failing or

declining to alter a tax rate pursuant to this section shall not be subject to judicial review under

chapter 35 of title 42.


 

 

392)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

44-27-10.1

126 and 149

 

 

44-27-10.1. Land withdrawn from classification for commercial renewable-energy

production -- Effect on obligation and the land use change tax.

     (a) Farmlands classified in the farm, forest, or open-space program shall not be subject to

a land use change tax if the landowner converts no more than twenty percent (20%) of the total

acreage of land which that is actively devoted to agricultural or horticultural use to install a

renewable-energy system. Any acreage used for a renewable-energy system that is designated for

dual use under subsection (c) of this section shall not be included in the calculation of the twenty

percent (20%) restriction. For purposes of this section, land which that is actively devoted to

agricultural or horticultural use shall be defined by rules and regulations established by the

department of environmental management in consultation with the office of energy resources and

shall include, at a minimum, any land which that is actively devoted to agricultural or

horticultural use that was previously used to install a renewable-energy system. Those rules shall

also define renewable-energy system to include, at a minimum, any buffers, access roads, and

other supporting infrastructure associated with the generation of renewable energy.

     (b) The tax assessor shall only withdraw from farmland classification the actual acreage

of the farmland used for a renewable-energy system that is not concurrently used as farmland.

The rest of the farmland shall remain eligible as long as it still meets the program qualification

criteria. This reclassification of farmlands shall not be considered an exception to the tax

treatment for renewable-energy systems prescribed by §44-5-3(c).

     (c) The dual purpose designation for installing a renewable-energy system and utilizing

the land below and surrounding the system for agriculture purposes, shall be determined pursuant

to rules and regulations that will be established by the department of environmental management

in consultation with the office of energy resources. The regulations shall be adopted no later than

December 30, 2017.


 

 

393)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-30-95

189 and 319

 

 

44-30-95. General powers of tax administrator.

     (a) General. The tax administrator shall administer and enforce the Rhode Island personal

income tax and is authorized to make any rules and regulations, and to require any facts and

information to be reported, that he or she may deem necessary to enforce the tax. The provisions

of chapter 1 of this title relating to the tax administrator shall be applicable to the Rhode Island

personal income tax.

     (b) Examination of books and witnesses. The tax administrator, for the purpose of

ascertaining the correctness of any return, or for the purpose of making an estimate of Rhode

Island income of any person where information has been obtained, shall have the power to

examine or to cause to have examined, by any agent or representative designated by the tax

administrator for that purpose, any books, papers, records, or memoranda bearing upon the

matters required to be included in the return, and may require the attendance of the person

rendering the return or any officer or employee of the person, or the attendance of any other

person having knowledge in the premises, and may take testimony and require proof material for

its information, with power to administer oaths to the person or persons.

     (c) Secrecy requirement. It shall be unlawful for any state official or employee to divulge

or to make known to any person in any manner whatever not provided by law the amount or

source of income, profits, losses, expenditures, or any particular of them set forth or disclosed in

any return, or to permit any return or copy of the return or any book containing any abstract or

particulars thereof to be seen or examined by any person except as provided by law. It shall be

unlawful for any person to print or publish in any manner whatever not provided by law any

return or any part thereof or source of income, profits, losses, or expenditures appearing in any

return. Any offense against the foregoing provision shall be punished by a fine not exceeding one

thousand dollars ($1,000), or by imprisonment not exceeding one year, or both, at the discretion

of the court. If the offender is an officer or employee of the state of Rhode Island, the offender

may be dismissed from office or discharged from employment.

     (d) Interstate and federal agreements. The governor or the tax administrator may enter

into agreements with tax officials of other states and the federal government to provide for the

exchange of information and to apportion or otherwise equitably determine taxes for the purposes

of carrying out the provisions of § 44-30-18 and otherwise avoiding multiple taxation.

     (e) Income tax claims of other states. The courts of this state shall recognize and enforce

liabilities for personal income taxes lawfully imposed by any other state which extends a like

comity to this state, and the duly authorized officer of any other state may sue for the collection

of a tax in the courts of this state. A certificate by the secretary of state of the other state that an

officer suing for the collection of a tax is duly authorized to collect the tax shall be conclusive

proof of that authority. For the purposes of this section, the word "taxes" shall include additions

to tax, interest, and penalties, and liability for taxes, additions to tax, interest and penalties shall

be recognized and enforced by the courts of this state to the same extent that the laws of the other

state permit the enforcement in its courts of liability for taxes, additions to tax, interest, and

penalties due this state under this part.

     (f) Small tax balances. The tax administrator is authorized to abate the unpaid portion of

the assessment of any tax, or any liability in respect thereof, if the administrator determines under

uniform rules prescribed by him or her that the administration and collection costs involved

would not warrant collection of the amount due.

     (g) Limited disclosure of information -- Retirement board. The tax administrator shall

disclose to the retirement board of the state of Rhode Island information needed by the board to

implement the provisions of §§16-16-19, 16-16-24, 36-10-17, 36-10-36, 45-21-24, and 45-21-54.

The content and nature of the information to be disclosed shall be determined and approved by

the tax administrator and shall be kept confidential by the board.

     (h) Limited disclosure of information -- Jury Commissioner. The tax administrator shall

disclose to the jury commissioners of the State of Rhode Island information needed by him or her

to implement provisions of § 9-9-1(d).

     (i) Limited disclosure of information - Unclaimed Property Administrator. The tax

administrator shall disclose to the unclaimed property administrator of the state of Rhode Island,

who is the administrator as defined in §33-21.1-1, information needed by the unclaimed property

administrator to implement the provisions of §33-21.1-24. The content and nature of the

information to be disclosed shall be determined and approved by the tax administrator, but shall

be the minimum necessary to implement §33-21.1-24 and shall be kept confidential by the

unclaimed property administrator. The unclaimed property administrator and their employees or

agents shall be subject to the same state and federal tax confidentiality laws restricting the

acquisition, use, storage, dissemination or publication of confidential taxpayer data that apply to

Rhode Island division of taxation officers, agents and employees. Such provisions, include, but

are not limited to, §§44-1-14, 44-11-21, 44-14-23, 44-19-30, 44-30-95, and 44-44-22; 26 U.S.C.

§6103, and 26 U.S.C. §7213. It is the unclaimed property administrator's responsibility to ensure

that their employees and agents are aware of these obligations.


 

 

394)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-31.2-2

223 and 327

 

 

44-31.2-2. Definitions.

     For the purposes of this chapter:

     (1) "Accountant's certification" as provided in this chapter means a certified audit by a

Rhode Island certified public accountant licensed in accordance with section 5-3.1 chapter 3.1 of

title 5.

     (2)(3) "Base investment" means the actual investment made and expended by a state-

certified production in the state as production-related costs.

     (3)(4) "Documentary production" means a non-fiction production intended for educational

or commercial distribution that may require out- of- state principal photography.

     (4)(5) "Domiciled in Rhode Island" means a corporation incorporated in Rhode Island or a

partnership, limited liability company, or other business entity formed under the laws of the state

of Rhode Island for the purpose of producing motion pictures as defined in this section, or an

individual who is a domiciled resident of the state of Rhode Island as defined in chapter 30 of this

title.

     (5)(6) "Final production budget" means and includes the total pre-production, production,

and post-production out-of-pocket costs incurred and paid in connection with the making of the

motion picture. The final production budget excludes costs associated with the promotion or

marketing of the motion picture

     (6)(7) "Motion picture" means a feature-length film, documentary production, video, video

games, television series, or commercial made in Rhode Island, in whole or in part, for theatrical

or television viewing or as a television pilot or for educational distribution. The term "motion

picture" shall not include the production of television coverage of news or athletic events, nor

shall it apply to any film, video, television series, or commercial or a production for which

records are required under section 2257 of title 18, U.S.C 18 U.S.C. §2257., to be maintained with

respect to any performer in such production or reporting of books, films, etc. with respect to

sexually explicit conduct.

     (7)(8) "Motion picture production company" means a corporation, partnership, limited

liability company, or other business entity engaged in the business of producing one or more

motion pictures as defined in this section. Motion picture production company shall not mean or

include:

     (a) aAny company owned, affiliated, or controlled, in whole or in part, by any company

or person which who or that is in default:

     (i) oOn taxes owed to the state; or

     (ii) oOn a loan made by the state in the application year; or

     (iii) oOn a loan guaranteed by the state in the application year; or

     (b) aAny company or person who or that has discharged an obligation to pay or repay

public funds or monies by:

     (i) fFiling a petition under any Ffederal or state bankruptcy or insolvency law;

     (ii) hHaving a petition filed under any Ffederal or state bankruptcy or insolvency law

against such company or person;

     (iii) cConsenting to, or acquiescing or joining in, a petition named in (i) or (ii);

     (iv) cConsenting to, or acquiescing or joining in, the appointment of a custodian,

receiver, trustee, or examiner for such company's or person's property; or

     (v) mMaking an assignment for the benefit of creditors or admitting in writing or in any

legal proceeding its insolvency or inability to pay debts as they become due.

     (8)(9) "Primary locations" means the locations which that (1) aAt least fifty-one percent

(51%) of the motion picture principal photography days are filmed; or (2) aAt least fifty-one

percent (51%) of the motion picture's final production budget is spent and employs at least five

(5) individuals during the production in this state; or (3) fFor documentary productions, the

location of at least fifty-one percent (51%) of the total productions days, which shall include pre-

production and post-production locations.

     (9)(10) "Rhode Island film and television office" means an office within the department of

administration that has been established in order to promote and encourage the locating of film

and television productions within the state of Rhode Island. The office is also referred to within

as the "film office".

     (10)(11) "State-certified production" means a motion picture production approved by the

Rhode Island film office and produced by a motion picture production company domiciled in

Rhode Island, whether or not such company owns or controls the copyright and distribution rights

in the motion picture; provided, that such company has either:

     (a) sSigned a viable distribution plan; or

     (b) iIs producing the motion picture for:

     (i) aA major motion picture distributor;

     (ii) aA major theatrical exhibitor;

     (iii) tTelevision network; or

     (iv) cCable television programmer.

     (11)(12) "State-certified production cost" means any pre-production, production, and post-

production cost that a motion picture production company incurs and pays to the extent it occurs

within the state of Rhode Island. Without limiting the generality of the foregoing, "state-certified

production costs" include: set construction and operation; wardrobes, make-up, accessories, and

related services; costs associated with photography and sound synchronization, lighting, and

related services and materials; editing and related services, including, but not limited to,: film

processing, transfers of film to tape or digital format, sound mixing, computer graphics services,

special effects services, and animation services, salary, wages, and other compensation, including

related benefits, of persons employed, either director directly or indirectly, in the production of a film

including writer, motion picture director, producer (provided the work is performed in the state of

Rhode Island); rental of facilities and equipment used in Rhode Island; leasing of vehicles; costs

of food and lodging; music, if performed, composed, or recorded by a Rhode Island musician, or

released or published by a person domiciled in Rhode Island; travel expenses incurred to bring

persons employed, either directly or indirectly, in the production of the motion picture, to Rhode

Island (but not expenses of such persons departing from Rhode Island); and legal (but not the

expense of a completion bond or insurance and accounting fees and expenses related to the

production's activities in Rhode Island); provided such services are provided by Rhode Island

licensed attorneys or accountants.

     (12)(2)  "Application year" means within the calendar year the motion picture production

company files an application for the tax credit.


 

 

395)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-31.2-11

223 and 327

 

 

44-31.2-11. Sunset.

No credits shall be issued on or after July 1, 2021 July 1, 2024, unless the production has

received initial certification under subsection § 44-31.2-6(a) prior to July 1, 2021 July 1, 2024.


 

 

396)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-34.1-2

302 (article 11)  and 307

 

 

44-34.1-2. City, town, and fire district reimbursement.

     (a) In fiscal years 2000 and thereafter, cities, and towns, and fire districts shall receive

reimbursements, as set forth in this section, from state general revenues equal to the amount of lost

tax revenue due to the phase out or reduction of the excise tax. Cities, and towns, and fire districts

shall receive advance reimbursements through state fiscal year 2002. In the event the tax is phased

out, cities, and towns, and fire districts shall receive a permanent distribution of sales tax revenue

pursuant to § 44-18-18 in an amount equal to any lost revenue resulting from the excise tax

elimination. Lost revenues must be determined using a base tax rate fixed at fiscal year 1998 levels

for each city, town, and fire district, except that the Ttown of Johnston's base tax rate must be fixed

at a fiscal year 1999 level. Provided, however, for fiscal year 2011 and thereafter, the base tax rate

may be less than but not more than the rates described in this subsection (a).

     (b) (1) The director of administration shall determine the amount of general revenues to be

distributed to each city, and town, and fire district for the fiscal years 1999 and thereafter so that

every city, and town, and fire district is held harmless from tax loss resulting from this chapter,

assuming that tax rates are indexed to inflation through fiscal year 2003.

     (2) The director of administration shall index the tax rates for inflation by applying the

annual change in the December Consumer Price Index -- All Urban Consumers (CPI-U), published

by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor, to the indexed tax rate

used for the prior fiscal year calculation; provided, that for state reimbursements in fiscal years

2004 and thereafter, the indexed tax rate shall not be subject to further CPI-U adjustments. The

director shall apply the following principles in determining reimbursements:

     (i) Exemptions granted by cities and towns and fire districts in the fiscal year 1998 must

be applied to assessed values prior to applying the exemptions in § 44-34.1-1(c)(1). Cities, and

towns, and fire districts will not be reimbursed for these exemptions.

     (ii) City, town, and fire districts shall be reimbursed by the state for revenue losses

attributable to the exemptions provided for in § 44-34.1-1 and the inflation indexing of tax rates

through fiscal 2003. Reimbursement for revenue losses shall be calculated based upon the

difference between the maximum taxable value less personal exemptions and the net assessed

value.

     (iii) Inflation reimbursements shall be the difference between:

     (A) The levy calculated at the tax rate used by each city, and town, and fire district for

fiscal year 1998 after adjustments for personal exemptions but prior to adjustments for exemptions

contained in § 44-34.1-1(c)(1); provided, that for the town of Johnston, the tax rate used for fiscal

year 1999 must be used for the calculation; and

     (B) The levy calculated by applying the appropriate cumulative inflation adjustment

through state fiscal 2003 to the tax rate used by each city, and town, and fire district for fiscal year

1998; provided, that for the town of Johnston the tax rate used for fiscal year 1999 shall be used

for the calculation after adjustments for personal exemptions but prior to adjustments for

exemptions contained in § 44-34.1-1.

     (3) For fiscal year 2018 and thereafter, each city, town, and fire district shall tax motor

vehicles and trailers pursuant to chapter 34 of title 44 using the same motor vehicle and trailer

excise tax calculation methodology that was employed for fiscal year 2017, where motor vehicle

and trailer excise tax calculation methodology refers to the application of specific tax practices and

the order of operations in the determination of the tax levied on any given motor vehicle and/or

trailer.

     (4) Each city, town, and fire district shall report to the department of revenue, as part of the

submission of the certified tax levy pursuant to §44-5-22, the motor vehicle and trailer excise tax

calculation methodology that was employed for fiscal year 2017. For fiscal year 2018 and

thereafter, the department of revenue is authorized to confirm that each city, town, or fire district

has used the same motor vehicle and trailer excise tax methodology as was used in fiscal year 2017

and the department of revenue shall have the final determination as to whether each city, town, or

fire district has in fact complied with this requirement. Should the department of revenue determine

that a city, town, or fire district has failed to cooperate or comply with the requirement in this

section, the city, town, or fire district's reimbursement for the items noted in §§44-34.1-2

subsections (c)(13)(i) of this section through (c)(13)(iv) shall be withheld until such time as the

department of revenue deems the city, town or fire district to be in compliance.

     (5) For purposes of reimbursement for the items noted in §§44-34.1-2subsections(c)(13)(i)

through (c)(13)(iv) of this section, the FY 2018 baseline from which the reimbursement amount

shall be calculated is defined as the motor vehicle and trailer excise tax levy that would be generated

by applying the fiscal year 2017 motor vehicle and trailer excise tax calculation methodology to

the assessed value of motor vehicles and trailers as of fiscal year 2017. The amount of

reimbursement that each city, town, or fire district receives shall be the difference between the FY

2018 baseline and the certified motor vehicle and trailer excise tax levy as submitted by each city,

town, and fire district as confirmed by the department of revenue. The department of revenue shall

determine the reimbursement amount for each city, town, and fire district.

     (6) For fiscal year 2020 and thereafter, the department of revenue shall assess the feasibility

of standardizing the motor vehicle and trailer excise tax calculation methodology across all cities,

towns, and fire departments. Based on this assessment, the department of revenue may make

recommendations for changes to the motor vehicle and trailer excise tax calculation methodology

as well as other provisions related to the taxation of motor vehicles and trailers.

     (c)(1) Funds shall be distributed to the cities, and towns, and fire districts as follows:

     (i) On October 20, 1998, and each October 20 thereafter through October 20, 2001, twenty-

five percent (25%) of the amount calculated by the director of administration to be the difference

for the upcoming fiscal year.

     (ii) On February 20, 1999, and each February 20 thereafter through February 20, 2002,

twenty-five percent (25%) of the amount calculated by the director of administration to be the

difference for the upcoming fiscal year.

     (iii) On June 20, 1999, and each June 20 thereafter through June 20, 2002, fifty percent

(50%) of the amount calculated by the director of administration to be the difference for the

upcoming fiscal year.

     (iv) On August 1, 2002, and each August 1 thereafter, twenty-five percent (25%) of the

amount calculated by the director of administration to be the difference for the current fiscal year.

     (v) On November 1, 2002, and each November 1 thereafter, twenty-five percent (25%) of

the amount calculated by the director of administration to be the difference for the current fiscal

year.

     (vi) On February 1, 2003, and each February 1 thereafter, twenty-five percent (25%) of the

amount calculated by the director of administration to be the difference for the current fiscal year.

     (vii) On May 1, 2003, and each May 1 thereafter, except May 1, 2010, twenty-five percent

(25%) of the amount calculated by the director of administration to be the difference for the current

fiscal year.

     (viii) On June 15, 2010, twenty-five percent (25%) of the amount calculated by the director

of administration to be the difference for the current fiscal year.

     Provided, however, the February and May payments, and June payment in 2010, shall be

subject to submission of final certified and reconciled motor vehicle levy information.

     (2) Each city, town, or fire district shall submit final certified and reconciled motor vehicle

levy information by August 30 of each year. Any adjustment to the estimated amounts paid in the

previous fiscal year shall be included or deducted from the payment due November 1.

     (3) On any of the payment dates specified in paragraphs (1)(i) through (vii) of this

subsection, the director is authorized to deduct previously made over-payments or add

supplemental payments as may be required to bring the reimbursements into full compliance with

the requirements of this chapter.

     (4) For the city of East Providence, the payment schedule is twenty-five percent (25%) on

February 20, 1999, and each February 20 thereafter through February 20, 2002, twenty-five percent

(25%) on June 20, 1999, and each June 20 thereafter through June 20, 2002, which includes final

reconciliation of the previous year's payment, and fifty percent (50%) on October 20, 1999, and

each October 20 thereafter through October 20, 2002. For local fiscal years 2003 and thereafter,

the payment schedule is twenty-five percent (25%) on each November 1, twenty-five percent (25%)

on each February 1, twenty-five percent (25%) on each May 1, which includes final reconciliation

of the previous year's payment, and twenty-five percent (25%) on each August 1; provided, the

May and August payments shall be subject to submission of final certified and reconciled motor

vehicle levy information.

     (5) When the tax is phased out, funds distributed to the cities, towns, and fire districts for

the following fiscal year shall be calculated as the funds distributed in the fiscal year of the phase-

out. Twenty-five percent (25%) of the amounts calculated shall be distributed to the cities, and

towns, and fire districts on August 1, in the fiscal year of the phase-out, twenty-five percent (25%)

on the following November 1, twenty-five percent (25%) on the following February 1, and twenty-

five percent (25%) on the following May 1. The funds shall be distributed to each city, and town,

and fire district in the same proportion as distributed in the fiscal year of the phase-out.

     (6) When the tax is phased out to August 1, of the following fiscal year the director of

administration revenue shall calculate to the nearest tenth thousandth of one cent ($.001)

($0.00001) the number of cents of sales tax received for the fiscal year ending June 30, of the year

following the phase-out equal to the amount of funds distributed to the cities, towns, and fire

districts under this chapter during the fiscal year following the phase-out and the percent of the

total funds distributed in the fiscal year following the phase-out received by each city, town, and

fire district, calculated to the nearest one-hundredth of one percent (0.01%). The director of the

department of administration revenue shall transmit those calculations to the governor, the speaker

of the house, the president of the senate, the chairperson of the house finance committee, the

chairperson of the senate finance committee, the house fiscal advisor, and the senate fiscal advisor.

The number of cents, applied to the sales taxes received for the prior fiscal year, shall be the basis

for determining the amount of sales tax to be distributed to the cities, and towns, and fire districts

under this chapter for the second fiscal year following the phase-out and each year thereafter. The

cities, and towns, and fire districts shall receive that amount of sales tax in the proportions

calculated by the director of administration revenue as that received in the fiscal year following the

phase-out.

     (7) When the tax is phased out, twenty-five percent (25%) of the funds shall be distributed

to the cities, towns, and fire districts on August 1, of the following fiscal- year and every August 1

thereafter; twenty-five percent (25%) shall be distributed on the following November 1, and every

November 1 thereafter; twenty-five percent (25%) shall be distributed on the following February

1, and every February 1 thereafter; and twenty-five percent (25%) shall be distributed on the

following May 1, and every May 1 thereafter.

     (8) For the city of East Providence, in the event the tax is phased out, twenty-five percent

(25%) shall be distributed on November 1, of the following fiscal year, and every November 1

thereafter, twenty-five percent (25%) shall be distributed on the following February 1, and every

February 1 thereafter; twenty-five percent (25%) shall be distributed on the following May 1, and

every May 1 thereafter; and twenty-five percent (25%) of the funds shall be distributed on the

following August 1, and every August 1 thereafter.

     (9) As provided for in § 44-34-6, the authority of fire districts to tax motor vehicles is

eliminated effective with the year 2000 tax roll and the state reimbursement for fire districts shall

be based on the provisions of § 44-34-6. All references to fire districts in this chapter do not apply

to the year 2001 tax roll and thereafter.

     (10) For reimbursements payable in the year ending June 30, 2008, and thereafter, the

director of administration shall discount the calculated value of the exemption to ninety-eight

percent (98%) in order to establish a collection rate that is comparable to the collection rate

achieved by municipalities in the levy of the motor vehicle excise tax.

     (11) For reimbursements payable in the year ending June 30, 2010, the director of

administration shall reimburse cities and towns eighty-eight percent (88%) of the reimbursements

payable pursuant to subdivision subsection (c)(10) above.

     (12) For fiscal year 2011 and thereafter through to June 30, 2017, the state shall reimburse

cities and towns for the exemption pursuant to subdivision subsection (c)(10) above, ratably

reduced to the appropriation.

     (13) For fiscal year 2018 and thereafter, each city, town, and fire district shall receive a

reimbursement equal to the amount received in fiscal year 2017 plus an amount equal to the

reduction from the FY 2018 baseline, as defined in subsection (b)(5) of this section, resulting from

changes in:

     (i) The assessment percentage set forth in §44-34-11(c)(1)(iii);

     (ii) The excise tax rate set forth in §44-34.1-1(c)(5);

     (iii) Exemptions set forth in §44-34.1-1(c)(1); and

     (iv) Exemptions for vehicles more than fifteen (15) years old as set forth in §44-34-2.

     (14) In the event any city, town, or fire district sent out or sends out tax bills for fiscal year

2018, which do not conform with the requirements of this act, the city, town, or fire district shall

ensure that the tax bills for fiscal year 2018 are adjusted or an abatement is issued to conform to

the requirements of this act.


 

 

397)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-2-15.1

121 and 139

 

 

45-2-15.1. Police officers and firefighters -- Residency within municipality or state not

required.

     Notwithstanding any prior ratification and validation by the general assembly of any

home rule charter provision requiring that police officers and firefighters reside within the

employing city, or town, or state of Rhode Island, no home rule charter provision shall require

that a police officer or firefighter reside within the city, or town, or state of Rhode Island as a

condition of appointment or continued employment. Any prior ratification and validation by the

general assembly of a home rule charter provision requiring residency within a city, or town, or the

state of Rhode Island as a condition for employment of a police officer or firefighter is hereby

expressly repealed by the general assembly; further, no city or town council shall make or ordain

any ordinance requiring a police officer or firefighter to reside within the employing city, or

town, or state of Rhode Island as a condition of appointment or continued employment. Any

existing ordinance requiring a police officer or firefighter to reside within the employing city, or

town, or state of Rhode Island as a condition of appointment or continued employment is hereby

considered contrary to the laws of this state and is thus void as being in violation of state law.


 

 

398)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-2-19

37 and 39

 

 

45-2-19. City of Warwick -- Municipal court.

     (a) The city council of the city of Warwick may establish a municipal court and confer

upon the court original jurisdiction, notwithstanding any other provisions of the general laws, to

hear and determine causes involving the violation of any ordinance, including minimum housing

ordinances, of the city and any violation of the provisions of chapter 24.3 of this title, entitled the

Rhode Island Housing Maintenance and Occupancy Code; provided, that any defendant found

guilty of any offense, excluding violations of the minimum housing ordinances or chapter 24.3

within the jurisdiction of the court, may, within five (5) days of the conviction, file an appeal

from the conviction to the superior court and be entitled in the latter court to a trial de novo; and

provided further, that any defendant found guilty of any violation of a minimum housing

ordinance, or of chapter 24.3, may, within five (5) days of the conviction, file an appeal from the

conviction to the third division of the district court and be entitled to a trial de novo in accordance

with §§ 8-8-3(a)(4) and 8-8-3.2.

     (b) With respect to violations of either municipal ordinances dealing with minimum

housing or chapter 24.3 et seq. of this title dealing with housing maintenance and occupancy, the

city council may also confer upon the municipal court, in furtherance of the court's jurisdiction,

the power to proceed according to equity:

     (1) To restrain, prevent, enjoin, abate, or correct a violation;

     (2) To order the repair, vacation, or demolition of any dwelling existing in violation; or

     (3) To otherwise compel compliance with all of the provisions of the ordinances and

statutes.;

     (4) To utilize and apply the provisions set forth in chapter 44 et seq. of title 34

(Abandoned Property).

     (c) The mayor of the city is authorized and empowered to appoint a judge of the

municipal court with the advice and consent of the city or town council. The city council is

authorized and empowered to enact ordinances governing the operation and procedure to be

followed in the court and to establish a schedule of fees and costs. The municipal court may

impose a sentence not to exceed thirty (30) days in jail and impose a fine not in excess of five

hundred dollars ($500), or both. The court is empowered to administer oaths, compel the

attendance of witnesses, and punish persons for contempt.


 

 

399)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-2-47

281 and 360

 

 

45-2-47. Town of Warren -- Municipal court -- Municipal housing court.

     (a) The town council of the town of Warren may establish a municipal court and confer

upon that court original jurisdiction, notwithstanding any other provisions of the general laws, to

hear and determine causes involving the violation of any ordinance, including minimum housing

ordinances of the town and any violation of the provisions of chapter 24.3 of this title, entitled the

Rhode Island Housing Maintenance and Occupancy Code; provided, however, that any defendant

found guilty of any offense, excluding violations of the minimum housing ordinances or chapter

24.3 of this title may, outlined in subsection (b)-of this section, may, within seven (7) days of

conviction, file an appeal from the conviction to the superior court and be entitled in the latter

court to a trial de novo; and provided further, however, that any defendant found guilty of any

violation of a minimum housing ordinance or of chapter 24.3 of this title, may within seven (7)

days of conviction, file an appeal from the conviction to the sixth division of the district court and

be entitled to a trial de novo in accordance with §§ 8-8-3(a)(4) and 8-8-3.2.

     (b) The town council of the town of Warren may establish a municipal housing court and

confer upon the court original jurisdiction, notwithstanding any other provisions of the general

laws, to hear and determine causes involving the violation of the zoning ordinances of the town

and any violation of the provisions of chapter 24 of this title, (the Rhode Island zoning enabling

act of 1991),; any violation of chapter 24.1 of this title (the Historical Zoning Act),; any violation

of chapter 24.2 of this title (Minimum Housing Standards Act),; any violation of chapter 24.3 of

this title (Housing Maintenance and Occupancy Code),; any violation of chapter 23 of this title

(Subdivision and Land Development Act),; any violation of any local Warren ordinance or

regulation enacted pursuant to these chapters,;and any violation of the provisions of chapter 27.3

of title 23 (the Rhode Island state building code),; and any violation of the provisions of those

regulations promulgated by the state building code commission entitled SBC-1  Rhode Island

state building code,; SBC-2 Rhode Island state one-and two- (2) family (2) dwelling code,; SBC-

3 Rhode Island state plumbing code,; SBC-4 Rhode Island state mechanical code,; SBC-5 Rhode

Island state electrical code,; SBC-6 state property maintenance code,; SBC-8 Rhode Island state

energy conservation code,; and SBC-20 Rhode Island state fuel and gas code; and provided,

further, that any party aggrieved by a final judgment, decree, or order of the Warren housing

court may, within twenty (20) days after entry of this judgment, decree, or order, file an appeal to

the superior court and be entitled in the latter court to a trial de novo.

      (b) (c) With respect to violations of either municipal ordinances dealing with minimum

housing or chapter 24.3 et seq. of this title dealing with housing maintenance and occupancy,

falling under the jurisdiction of the Warren housing court, as outlined in subsection (b) of this

section, the town council may also confer upon the municipal housing court, in furtherance of the

court's jurisdiction, the power to proceed according to equity:

     (1) To restrain, prevent, enjoin, abate, or correct a violation;

     (2) To order the repair, vacation, or demolition of any dwelling, existing in violation; or

     (3) To otherwise compel compliance with all of the provisions of those ordinances,

regulations, and statutes. and

     (4) To order a dwelling into receivership and to order the removal of any cloud on the

title to the building or property which that shall be binding upon all those claiming by, through,

under, or by virtue of any inferior liens or encumbrances pursuant to chapter 44 et seq., of title 34.

     (c) (d) The town council of the town of Warren is authorized and empowered to appoint a

judge and clerk of the municipal court. The town council of the town of Warren is also authorized

to appoint a judge and clerk of the housing court, which who may be, but is not required to be,

the same person(s) holding the judgeship over the municipal court. The town council of the city is

authorized and empowered to enact ordinances governing the personnel, operation, and procedure

to be followed in the court and to establish a schedule of fees and costs and to otherwise provide

for the operation and management of the court. The municipal court may impose a sentence not to

exceed thirty (30) days in jail and impose a fine not in excess of five hundred dollars ($500), or

both. The court is empowered to administer oaths,; compel the attendance of witnesses,; and

punish persons for contempt,; and to execute search warrants to the extent the warrants could be

executed by a judge of the district court.


 

 

400)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-2-65

77 and 87

 

 

45-2-65. Right to counsel.

     (a) If a city or town elects to prosecute a defendant with an offense that is punishable by

imprisonment in any court created under the authority of this chapter, the court shall advise the

defendant of their his or her right to be represented by counsel and, if the defendant is indigent,

the court shall assign counsel to represent the defendant at every stage of the proceeding. The

right to counsel may be waived through a knowing, intelligent, and voluntary waiver, in writing

and duly executed on the record in open court.

     (b) No defendant may be ordered detained at the adult correctional institution for

violation of a court order entered as a result of an adjudication that is not punishable by

imprisonment in the first instance.


 

 

 

 

 

 

401)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-2-66

77 and 87

 

 

45-2-66. Ability to pay hearings.

In any court created under the authority of this chapter, the procedures established in

§§11-25-15 and 12-6-7.1(b) shall be followed when a defendant is arrested and detained for

failure to appear at an ability to pay hearing, whether detained at the adult correctional facility or

at a police station.


 

 

402)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-6-2

77 and 87

 

 

45-6-2. Imposition of penalties for ordinance violations.

Town and city councils may impose penalties for the violation of ordinances and

regulations, not exceeding in amount five hundred dollars ($500) or imprisonment not exceeding

thirty (30) days in some jail or house of correction, and/or require restitution in cases involving

property damage or personal injury in an amount up to twenty-five hundred dollars ($2,500)

and/or for voluntary require community restitution for a town or city agency not-for-profit entity

for not more than ten (10) days fifty (50) hours for any one offense, unless other penalties or

penalties within other limits are specially prescribed by statute, to be prosecuted by some officer

appointed for that purpose, and to be recovered to the use of the town or city, or of the person or

persons, and in the proportions, that the councils in their ordinances and regulations designate.


 

 

404)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-21-8

456 and 465

 

 

45-21-8. Membership in system.

Membership in the retirement system does not begin before the effective date of

participation in the system as provided in § 45-21-4, and consists of the following:

     (a) Any employee of a participating municipality as defined in this chapter, who becomes

an employee on and after the effective date of participation, shall, under contract of his or her

employment, become a member of the retirement system; provided, that the employee is not

receiving any pension or retirement allowance from any other pension or retirement system

supported wholly or in part by a participating municipality, and is not a contributor to any other

pension or retirement system of a participating municipality. Any employee who is elected to an

office in the service of a municipality after the effective date and prior to July 1, 2012, has the

option of becoming a member of the system, which option must be exercised within sixty (60)

days following the date the employee assumes the duties of his or her office, otherwise that

person is not entitled to participate under the provisions of this section;

     (b) Any employee or elected official of a participating municipality in service prior to the

effective date of participation, who is not a member of any other pension or retirement system

supported wholly or in part by a participating municipality, and who does not notify the

retirement board in writing before the expiration of sixty (60) days from the effective date of

participation that he or she does not wish to join the system, shall automatically become a

member; and

     (c) Any employee of a participating municipality in service prior to the effective date of

participation, who is a member of any other pension or retirement system supported wholly or in

part by a participating municipality on the effective date of participation of their municipality,

who then or thereafter makes written application to join this system, and waives and renounces all

accrued rights and benefits of any other pension or retirement system supported wholly or in part

by a participating municipality, becomes a member of this retirement system and shall not be

required to make contribution under any other pension or retirement system of a participating

municipality, anything to the contrary notwithstanding.

     (d) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, present firefighters employed by the

town of Johnston shall establish a pension plan separate from the state of Rhode Island retirement

system. If the town of Johnston is thirty (30) days or more late on employer or employee

contributions to the pension plan, the auditor general is authorized to redirect any Johnston funds

to cover the shortfall or to deduct that amount from any moneys due the town from the state for

any purpose other than for education. Disability determinations of present firefighters shall be

made by the state retirement board, subject to the provisions of § 45-21-19, at the town of

Johnston's expense. All new firefighters hired by the town of Johnston shall become members of

the state retirement system.

     (e) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, any city of Cranston employees who

are presently members of Teamsters Local Union No. 251, hired between the dates of July 1,

2005, and June 30, 2010, inclusive, and who are currently members of the retirement system

established by this chapter may opt out of said retirement system and choose to enroll in a defined

contribution plan (i.e., a 403 (b) plan or equivalent thereof) established by the city of Cranston.

     (f) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, any city of Cranston employees who

are presently members of the Laborers International Union of North America Local 1322 hired

between the dates of July 1, 2008, and June 30, 2013, inclusive, and who are currently members

of the retirement system established by this chapter may opt out of said retirement system and

choose to enroll in a defined contribution plan (i.e., a 403(b) plan or equivalent thereof)

established by the city of Cranston.

     (g) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, any city of Cranston employees who

will be members of Teamsters Local Union No. 251, hired after June 30, 2010, shall be enrolled

in a defined contribution plan (i.e., a 403 (b) plan or equivalent thereof) established by the city of

Cranston and shall not be a member of the retirement system established by this chapter.

     (h) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, any city of Cranston employees who

are presently members of the Laborers International Union of North America Local 1322 hired

after April 23, 2013, shall be enrolled in a defined contribution plan (i.e., 403(b) plan or

equivalent thereof) established by the city of Cranston and shall not be a member of the

retirement system established by this chapter.

     (i) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, any city of Cranston employees

defined in (e) and (f) of this section shall be precluded from purchase of service credit for time

served on or after July 1, 2010, while participating in the defined contribution plan (i.e., a 403 (b)

plan or equivalent thereof) established by the city of Cranston should the member cease

employment with the city of Cranston or Teamsters Local Union No. 251 and re-enter the system

with another participating employer who has accepted the provisions as defined, in § 45-21-4.

     (j) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, any town of Middletown employees,

who will be members of the Teamsters Local Union No. 251 bargaining unit, hired after June 30,

2012, and any town of Middletown employees who are employed as full-time civilian

dispatchers, hired after June 30, 2012, and any town of Middletown employees who are not

affiliated with any recognized collective bargaining representative or union hired after June 30,

2012, shall be enrolled in a defined contribution plan (i.e., a 403(b) plan or equivalent thereof)

established by the town of Middletown and shall not be members of the retirement system

established by this chapter. Said town of Middletown employees defined herein shall be

precluded from the purchase of service credit for time served on or after July 1, 2012, while

participating in the defined contribution plan (i.e., a 403(b) plan or equivalent thereof) established

by the town of Middletown should the member cease employment with the town of Middletown

or in the Teamsters Local Union No. 251 bargaining unit and re-enter the system with any

participating employer who has accepted the provisions as defined in § 45-21-4.

     (k) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, any town of Middletown employees,

who will be members of the Middletown Municipal Employees Association NEARI Local 869

bargaining unit hired after June 30, 2012, shall be enrolled in a defined contribution plan (i.e., a

403(b) plan or equivalent thereof) established by the town of Middletown and shall not be

members of the retirement system established by this chapter. Said town of Middletown

employees defined herein shall be precluded from the purchase of service credit for time served

on or after July 1, 2012, while participating in the defined contribution plan (i.e., a 403(b) plan or

equivalent thereof) established by the town of Middletown should the member cease employment

with the town of Middletown or in the Middletown Municipal Employees Association NEARI

Local 869 bargaining unit and re-enter the system with any participating employer who has

accepted the provisions as defined in § 45-21-4.

     (l) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, any Cranston public school employees

who will be members of National Association of Government Employees (NAGE), Local RI-153,

hired after June 30, 2012, shall be enrolled in a defined contribution plan (i.e., a 401(a) plan or

equivalent thereof) established by the Cranston school department and shall not be a member of

the retirement system established by this chapter.

     (m) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, any Cranston public school

employees defined in subsection (h) shall be precluded from the purchase of service credit for

time served on or after July 1, 2012, while participating in the defined contribution plan (i.e., a

401(a) plan or equivalent thereof) established by the Cranston public schools should the member

cease employment with the Cranston public schools or National Association of Government

Employees (NAGE), Local RI-153 and re-enter the system with another participating employer

who has accepted the provisions as defined in § 45-21-4.

     (n) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the chief of police for the city of

Cranston who was hired on or about September, 2014, shall be enrolled in a defined contribution

plan (i.e., 401(a) plan or any equivalent thereof) established by the city of Cranston, and shall not

be a member of the retirement system established by this chapter.


 

 

405)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-21.2-9

269 and 288

 

 

45-21.2-9. Retirement for accidental disability.

     (a) Any member in active service, regardless of length of service, is entitled to an

accidental disability retirement allowance. Application for the allowance is made by the member

or on the member's behalf, stating that the member is physically or mentally incapacitated for

further service as the result of an injury or illness sustained while in the performance of duty and

certifying to the time, place, and conditions of the duty performed by the member which that

resulted in the alleged disability and that the alleged disability was not the result of the willful

negligence or misconduct on the part of the member, and was not the result of age or length of

service, and that the member has not attained the age of sixty-five (65). The application shall be

made within eighteen (18) months of the alleged accident from which the injury has resulted in

the member's present disability and shall be accompanied by an accident report and a physician's

report certifying to the disability. If the member was able to return to his or her employment and

subsequently reinjures or aggravates the same injury or illness, the member shall make another

application within eighteen (18) months of the reinjury or aggravation which shall be

accompanied by a physician's report certifying to the reinjury or aggravation causing the

disability. If a medical examination made by three (3) physicians engaged by the retirement

board, and other investigations as the board may make, confirms the statements made by the

member, the board may grant the member an accidental disability retirement allowance.

     (b) For the purposes of subsection (a), "aggravation" shall mean an intervening work-

related trauma that independently contributes to a member's original injury or illness that amounts

to more than the natural progression of the preexisting disease or condition and is not the result of

age or length of service. The intervening independent trauma causing the aggravation must be an

identifiable event or series of work-related events that are the proximate cause of the member's

present condition of disability.

     (c) "Occupational cancer", as used in this section, means a cancer arising out of

employment as a fire fighter, due to injury or illness due to exposures to smoke, fumes, or

carcinogenic, poisonous, toxic, or chemical substances while in the performance of active duty in

the fire department.

     (d) For purposes of subsection (a), "reinjury" shall mean a recurrence of the original

work-related injury or illness from a specific ascertainable event. The specific event must be the

proximate cause of the member's present condition of disability.

     (e) Any fire fighter, including one employed by the state, or a municipal firefighter

employed by a municipality that participates in the optional retirement for police officers and fire

fighters as provided in this chapter, who is unable to perform his or her duties in the fire

department by reason of a disabling occupational cancer which that develops or manifests itself

during a period while the fire fighter is in the service of the department, and any retired member

of the fire force of any city or town who develops occupational cancer, is entitled to receive an

occupational cancer disability and he or she is entitled to all of the benefits provided for in this

chapter, chapters 19, 19.1, and 21 of this title and chapter 10 of title 36 if the fire fighter is

employed by the state.

     (f) In the event that any party is aggrieved by the determination of the retirement board

pursuant to § 45-19-1, for an injury or illness occurring on or after July 1, 2011, the party may

submit an appeal to the Rhode Island workers' compensation court. The appellant shall file a

notice of appeal with the retirement board and with the workers' compensation court within

twenty (20) days of the entry of the retirement board's decision and shall serve a copy of the

notice of appeal upon the opposing party.

     (g) Within twenty (20) days of the receipt of the notice of appeal, the retirement board

shall transmit the entire record of proceedings before it, together with its order, to the workers'

compensation court.

     (h) In the event that a party files a notice of appeal to the workers' compensation court,

the order of the retirement board shall be stayed pending further action by the court pursuant to

the provisions of Rhode Island general law § 28-35-20.

     (i) Upon receipt of the notice of appeal, the court shall assign the matter to a judge and

shall issue a notice at the time advising the parties of the judge to whom the case has been

assigned and the date for pretrial conference in accordance with Rhode Island general law § 28-

35-20.

     (j) All proceedings filed with the workers' compensation court pursuant to this section

shall be de novo and shall be subject to the provisions of chapters 29 to 38 of Ttitle 28 for all case

management procedures and dispute resolution processes, as provided under the rules of workers'

compensation court. The workers' compensation court shall enter a pretrial order in accordance

with subsection §28-35-20(c) which that grants or denies, in whole or in part, the relief sought by

the petitioner. The pretrial order shall be effective upon entry and any payments ordered by it

shall be paid within fourteen (14) days of the entry of the order. Provided, however, that in the

event that the retirement board files a claim for trial of the pretrial order entered by the court, the

order of the court shall be stayed until a final order or decree is entered by the court. If after trial

and the entry of a final decree, the court sustains the findings and orders entered in the pretrial

order, the retirement board shall reimburse the municipality all benefits paid by it from the time

the pretrial order was entered until the time the final decree is entered by the court. Where the

matter has been heard and decided by the workers' compensation court, the court shall retain

jurisdiction to review any prior orders or decrees entered by it. Such petitions to review shall be

filed directly with the workers' compensation court and shall be subject to the case management

and dispute resolution procedures set forth in chapters 29 through - 38 of title 28 ("Labor and

Labor Relations").

     (k) If the court determines that a member qualifies for accidental disability retirement, the

member shall receive a retirement allowance equal to sixty-six and two-thirds percent (66 2/3%)

of the rate of the member's compensation at the date of the member's retirement, subject to the

provisions of § 45-21-31.


 

 

 

 

406)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-22-3

1 and 2

 

 

45-22-3. Membership -- Continuation of present membership.

     (a) A planning board or commission consists of no less than five (5) members, and

appointments are made for terms of a length that the terms of no more than one third (1/3) of the

members of the board or commission expire each year. Any vacancy occurring in the membership

of a planning board or commission shall be filled by the appointing authority for the remainder of

the unexpired term. Any member of a planning board or commission may be removed from office

by the appointing authority for due cause, following a public hearing.

     (b) Vacancies to the planning board or commission occurring after May 4, 1972, shall be

filled in the manner prescribed in this section, except as provided in § 45-22-1 in cities or towns

operating under a home rule charter.

     (c) The Hopkinton town council has the right to appoint two (2) alternate members to the

Hopkinton planning board and the Exeter town council may appoint two (2) alternate members to

the Exeter planning board and the Richmond town council has the right to appoint two (2)

alternate members to the Richmond planning board. and the Barrington town council has the

right to appoint two (2) alternate members to the Barrington planning board.


 

 

 407)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-22-7

403 and 438

 

 

45-22-7. Powers and duties of a planning board or commission.

     (a) A planning board or commission shall have the sole responsibility for performing all

those acts necessary to prepare a comprehensive plan for a municipality in accordance with the

provisions of chapter 22.2 of title 45.

      (b) Pursuant to § 45-23-51, a planning board or commission shall be empowered by the

city or town council, by ordinance, to adopt, modify, and amend regulations and rules governing

land-development and subdivision projects within that municipality and to control land-

development and subdivision projects pursuant to those regulations and rules. The planning board

or commission shall also provide for the administration, interpretation, and enforcement of land-

development and subdivision review regulations, pursuant to § 45-23-52.

      (c) When directed by the city or town zoning ordinance pursuant to § 45-24-46.4 and the

city or town land development and subdivision review regulations pursuant to § 45-23-50.1, a

planning board or commission shall have the power to review and approve, approve with

conditions, or deny requests for variances and special-use permits submitted as part of land-

development and subdivision applications.

      (d) A planning board or commission established under the provisions of this chapter

shall make studies and prepare plans and reports on the needs and resources of the community

with reference to its physical, economic, and social growth and development as affecting the

health, safety, morals, and general welfare of the people. The studies, plans, and reports shall

concern, but not necessarily be limited to, the following:

      (1) Land use and land-use regulation;

      (2) Transportation facilities;

      (3) Public facilities, including recreation areas, utilities, schools, fire stations, police

stations, and others;

      (4) Blighted areas, including the designation of general areas for redevelopment,

renewal, rehabilitation, or conservation;

      (5) Problems of housing and the development of housing programs;

      (6) Environmental protection;

      (7) Natural resource conservation;

      (8) Protection from disaster;

      (9) Economic and social characteristics of the population;

      (10) Preservation of historic sites and buildings; and

      (11) Economic development.

      (e) When directed by the city or town council or by the appointing authority, a planning

board or commission shall prepare an annual capital budget and a comprehensive, long-range

capital-improvement program for submission to the council, the appointing authority, or other

designated official or agency.

      (f) A planning board or commission shall submit an advisory opinion and

recommendation on all zoning matters referred to it by the zoning board of review under the

provisions of the city or town zoning ordinance and report on any other matter referred to it, by

the city or town council, the chief executive, or the appointing authority.

      (g) A planning board or commission shall perform any other duties that may be assigned

to the board or commission, from time to time, by any act of the general assembly or by any

ordinance, code, regulation order, or resolution of the city or town council or by the appointing

authority.

      (h) A planning board or commission has authority to call upon other departments,

boards, and committees of the city or town and upon regional, state, and federal agencies for

information and assistance necessary to the performance of its duties, and shall cooperate with the

city or town, regional, state, and federal agencies on matters of community, regional, and state

planning and development.

      (i) Each planning board or commission must adopt a provision requiring any person who

will be required to file a request for access pursuant to § 24-8-34 to file that request not later than

the day on which that person files any document in connection with the project in question with

the applicable town or city, and to provide a copy of the request to the town or city.

     (j) Each member of a planning board or commission shall participate in training and

education classes concerning the effects of development in a flood plain and the effects of sea-

level rise once every two (2) years. Each member shall complete two (2) hours of training in

order to be certified for the two (2) years required by this subsection. Upon completion of the

training, the planning board or commission member shall file with the municipal clerk a

statement asserting that the training course has been completed.


 

 

409)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-22.4-4

49 and 57

 

 

45-22.4-4. Calculation of impact fees.

     (a) The governmental entity considering the adoption of impact fees shall conduct a

needs assessment for the type of public facility or public facilities for which impact fees are to be

levied. The needs assessment shall identify levels of service standards, projected public facilities

capital improvements needs, and distinguish existing needs and deficiencies from future needs.

The findings of this document shall be adopted by the local governmental entity. In order for a

municipality to continue assessing and collecting impact fees, a needs assessment shall be

conducted every five (5) years.

     (b) The data sources and methodology upon which needs assessments and impact fees are

based shall be made available to the public upon request.

     (c) The amount of each impact fee imposed shall be based upon actual cost of public

facility expansion or improvements, or reasonable estimates of the cost, to be incurred by the

governmental entity as a result of new development, as set forth in the needs assessment. The

calculation of each impact fee shall be in accordance with generally accepted accounting

principles.

     (d) An impact fee shall meet the following requirements:

     (1) The amount of the fee must be reasonably related to or reasonably attributable to the

development's share of the cost of infrastructure improvements made necessary by the

development; and

     (2) The impact fees imposed must not exceed a proportionate share of the costs incurred

or to be incurred by the governmental entity in accommodating the development. The following

factors shall be considered in determining a proportionate share of public facilities capital

improvement costs:

     (i) The need for public facilities' capital improvements required to serve new

development, based on a capital improvements program that shows deficiencies in capital

facilities serving existing development, and the means, other than impact fees, by which any

existing deficiencies will be eliminated within a reasonable period of time, and that shows

additional demands anticipated to be placed on specified capital facilities by new development;

and

     (ii) The extent to which new development is required to contribute to the cost of system

improvements in the future.


 

 

410)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-22.4-5

49 and 57

 

 

45-22.4-5. Collection and expenditure of impact fees.

     (a) The collection and expenditure of impact fees must be reasonably related to the

benefits accruing to the development paying the fees. The ordinance may shall consider the

following requirements:

     (1) Upon collection, impact fees must be deposited in a special proprietary fund, which

shall be invested with all interest accruing to the trust fund;

     (2) Within eight (8) years of the date of collection, impact fees shall be expended or

encumbered for the construction of public facilities' capital improvements of reasonable benefit to

the development paying the fees and that are consistent with the capital improvement program;

     (3) Where the expenditure or encumbrance of fees is not feasible within eight (8) years,

the governmental entity may retain impact fees for a longer period of time if there are compelling

reasons for the longer period. The governing body shall identify, in writing, the compelling

reasons for retaining impact fees for a longer period of time over eight (8) years. In no case shall

impact fees be retained longer than twelve (12) ten (10) years.

     (b) All impact fees imposed pursuant to the authority granted in this chapter shall be

assessed upon the issuance of a building permit or other appropriate permission to proceed with

development and shall be collected in full only upon the issuance of the certificate of occupancy

or other final action authorizing the intended use of a structure.

     (c) A governmental entity may recoup costs of excess capacity in existing capital

facilities, where the excess capacity has been provided in anticipation of the needs of new

development, by requiring impact fees for that portion of the facilities constructed for future

users. The need to recoup costs for excess capacity must have been documented by a

preconstruction assessment that demonstrated the need for the excess capacity. Nothing contained

in this chapter shall prevent a municipality from continuing to assess an impact fee that recoups

costs for excess capacity in an existing facility without the preconstruction assessment so long as

the impact fee was enacted at least ninety (90) days prior to July 22, 2000, and is in compliance

with this chapter in all other respects pursuant to § 45-22.4-7. The fees imposed to recoup the

costs to provide the excess capacity must be based on the governmental entity's actual cost of

acquiring, constructing, or upgrading the facility and must be no more than a proportionate share

of the costs to provide the excess capacity. That portion of an impact fee deemed recoupment is

exempted from provisions of § 45-22.4-5 subsection (a)(2) of this section.

     (d) Governmental entities may accept the dedication of land or the construction of public

facilities in lieu of payment of impact fees provided that:

     (1) The need for the dedication or construction is clearly documented in the community's

capital improvement program or comprehensive plan;

     (2) The land proposed for dedication for the facilities to be constructed are determined to

be appropriate for the proposed use by the local governmental entity;

     (3) Formulas and/or procedures for determining the worth of proposed dedications or

constructions are established.

     (e) Exemptions: Impact fees shall not be imposed for remodeling, rehabilitation, or other

improvements to an existing structure, or rebuilding a damaged structure, unless there is an

increase in the number of dwelling units or any other measurable unit for which an impact fee is

collected. Impact fees may be imposed when property which that is owned or controlled by

federal or state government is converted to private ownership or control.

     (1) Impact fees shall not be imposed for remodeling, rehabilitation, or other

improvements to an existing structure, or rebuilding a damaged structure, unless there is an

increase in the number of dwelling units or any other measurable unit for which an impact fee is

collected. Impact fees may be imposed when property which that is owned or controlled by

federal or state government is converted to private ownership or control.

     (2) Nothing in this chapter shall prevent a municipality from granting any exemption(s)

which that it deems appropriate.


 

 

411)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-22.4-6

49 and 57

 

 

45-22.4-6. Refund of impact fees.

     (a) If impact fees are not expended or encumbered within the period established in § 45-

22.4-5, the governmental entity shall refund to the fee payer or his or her successors the amount

of the fee paid and accrued interest. The governmental entity shall send the refund to the fee

payer at the last known address by certified mail within one year of the date on which the right to

claim refund arises. Should the mailing of the fee be returned, the municipality shall make every

effort to obtain a new address for the fee payer, including a search of the public records, the

secretary of state's database, and the database for the contractors' registration and licensing board.

All refunds due and not claimed within one year shall be retained by the municipality forwarded

to the state treasurer's office for inclusion in the unclaimed property fund.

     (b) When a governmental entity seeks to terminate any or all impact fee requirements, all

unexpended or unencumbered funds shall be refunded as provided above. Upon the finding that

any or all fee requirements are to be terminated, the governmental entity shall place a notice of

termination and availability of refunds in a newspaper of general circulation in the community at

least two (2) times. All funds available for refund shall be retained for a period of one year. All

refunds not claimed within one year shall be forwarded to the state treasurer's office for inclusion

in the unclaimed property fund. At the end of one year, any remaining funds may be transferred

to the general fund and used for any public purpose. A governmental entity is released from this

notice requirement if there are no unexpended or unencumbered balances within a fund or funds

being terminated.


 

 

412)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-23-40

109 and 175

 

 

45-23-40. General provisions -- Major land development and major subdivision -- Master plan.

     (a) Submission requirements.

     (1) The applicant shall first submit to the administrative officer the items required by the

local regulations for master plans.

     (2) Requirements for the master plan and supporting material for this phase of review

include, but are not limited to: information on the natural and built features of the surrounding

neighborhood, existing natural and man-made conditions of the development site, including

topographic features, the freshwater wetland and coastal zone boundaries, the floodplains, as well

as the proposed design concept, proposed public improvements and dedications, tentative

construction phasing; and potential neighborhood impacts.

     (3) Initial comments will be solicited from:

     (i) Local agencies including, but not limited to, the planning department, the department

of public works, fire and police departments, the conservation and recreation commissions;

     (ii) Adjacent communities;

     (iii) State agencies, as appropriate, including the departments of environmental

management and transportation, and the coastal resources management council; and

     (iv) Federal agencies, as appropriate. The administrative officer shall coordinate review

and comments by local officials, adjacent communities, and state and federal agencies.

     (4) Requests for relief from the literal requirements of the zoning ordinance and/or for the

issuance of special-use permits related to major subdivisions and/or major land-development

projects that are submitted under a zoning ordinance's unified development review provisions

shall be included as part of the master plan application, pursuant to § 45-23-50.1(b).

     (b) Certification. The application must be certified, in writing, complete or incomplete by

the administrative officer within sixty (60) twenty-five (25) days, according to the provisions of §

45-23-36(b). The running of the time period set forth herein will be deemed stopped upon the

issuance of a certificate of incompleteness of the application by the administrative officer and will

recommence upon the resubmission of a corrected application by the applicant. However, in no

event will the administrative officer be required to certify a corrected submission as complete or

incomplete less than fourteen (14) ten (10) days after its resubmission.

     (c) Technical review committee. The technical review committee, if established, shall

review the application and shall comment and make recommendations to the planning board.

     (d) Informational meeting.

     (1) A public informational meeting will be held prior to the planning board decision on

the master plan, unless the master plan and preliminary plan approvals are being combined, in

which case the public informational meeting is optional, based upon planning board

determination, or unified development review has been requested, in which case a public hearing

shall be held pursuant to § 45-23-50.1(b).

     (2) Public notice for the informational meeting is required and must be given at least

seven (7) days prior to the date of the meeting in a newspaper of general circulation within the

municipality. Postcard notice must be mailed to the applicant and to all property owners within

the notice area, as specified by local regulations.

     (3) At the public informational meeting, the applicant will present the proposed

development project. The planning board must allow oral and written comments from the general

public. All public comments are to be made part of the public record of the project application.

     (e) Decision. The planning board shall, within one hundred and twenty (120) ninety (90)

days of certification of completeness, or within a further amount of time that may be consented to

by the applicant through the submission of a written waiver, approve of the master plan as

submitted, approve with changes and/or conditions, or deny the application, according to the

requirements of §§ 45-23-60 and 45-23-63.

     (f) Failure to act. Failure of the planning board to act within the prescribed period

constitutes approval of the master plan, and a certificate of the administrative officer as to the

failure of the planning board to act within the required time and the resulting approval will be

issued on request of the applicant.

     (g) Vesting.

     (1) The approved master plan is vested for a period of two (2) years, with the right to

extend for two (2), one-year extensions upon written request by the applicant, who must appear

before the planning board for the annual review. Thereafter, vesting may be extended for a longer

period, for good cause shown, if requested by the applicant, in writing, and approved by the

planning board. Master plan vesting includes the zoning requirements, conceptual layout, and all

conditions shown on the approved master plan drawings and supporting materials.

     (2) The initial four-year (4) vesting for the approved master plan constitutes the vested

rights for the development as required in § 45-24-44.


 

 

 

 

 

413)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-23-41

109 and 175

 

 

45-23-41. General provisions -- Major land development and major subdivision --

Preliminary plan.

     (a) Submission requirements.

     (1) The applicant shall first submit to the administrative officer the items required by the

local regulations for preliminary plans.

     (2) Requirements for the preliminary plan and supporting materials for this phase of the

review include, but are not limited to: engineering plans depicting the existing site conditions,

engineering plans depicting the proposed development project, a perimeter survey, all permits

required by state or federal agencies prior to commencement of construction, including permits

related to freshwater wetlands, the coastal zone, floodplains, preliminary suitability for individual

septic disposal systems, public water systems, and connections to state roads.

     (3) At the preliminary plan review phase, the administrative officer shall solicit final,

written comments and/or approvals of the department of public works, the city or town engineer,

the city or town solicitor, other local government departments, commissions, or authorities as

appropriate.

     (4) Prior to approval of the preliminary plan, copies of all legal documents describing the

property, proposed easements, and rights-of-way.

     (5) If the applicant is requesting alteration of any variances and/or special-use permits

granted by the planning board or commission at the master plan stage of review pursuant to

adopted unified development review provisions, and/or any new variances and/or special-use

permits, such requests and all supporting documentation shall be included as part of the

preliminary plan application materials, pursuant to § 45-23-50.1(b).

     (b) Certification. The application will be certified as complete or incomplete by the

administrative officer within sixty (60) twenty-five (25) days, according to the provisions of § 45-

23-36(b). The running of the time period set forth herein will be deemed stopped upon the

issuance of a certificate of incompleteness of the application by the administrative officer and will

recommence upon the resubmission of a corrected application by the applicant. However, in no

event shall the administrative officer be required to certify a corrected submission as complete or

incomplete less than fourteen (14) ten (10) days after its resubmission.

     (c) Technical review committee. The technical review committee, if established, shall

review the application and shall comment and make recommendations to the planning board.

     (d) Public hearing. Prior to a planning board decision on the preliminary plan, a public

hearing, which adheres to the requirements for notice described in § 45-23-42, must be held.

     (e) Public improvement guarantees. Proposed arrangements for completion of the

required public improvements, including construction schedule and/or financial guarantees, shall

be reviewed and approved by the planning board at preliminary plan approval.

     (f) Decision. A complete application for a major subdivision or development plan shall be

approved, approved with conditions, or denied, in accordance with the requirements of §§ 45-23-

60 and 45-23-63, within one hundred twenty (120) ninety (90) days of the date when it is certified

complete, or within a further amount of time that may be consented to by the developer through

the submission of a written waiver.

     (g) Failure to act. Failure of the planning board to act within the prescribed period

constitutes approval of the preliminary plan and a certificate of the administrative officer as to the

failure of the planning board to act within the required time and the resulting approval shall be

issued on request of the applicant.

     (h) Vesting. The approved preliminary plan is vested for a period of two (2) years with

the right to extend for two (2), one-year extensions upon written request by the applicant, who

must appear before the planning board for each annual review and provide proof of valid state or

federal permits as applicable. Thereafter, vesting may be extended for a longer period, for good

cause shown, if requested, in writing by the applicant, and approved by the planning board. The

vesting for the preliminary plan approval includes all general and specific conditions shown on

the approved preliminary plan drawings and supporting material.


 

 

414)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-23-63

109 and 175

 

 

45-23-63. Procedure -- Meetings -- Votes -- Decisions and records.

     (a) All records of the planning board proceedings and decisions shall be written and kept

permanently available for public review. Completed applications for proposed land development

and subdivisions projects under review by the planning board shall be available for public review.

     (b) Participation in a planning board meeting or other proceedings by any party is not a

cause for civil action or liability except for acts not in good faith, intentional misconduct,

knowing violation of law, transactions where there is an improper personal benefit, or malicious,

wanton, or willful misconduct.

     (c) All final written comments to the planning board from the administrative officer,

municipal departments, the technical review committee, state and federal agencies, and local

commissions are part of the permanent record of the development application.

     (d) Votes. All votes of the planning board shall be made part of the permanent record and

show the members present and their votes. A decision by the planning board to approve any land

development or subdivision application requires a vote for approval by a majority of the current

planning board membership. A decision by the planning board to approve a variance or special-

use permit pursuant to any adopted unified development review regulations requires a vote for

approval by a majority of the planning board members that were present at the public hearing at

which the request was heard.

     (e) All written decisions of the planning board shall be recorded in the land evidence

records within thirty-five (35) twenty (20) days after the planning board vote. A copy of the

recorded decision shall be mailed within one business day of recording, by any method that

provides confirmation of receipt, to the applicant and to any objector who has filed a written

request for notice with the administrative officer.


 

 

415)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-23-67

109 and 175

 

 

45-23-67. Appeals -- Process of appeal.

     (a) An appeal to the board of appeal from a decision or action of the planning board or

administrative officer may be taken by an aggrieved party to the extent provided in § 45-23-66.

The appeal must be taken within twenty (20) days after the decision has been filed recorded in the

city's or town's land evidence records and posted in the office of the city or town clerk.

     (b) The appeal shall be in writing and state clearly and unambiguously the issue or

decision which that is being appealed, the reason for the appeal, and the relief sought. The appeal

shall either be sent by certified mail, with a return receipt requested, or be hand-delivered to the

board of appeal. The city or town clerk shall accept delivery of an appeal on behalf of the board

of appeal, if the local regulations governing land development and subdivision review so provide.

     (c) Upon receipt of an appeal, the board of appeal shall require the planning board or

administrative officer to immediately transmit to the board of appeal, all papers, documents and

plans, or a certified copy thereof, constituting the record of the action which is being appealed.


 

 

416)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-24-61

109 and 175

 

 

45-24-61. Administration -- Decisions and records of zoning board of review.

     (a) Following a public hearing, the zoning board of review shall render a decision within

fifteen (15) days. The zoning board of review shall include in its decision all findings of fact and

conditions, showing the vote of each participating member, and the absence of a member or his or

her failure to vote. Decisions shall be recorded and filed in the office of the city or town clerk

within thirty (30) working days from the date when the decision was rendered, and is a public

record. The zoning board of review shall keep written minutes of its proceedings, showing the

vote of each member upon each question, or, if absent or failing to vote, indicating that fact, and

shall keep records of its examinations, findings of fact, and other official actions, all of which

shall be recorded and filed in the office of the zoning board of review in an expeditious manner

upon completion of the proceeding. For any proceeding in which the right of appeal lies to the

superior or supreme court, the zoning board of review shall have the minutes taken either by a

competent stenographer or recorded by a sound-recording device.

     (b) Any decision by the zoning board of review, including any special conditions attached

to the decision, shall be mailed within one business day of recording, by any method that provides

confirmation of receipt to the applicant, to any objector who has filed a written request for notice

with the zoning enforcement officer, and to the zoning enforcement officer of the city or town.

Any decision evidencing the granting of a variance, modification, or special use shall also be

recorded in the land evidence records of the city or town and mailed within one business day of

recording, by any method that provides confirmation of receipt, to the applicant, to any objector

who has filed a written request for notice with the zoning enforcement officer, and to the zoning

officerA copy of the recorded decision shall be mailed within one business day of recording, by

any method that provides confirmation of receipt, to the applicant, and to any objector who has

filed a written request for notice with the zoning enforcement officer, as well as a copy to the

zoning enforcement officer.


 

 

 

 

 

417)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-42-3

199 and 253

 

 

45-42-3. Mutual aid -- Campus police officer and special police officer.

     (a) Any public or private educational institution of higher learning located in this state,

with a police or other public safety department consisting of campus police officers appointed

pursuant to chapter 52 of title 16, or special police officers appointed pursuant to chapter 2.1 of

title 12, may enter into a mutual aid agreement with the city or town in which the institution is

primarily located, solely for the purpose of providing emergency assistance in response to

specific incidents at the request of the police chief of the city or town. Officers appointed under

this these chapter chapters must have satisfactorily completed a training academy certified by the

Police Officer's Commission on Standards and Training.

     (b) The mutual aid agreement will not be effective until formally approved by the city or

town council in which the institution is located, after a public hearing and by the governing body

or office of the institution of higher learning.

     (c) The special police officers responding to a request for emergency assistance pursuant

to a duly approved mutual aid agreement shall have the same authority, powers, duties, privileges,

and immunities for jurisdictional purposes as a duly appointed police officer of the city or town

making the request.

     (d) The special police officers responding to the request for emergency assistance under

the mutual aid agreement shall be subject to, and considered within, the control and authority of

the requesting chief of police for the duration of the emergency and until released by the

requesting chief of police.


 

 

418)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-55-2

219 and 323

 

 

45-55-2. Method of source selection.

     Except as otherwise authorized by law, all municipal contracts shall be awarded by:

     (1) Competitive sealed bidding, pursuant to § 45-55-5;

     (2) Competitive negotiations, pursuant to § 45-55-6;

     (3) Non-competitive negotiations, pursuant to §§ 45-55-7 and 45-55-8;

     (4) Small purchase procedures, pursuant to § 45-55-9.; and

     (5) Qualification-based selection (QBS) process for architects/engineers pursuant to § 45-

55-8.1, and program managers, construction managers, or construction managers at risk pursuant

to §45-55-8.2.


 

 

419)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-55-8.1

284 and 362

 

 

45-55-8.1. Qualification-based selection of architects and engineers.

     (a) When the purchasing agent determines that the city or town needs the services of a

professional architect or engineer, the purchasing agent shall follow the qualification-based

selection process for the procurement of architectural and engineering consulting services.

     (b) Federal requirements. In the procurement of architectural, engineering, and consulting

services and in the awarding of contracts, the city or town shall comply with federal law and

regulations including, but not limited to, Pub. L. 92-582 (Federal Architect-Engineer Selection

Law, Brooks Law, 40 U.S.C. 541§1101 et.seq.) and take all necessary steps to adapt its rules, specifications,

policies, and procedures accordingly to remain eligible for federal aid.

     (c) Prequalification. Cities and towns may establish procedures to prequalify firms

seeking to provide architectural, engineering, and consultant services or may use prequalification

lists from other state agencies to meet the requirements of this section.

     (d) No city or town, prior to selecting a firm for negotiation during procurement under

this section, shall seek formal or informal submission of verbal or written estimates of costs or

proposals in terms of dollars, hours required, percentage of construction cost, or any other

measure of compensation.


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

420)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-55-8.2

219 and 323

 

 

45-55-8.2. Qualification-based selection of program managers, construction

managers, or construction managers at risk.

     When the purchasing agent determines that the city or town needs the services of a

program manager, construction manager, or construction manager at risk, the purchasing agent

shall follow the regulations, as defined in §45-55-4 (16), for qualification-based selection for the

procurement of such services.


 

 

421)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-67

280 and 293

 

 

CHAPTER 67

BLOCK ISLAND UTILITY DISTRICT ACT OF 2017


 

 

422)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-68

10 and 27

 

 

CHAPTER 68

STATEWIDE MUNICIPAL SOLAR PERMIT


 

 

423)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

46-12.9-3

80 and 92

 

 

46-12.9-3. Definitions.

     When used in this chapter:

     (1) "Advisory board" means the Rhode Island underground storage tank financial

responsibility advisory board established pursuant to the provisions of § 46-12.9-8.

     (2) "Department" means the Rhode Island department of environmental management.

     (3) "Director" means the director of the department of environmental management, or his

or her designee.

     (4) "Eligible costs" means costs, expenses, and other obligations as incurred by a

responsible party for site investigation, site remediation, or other corrective-action activities

ordered or directed, and approved, by the department or performed by the responsible party and

not specifically identified by the department as ineligible.

     (5) "Facility" means any parcel of real estate or contiguous parcels of real estate owned

and/or operated by the same person(s), which together with all land, structures, facility

components, improvements, fixtures, and other appurtenances located therein, form a distinct

geographic unit and at which petroleum products or hazardous materials are or have been stored

in underground storage tanks.

     (5)(6) "Fund" means the Rhode Island underground storage tank financial responsibility

fund established herein.

     (6)(7) "Operator" means any person in control of, or having the responsibility for, the

daily operation of an underground, storage-tank system.

     (7)(8) "Owner" means any agency or political subdivision of the state; any municipality;

public or private corporation or authority; individual; trust; firm; joint stock company;

partnership, association, or other entity; and any officer, employee, or agent thereof person,

corporation, group, or other entity who or that holds exclusive or joint title to, or lawful

possession of, a facility or part of a facility.

     (8)(9) "Petroleum productmeans crude oil, crude-oil fractions, and refined-petroleum

fractions, including gasoline, kerosene, heating oils, used/waste oil, and diesel fuels. means crude

oil, or any fractions thereof, that is liquid at standard conditions of temperature sixty degrees

Fahrenheit (60°F) and pressure fourteen and seven tenths pounds per square inch absolute (14.7

psia) and includes substances derived from crude oil including, but not limited to, the following:

     (i) Gasoline;

     (ii) Fuel Oils;

     (iii) Diesel Oils;

     (iv) Waste Oils;

     (v) Gasohol, lubricants and solvents.

     (9)(10) "Release" means any leaking, emitting, discharging, escaping, or leaching of

petroleum from any underground storage tank or underground storage-tank system into the

environment. means any spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, injecting, emitting, escaping,

leaching, discharging, or disposing of any material stored in an underground storage-tank system

subject to these regulations into groundwater, surface water, soil, air, or any other environmental

media.

     (10)(11) "Responsible party" means the person or persons liable for release of petroleum

or the remediation of a release.

     (11) (i)(12) "Site" means any location at which, or from which, there has been a release

of petroleum associated with an underground storage tank or an underground storage-tank

system, or any location to which such petroleum has migrated.

     (ii) For the purposes of this chapter, "government site" means any location owned or

occupied, or previously owned or occupied, by any city or town, the state, or any agency of the

state, of which or from which there has been a release of petroleum associated with an

underground storage tank and underground storage-tank system.

     (12) "Underground storage tank" means any one or combination of tanks, including

underground pipes connected thereto, used to contain an accumulation of petroleum and the

volume of which, including the volume of underground pipes connected thereto, is ten percent

(10%) or more beneath the surface of the ground.

     (13) "Underground storage-tank system" means an underground storage tank and its

associated ancillary equipment and containment system, if any "UST" or "Underground storage-

tank system" means any one or more underground tanks, and their associated components,

including piping, used to contain, transport, or store petroleum product or hazardous material

whose volume is ten percent (10%) or more beneath the surface of the ground.


 

 

424)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

46-12.9-4

80 and 92

 

 

46-12.9-4. Petroleum cleanup fund.

     (a) There is hereby established the Rhode Island underground storage tank financial

responsibility fund.

     (b) The fund shall consist of any funds which that the state may, from time to time,

appropriate, as well as money received as gifts, grants, bequests, donations, or other funds from

any public or private sources or annual tank registration fees as established herein which that are

intended to serve the purposes of the Rhode Island underground storage tank financial

responsibility fund and all funds collected pursuant to § 46-12.9-11.

     (c) All funds collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the underground

storage tank fees fund, and shall be disbursed according to the purposes expressed in § 46-12.9-5.


 

 

425)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

46-12.9-5

80 and 92

 

 

46-12.9-5. Purpose of fund.

     (a) The purpose of the fund shall be to facilitate the clean-up of releases from leaking

underground storage tanks, underground storage-tank systems, including those located on sites or

government sites in order to protect the environment, including drinking water supplies and

public health, and to take necessary action to proactively prevent such releases.

     (b) The fund shall provide reimbursement to responsible parties for the eligible costs

incurred by them as a result of releases of certain petroleum from underground storage tanks or

underground storage-tank systems as provided herein. Monies in the fund shall be dispensed only

upon the order of the department for the following purposes:

     (1) The fund shall pay not more than one million dollars ($1,000,000) per incident, and

up to two million dollars ($2,000,000) in the aggregate, for damages of eligible costs, as defined

in regulations promulgated hereunder and, as further defined in § 46-12.9-3, excluding legal costs

and expenses, incurred by a responsible party as a result of a release of petroleum from an

underground storage tank or underground storage-tank system; provided, however, that a

responsible party shall may be responsible for the first twenty thousand dollars ($20,000) of said

eligible costs;

     (2) Reimbursement for any third-party claim including, but not limited to, claims for

bodily injury, property damage, and damage to natural resources which that are asserted against a

responsible party and which that have arisen as a result of a release of petroleum from an

underground storage tank or underground storage-tank system, in an amount not to exceed one

million dollars ($1,000,000) for each release as set forth in subsection (b)(1); provided, that such

claims are found by the department to be justified, reasonable, related to the release of petroleum,

and not excessive or spurious in nature;

     (3) Eligible costs Costs incurred by the department in carrying out the investigative,

remedial, and corrective action activities at sites of a petroleum release associated with an

underground storage tank or underground storage-tank system where the responsible party fails to

comply with an order of the department to take such corrective action undertake such activities.

In the event of such failure or documented inability to comply, the department may access the

fund to perform the ordered work and shall may proceed to recover from the responsible party, on

behalf of the fund, any amount expended from the fund by the department;

     (4) Nothing contained in this chapter shall be construed to prevent subrogation by the

state of Rhode Island against any responsible party, other than the owner and/or operator, for all

sums of money which that the fund shall be obligated to pay hereunder, plus reasonable

attorneys' fees and costs of litigation and such right of subrogation is hereby created; and

     (5) Eligible costs incurred by the department to support the fund, including, but not

limited to, all personnel support to process and review of claims in order to formulate

recommendations for reimbursement for consideration, and providing meeting space for board

meetings; provided, however, that no more than five hundred and fifty thousand dollars

($550,000) shall be dispensed from the fund for administrative purposes during any fiscal year.

The department shall directly access the fund, pursuant to the limits set forth in subdivision 46-

12.9-5(b)(1), of this section, to pay for such expenses.

     (6) [Deleted by P.L. 2016, ch. 148, § 1 and P.L. 2016, ch. 160, § 1].


 

 

426)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

46-12.9-6

80 and 92

 

 

46-12.9-6. Eligibility.

     (a) In order to be eligible for reimbursement from the fund for eligible costs, a

responsible party must be subject to financial responsibility as required by the EPA (40 C.F.R.

part 280 subpart H) and:

     (1) Have substantially complied with all state technical regulatory requirements for

underground storage tanks and underground storage-tank systems as promulgated by the

department of environmental management pursuant to chapter 12 of this title and chapter 17.1 of

title 42, including, but not limited to, requirements for registration, proper installation, spill

containment, line leak detection, corrosion protection, leak detection, tank tightness testing,

inventory control, closure, and leak or spill reporting;

     (2) Have incurred an eligible cost in excess of the deductible amount specified in § 46-

12.9-5(b)(1) whether for clean-up or related matters or for claims of third parties as set forth in §

46-12.9-3 resulting from a release of petroleum, subject to the motor and special fuels tax from an

underground storage tank or underground storage-tank system. In order to apply for

reimbursement from the fund, it shall not be necessary that the third party and the responsible

party complete adjudication of any claim before submission to the review board department;

provided, however, that all such claims shall be reasonably verified and must be demonstrated to

the reasonable satisfaction of the review board department in order to be considered eligible for

reimbursement.

     (b) Notwithstanding the financial responsibility requirement of this section, responsible

parties may be eligible for reimbursement of eligible costs incurred for government sites provided

that:

     (1) A city, town, the state, or a state agency is the responsible party for a release at the

government site and was the owner of the site at the time of the release;

     (2) A city, town, the state, or a state agency is the responsible party and owner of the

government site at the time of application on which a release occurred prior to the city, town, or

state agency's ownership, provided that the government entity purchased the property prior to

March 1, 1998; or

     (3) A city, town, the state, or a state agency was the responsible party at the time of the

release and the government site is owned by a successor in interest at the time of application.

     (c) Incurred costs eligible for reimbursement may be submitted to the department up to

two (2) years from the date on the originally issued invoice(s) for the incurred costs. Any invoices

submitted after this two-(2) year (2) deadline will be considered ineligible for reimbursement.

     (c)(d) Notwithstanding the requirement that the released petroleum be subject to the

motor and special fuels tax, underground storage tanks containing petroleum products for which

the motor and special fuels tax is inapplicable including, but not limited to, underground storage

tanks used for the distribution of No. 2 heating oil, used/waste oil, kerosene, or other materials as

deemed appropriate by the review board department may be eligible for reimbursement with the

following exceptions:

     (1) Underground storage tanks containing heating or fuel oils used solely for onsite

consumption shall not be eligible.

     (2) Underground storage tanks exempted from the department's "regulations for

underground storage facilities used for petroleum products and hazardous materials" under

Section 5.03 and Section 9.01 (A-D) shall not be eligible.


 

 

427)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

46-12.9-7

80 and 92

 

 

46-12.9-7. Rules and regulations.

The department is hereby authorized to promulgate, implement, and amend regulations,

in accordance with the provisions of chapter 35 of title 42, providing for the submission of claims

to the fund and the timely disbursement of monies from the fund. Such regulations shall include,

but not be limited to, the following:

     (1) A means of notifying all eligible parties of the existence and functioning of the fund;

     (2) The record keeping required of eligible parties for submission to, and reimbursement

from, the fund;

     (3) A set criteria which that establishes the eligibility for reimbursement of specific

costs, expenses, and other obligations;

     (4) A method of providing periodic reimbursement for eligible costs incurred by an

eligible party after July 8, 1994. Such reimbursement shall be processed in the order that the

claims were filed, subject to funds availability, except in the case where the director finds that

funds must be expended out of order in order to abate an environmental emergency;

     (5) A requirement that the department render its decisions to an eligible party upon the

receipt of a complete claim for reimbursement within ninety (90) days following its receipt of

completed claim;

     (6) Establishing procedures for verifying claims presented under this chapter;

     (7) Establishing procedures for approving, modifying, or denying claims;

     (8) The eligibility of claims shall be determined by the department; provided, however,

that no claims shall be considered for costs incurred prior to January 1, 1994, by responsible

parties who are owners or operators of no more than one location containing underground storage

tanks and July 8, 1994, by all other responsible parties;

     (9) Empowering the department to recognize and arrange for performance-based and

other contracts with the responsible party and/or contractor for the remediation of a release; and

     (10) Empowering the department to arrange for the establishment of alternate means of

financial responsibility.


 

 

428)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

46-12.9-9

80 and 92

 

 

46-12.9-9. Reconsideration hearing.

     Any person aggrieved by a decision on a claim submitted to the department may request

a reconsideration hearing before the department of environmental management administrative

adjudication division under the provisions of the regulations of that office and such regulations

shall be consistent with the Rhode Island administrative procedures act, chapter 35 of title 42.

Any such decision shall contain a notice of the right to request a hearing and may specify a

reasonable time limit, not to exceed twenty-one (21) days, within which said person shall request

a hearing. If no such request is made in a timely manner, the said person shall be deemed to have

assented to the decision. If a timely request is received, the review board department of

environmental management administrative adjudication division, within a reasonable period of

time, shall act upon such request in accordance with the provisions of the Rhode Island

administrative procedures act.


 

 

429)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

46-12.9-11

80 and 92

 

 

46-12.9-11. Fundings.

     (a) There is hereby imposed an environmental protection regulatory fee of one cent

($0.01) per gallon payable of motor fuel, to be collected by distributors of motor fuel when the

product is sold to owners and/or operators of underground storage tanks. Each distributor shall be

responsible to the tax administrator for the collection of the regulatory fee, and if the distributor is

unable to recover the fee from the person who ordered the product, the distributor shall

nonetheless remit to the tax administrator the regulatory fee associated with the delivery. In

accordance with the regulations to be promulgated hereunder, the fee shall be collected, reported,

and paid to the Rhode Island division of taxation as a separate, line-item entry, on a quarterly tax

report by those persons charged with the collection, reporting, and payment of motor fuels taxes.

This fee shall be administered and collected by the division of taxation. Notwithstanding the

provisions of this section, the fee shall not be applicable to purchases by the United States

government.


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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541)

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